Save
Upgrade to remove ads
Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever
or
show password
Forgot Password?
Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever
or
Username is available taken
show password


Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account. Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.

Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
focusNode
Didn't know it?
click below
 
Knew it?
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
0:00
edit
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

2AX5X Vol.1 URE

QuestionAnswer
1. (001) The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is 2
2. (001) What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards? 98
3. (001) Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures? c. Manuals, TOs, and handbooks.
4. (001) What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression Initial
5. (002) A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MSDSs if concentrations are greater than c. 0.1 percent.
6. (002) Hazardous Waste Management System rules are published by c. DOD.
7. (002) Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed c. 90 days.
8. (003) What affects radiation hazards? b. Strength of emission, time of exposure, and weather.
9. (003) The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft d. allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air.
10. (003) The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side b. 45°.
11. (003) Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue? c. A feeling of emptiness.
12. (003) When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing c. Weapons personnel.
13. (003) Before moving an explosives-loaded aircraft into a hangar you must c. remove all ammunition and explosives.
14. (003) All composite material-related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT (form)? a. 55.
15. (004) The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to c. identify all possible sources of FOD.
16. (004) Who is responsible for FOD prevention? d. Everyone.
17. (004) When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the a. maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent.
18. (004) In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects? d. QA.
19. (005) The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is c. green markings.
20. (005) Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a b. 20-foot radius.
21. (006) Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check? b. The aircrew.
22. (006) When serving as fireguard, you position yourself even with the d. nose of the aircraft and at a 45 angle outboard of the engine being started.
23. (006) What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals? b. AFI 11-218.
24. (006) During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the “all clear to move” order? d. Supervisor only.
25. (007) What are the Air Force’s maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability? c. Organizational, intermediate, and depot.
26. (007) What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need? b. Preventive.
27. (008) Objectives of the MDD system include d. collecting, storing, and retrieving base-level data.
28. (008) What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database? d. Select serially controlled and time change items.
29. (008) What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil? b. 781F.
30. (008) The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder c. after the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing.
31. (008) Engine over-temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO b. 781J.
32. (008) Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting? d. Item managers
33. (009) The IMDS is the production-oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the d. unit level.
34. (009) The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by d. helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training.
35. (010) When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your training program? a. Within 60 days of arrival.
36. (010) The GAS is normally sent out a. 90 days after graduation.
37. (010) Where can you find a list of training courses available for an AFSC? d. CFETP, Part II.
38. (011) The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time d. visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses.
39. (012) Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency? c. Reference.
40. (012) What is the total number of Air Force TO catalogs? a. 1.
41. (013) Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists twobpossible responses? b. Remedy.
42. (013) What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page? b. Urgent action.
43. (014) Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO Form 22? b. 00-5-1.
44. (014) Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency? b. Urgent.
45. (015) Which type of nondirective publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but cannot enforce what’s on the form? b. Pamphlet.
46. (016) Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet? b. B-2.
47. (016) Which of these is a scissor-type maintenance stand? c. B-4.
48. (016) What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support? b. 8,000.
49. (016) On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the Model 3000 engine trailer is c. 20 mph.
50. (016) What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft? b. Axle.
51. (016) Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO Form 134 is properly documented? d. Everyone.
52. (016) GOX high-pressure cylinders are painted d. green with a white band near the top.
53. (016) When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by c. qualified operators only.
54. (017) What is the horsepower rating of the diesel engine powering the SGNSC? 49
55. (017) What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high-pressure nitrogen? c. 4,400 psig.
56. (017) The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to c. 3,200 psi.
57. (017) The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of a. 200 psi.
58. (017) The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from d. 150 to 280 °F.
59. (017) What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner? d. 20 mph.
60. (017) The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from b. 47 to 200 °F.
61. (017) The A/M32A-86 generator set’s T-R produces c. 28.5 VDC.
62. (017) What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance? c. A/M32A-60.
63. (017) Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60? d. 35C2-3-372-11.
64. (017) The FL-1D floodlight consists of two b. 1,000 watt lamp fixtures.
65. (017) What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces? d. 20 mph.
66. (017) What is used to drive the MK-3A-1? b. An electric motor.
67. (017) How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated? c. Number 1 and Number 2.
68. (017) The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid? b. 27 gallons.
69. (017) The MB-4 Coleman incorporates d. four-wheel steering, four-wheel drive.
70. (017) What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman? b. 20 mph.
71. (017) What type of steering system on the MB-4 Eagle tow vehicle provides for two-wheel steer, four-wheel coordinated steer, and four-wheel oblique steer? c. Hydraulic.
72. (018) Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications? c. Prevent corrosion.
73. (018) How are special bolts identified? d. The bolt head is marked with the letter S.
74. (018) Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems? Clevis
75. (018) Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high-tension applications? d. An internal wrenching type.
76. (018) Left-hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the d. groove on the end of the barrel.
77. (018) Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal? a. Soft rubber.
78. (018) A push-pull rod end engagement is checked by d. inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal.
79. (018) What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing? a. 15 to 20 inches.
80. (018) The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than b. 15 percent of wall thickness.
81. (018) Generally, low-pressure hoses are used for what pressures? b. 300 psi and below.
82. (019) The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series when using the single-wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a c. 24 inch length of wire.
83. (019) When securing widely spaced bolts by the double-twist safetying method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series? a. 3.
84. (019) Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them? d. Axially assembled retaining rings.
85. (019) Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360-degree contact with the grove? b. Spiral retaining ring.
86. (020) What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit? d. Pin-and-socket contacts.
87. (020) In the cannon plug code MS3106F-12-10PW, the letter P indicates a. pin.
88. (021) Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied? a. Indicating type.
89. (021) Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached? b. Breakaway type.
90. (021) Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the b. maximum setting at least six times.
91. (021) What are the two stresses that a fastener takes when tightened? b. Tension and torsion.
92. (021) Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving? a. Static.
93. (022) Use the range button on the Fluke multimeter to d. move the decimal point.
94. (022) When the H symbol is shown on the Fluke multimeter display, the b. touch-hold mode is in use.
95. (023) Which tool is used to measure the gap between two parts? c. Feeler gauge.
96. (023) What is the longest possible movement between the micrometer’s spindle and anvil? b. 1.0 inch.
97. (023) Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut? c. Spring-joint calipers.
98. (023) Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders? d. Odd-leg caliper.
99. (023) Which caliper has the words “IN” and “OUT” stamped on the frame? a. Slide caliper.
100. (024) Who is responsible for ensuring that good supply discipline is practiced? c. Supervisors at all levels.
101. (024) Bench stock levels are established to provide a b. 30-day usage.
102. (024) Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods? c. AF IMT 1297.
103. (025) All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code? d. ERRC.
104. (025) Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the DIFM notice and c. AFTO Form 350.
105. (025) Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters? a. 1577-2 and 1577-3.
106. (026) Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for b. 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt.
107. (027) Which insp is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft-specific –6 technical order and is a thorough insp of the entire aerospace vehicle? b. Periodic.
108. (027) Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station check, major, and minor inspections? c. Isochronal.
109. (027) Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements? d. Programmed depot maintenance.
110. (027) Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in b. inspection workcards.
111. (028) Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems? d. EOR.
112. (028) The TH inspection is normally performed b. after flights when a turn-around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled.
113. (028) Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days? c. Calendar.
114. (028) Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents? d. Acceptance.
115. (029) To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD Form b. 1149.
116. (030) Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance? c. 1-1B-50.
117. (030) What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, landing gear requirements, and payload capacity? d. Aircraft weight.
118. (031) Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy? c. “TRIAGE”.
119. (032) Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is d. fabricated or manufactured.
120. (032) Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is d. exhausted or salvaged.
121. (032) What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains? c. Exfoliation.
122. (032) What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in a metal? a. Stress.
123. (033) Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in d. TO 1-1-691.
124. (033) After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from a lead-acid battery? c. Sodium bicarbonate.
Created by: addiaz_915
Popular Military sets

 

 



Voices

Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
Retries:
restart all cards