Help
Options
Didn't know it?
click below
click below
Knew it?
click below
click below
Don't Know
Remaining cards (0)
Know
retry
shuffle
restart
0:00
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.
Normal Size Small Size show me how
Normal Size Small Size show me how
MOA Ch 3
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
| Type of law that governs the relationships of individuals | Civil Law |
| Laws established by the legislative branch of government | Statutory Law |
| Laws established by the court | Common Law |
| Legal concept establishing that evidence speaks for itself | Res ipsa loquitur |
| A physician who fails to properly terminate a physician-patient relationship may be liable for _____ | Abandonment |
| Name of party who initiates a legal action against another | Plaintiff |
| Federal agencies are responsible for establishing and enforcing _____ | Administrative Law |
| Health care professionals are required to perform in a manner that is consistent with the expectations of their profession. This is a legal concept known as _______ | Standards of care |
| The Latin phrase "respondeat superior" means | A physician may be liable for the actions of his or her employees in the medical office |
| If a physician terminates care of a patient, which of the following is incorrect | The patient is not required to pay his or her outstanding bill. |
| Which of the following is not required to prove a physician's negligence | Patient paid physician for medical treatment |
| Legal agreement between two people that creates an obligation | Contract |
| Establishes a time period during which legal action must commence | Statute of Limitations |
| What type of health information should not be released by a physician? | Parent requesting information about treatment of a minor for a sexually transmitted disease |
| If an assistant is called to court as a witness the assistant should ______ | State "I don't know" if an answer to a question is not known |
| Which of the following is not part of informed consent? | Patient is informed of costs of treatment |
| Which of the following is not good risk management practice? | Ignore upset patients and give them a chance to cool down |
| Which of the following is false about a license to practice medicine? | A physician involved in a malpractice suit is not allowed to practice |
| All of the following are reasons that a physician may stop treating a patient except _________ | All of the above are reasons for termination |
| Testimony given outside a courtroom | Deposition |
| An advance directive specifying a patient's desired treatment if in a terminal irreversible condition | Living will |
| An order for an individual to appear in court | Subpoena |
| An advance directive giving authority to an individual to make medical decisions for an incapacitated patient | Durable power of attorney for health care |
| An order to produce medical records for trial use | Subpoena duces tecum |
| That act or service to be performed is lawful | Legal subject matter |
| Individual is an adult of sound mind | Legal capacity |
| One party agrees to do something, and another party also agrees | Offer and acceptance |
| Something of value is exchanged | Consideration |
| To give approval for medical treatment | Consent |
| Patient is given full information about medical condition, alternative treatments, and associated risks, as well as potential benefits for each treatment | Informed consent |
| This consent is evidenced by the patient's actions, that is, a patient opens her mouth when the physician asks her to do so | Implied consent |
| The patient either verbally or in writing communicates the desire to have medical treatment | Expressed consent |
| Risk management means reducing the possibility that a patient will sue the practice (T/F) | True |
| Establishing a good relationship with patients helps to reduce the chance of litigation in the future (T/F) | True |
| Everything an assistant says or does is believed to have been done at the direction of the physician (T/F) | True |
| If a patient is upset about services received in the office, it is best to point out to the patient why the patient is wrong (T/F) | False |
| If a patient is injured in the office, this should be reported to the physician immediately (T/F) | True |
| If a patient is injured in the office, a report should be completed to document the incident (T/F) | True |
| An assistant has little effect on whether a patient could potentially sue a medical practice (T/F) | False |
| Any employee of a medical office can be sued (T/F) | True |
| Keeping all medical information confidential is an important risk management practice of the medical office (T/F) | True |
| A patient who is suing a physician for malpractice may be required to obtain the testimony of an expert physician who will support the plaintiff's allegations. (T/F) | True |
| A malpractice suit against a physician may be brought at any time during the patient's life (T/F) | False |
| The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act regulates gifts that a physician is allowed to receive from health industry corporations (T/F) | False |
| A physician may be sued for malpractice if he or she fails to act (T/F) | True |
| Punitive damages are awarded to compensate for lost wages (T/F) | False |
| Some states may set limits on the amount of punitive damages that may be awarded (T/F) | True |
| Both compensatory damages and exemplary damages may be awarded in a legal case (T/F) | True |
| Information that a patient uses to make an informed decision about a health care treatment can be given to the patient by the physician over a period of time and is not necessarily a one-time event (T/F) | True |
| A wife can be a witness to her husband's advance directive (T/F) | False |
| A physician could be sued for doing nothing (T/F) | True |
| A do-not-resuscitate order is a type of advance directive (T/F) | True |
| According to the study presented in this chapter, most malpractice cases settle before going to trial, but most result in payments to plaintiffs (T/F) | False |
| Failing to act is known as omission, and acting poorly or negligently is known as commission (T/F) | True |
| The purpose of a state's medical practice act is to protect the public (T/F) | True |
| All scheduled drugs require a written prescription from the physician (T/F) | True |
| A paper shredder should be placed in a visible area so that patients can see that medical information is destroyed before it is thrown away (T/F) | False |
| Health care employees usually are required to sign a confidentiality agreement with their employer (T/F) | True |
| Volunteers at a health care facility should be required to sign a confidentiality agreement with the facility (T/F) | True |
| A computer system in a medical office can track which parts of the system have been accessed by each use (T/F) | True |
| To protect confidential information on a computer system, access can be restricted for users (T/F) | True |
| There are no state laws protecting the confidentiality of patient's medical information (T/F) | False |
| Oral consent of the patient is usually sufficient for release of his or her medical information (T/F) | False |
| Uniform Anatomical Gift Act of 1968 -This act governs the donation of body parts (T/F) | True |
| Uniform Anatomical Gift Act of 1968-An individual must donate all body parts to be an organ donor (T/F) | False |
| Uniform Anatomical Gift Act of 1968-Relatives of a deceased individual may donate any or all of the body parts of the deceased (T/F) | True |
| Uniform Anatomical Gift Act of 1968-Once an individual has made the decision to be an organ donor, the decision is permanent and may not be revoked (T/F) | False |
| Uniform Anatomical Gift Act of 1968-A medical school, a hospital, or a specific individual in need may be the recipient of an organ donation (T/F) | True |
| Uniform Anatomical Gift Act of 1968-Persons of all ages can be donors, but those younger than age 18 need parental permission (T/F) | True |
| Uniform Anatomical Gift Act of 1968-When donation of body parts is considered, the age of a person is not important; the condition of the patient's organs or the presence of disease may affect the ability to donate (T/F) | True |
| Uniform Anatomical Gift Act of 1968-Body tissues such as ligaments, corneas, or stem cells may be donated and stored (T/F) | True |
| Uniform Anatomical Gift Act of 1968-Donations can be made by living or deceased patients (T/F) | True |
| Controlled Substance Act (CSA) of 1970-This act governs the manufacture and distribution of potentially addictive substances (T/F) | True |
| Controlled Substances Act (CSA) of 1970-Narcotics are regulated by the Controlled Substances Act (T/F) | True |
| Controlled Substances Act (CSA) of 1970-Controlled substances under this act are classified on a scale of 1 to 10, with 10 being the most addictive (T/F) | False |
| Controlled Substances Act (CSA) of 1970-Physicians must include their DEA number on a prescription when prescribing a controlled substance (T/F) | True |
| Controlled Substances Act (CSA) of 1970-The possibility that someone could be addicted to a drug is a factor that may cause a drug to be a scheduled drug (T/F) | True |
| Good Samaritan Statutes-Less than half of the 50 states have Good Samaritan statutes (T/F) | False |
| Good Samaritan Statutes-Good Samaritans are free from all liability if they stop at the scene of an accident (T/F) | False |
| Good Samaritan Statutes-Good Samaritan statutes protect all health care professionals who work in an emergency room (T/F) | False |
| Good Samaritan Statutes-The purpose of Good Samaritan statutes is to protect health care professionals from liability when they stop at an accident scene to render aid (T/F) | True |
| Advance Directives-A living will covers more possible health care situations than does a durable power of attorney for health care (T/F) | False |
| Advance Directives-More or less, advance directives communicate a patient's wishes for health care treatment before a serious medical situation may arise (T/F) | True |
| Advance Directives-Advance directives help inform a patient's family members of the patient's desire for medical treatment (T/F) | True |
| Advance Directives-Every patient in a medical office must have an advance directive (T/F) | False |
| Advance Directives-A living will communicates a patient's wishes for life-sustaining treatment such as tube feeding or ventilator use (T/F) | True |
| Advance Directives-Once a patient is comatose, a living will is null and void (T/F) | False |
| Advance Directives-Copies of a patient's living will or durable power of attorney for health care should be placed in the patient's chart (T/F) | True |
| Advance Directives-A patient's relative can be a witness to the patient's advance directive (T/F) | False |
| Health Insurance Portability Act (HIPAA) of 1996-HIPAA allows physicians to have complete control over the release of a patient's medical information (T/F) | False |
| Health Insurance Portability Act (HIPAA) of 1996-Knowingly releasing private medical information in an improper manner is a criminal offense (T/F) | True |
| Health Insurance Portability Act (HIPAA) of 1996-A patient may obtain a copy of his or her medical record (T/F) | True |
| Health Insurance Portability Act (HIPAA) of 1996-When hiring an individual, an employer may access the individual's entire medical record (T/F) | False |
| Health Insurance Portability Act (HIPAA) of 1996-Civil and criminal penalties may be given to persons who violate HIPAA regulations (T/F) | True |
| Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA) of 1986-EMTALA requires that hospitals receiving Medicare funding are required to provide medical screening examination for emergency patients (T/F) | True |
| Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA) of 1986-Emergency medical screening examination must be performed regardless of a patient's ability to pay. (T/F) | True |
| Written rules established by society that everyone is obligated to follow; is continually updated. | Laws |
Created by:
AbiNoel
Popular Medical sets