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______________ are strongly Gram-positive, spore-forming, aerobic, and also: Motile because of flagella Beta-hemolytic because of cereolysin B. cereus
cAMP-upregulating A/B toxin expressed in high-protein environments causes what and how long after ingestion diarrhea ~12 hours
Vomiting within a few hours after eating re-heated rice is caused by what virulence factor Cereolysin
_________ can cause rapidly destructive ocular infections following traumatic inoculation of spores into the cornea (because of ___________) B. cereus; cereolysin
_______________ are strongly Gram-positive, spore-forming, aerobic, and also: Non-motile Gamma-hemolytic Able to produce a capsule (poly-glutamate, not carbohydrates, only one serotype) B. anthracis
Usually grow as large, white “ground glass” colonies on blood agar B.anthracis
. anthracis virulence from two A/B toxins that have the same B-subunit (= “protective antigen”), but 2 different A-subunits which are: Lethal factor and Edema factor
A-subunit that cleaves MAP kinase that stops translation Lethal factor
A-subunit that that promotes cAMP upregulation in B.anthracis Edema factor
___________ infects livestock animals because the spores are found in soil, animals get spores on their skin Farmers/ranchers B. anthracis
___________ ________ is by far the most common form of anthrax infection (>95% of cases). Low case-fatality rate (20% if untreated). Cutaneous anthrax
Pulmonary Anthrax ( also called______________ disease) is an infection of the ________ with B. anthracis spores that can have a very long latency, and high case-fatality Woolsorters; alveoli
What antibiotic would be the best choice for treatment of the postal workers exposed to anthrax, assuming none had any allergies to any antibiotics? Penicillin
_____________ are large, Gram-positive, spore-forming, strictly anaerobic, and also: Beta-hemolytic because of phospholipase C C. perfringens
Cellulitis (with radiating, but not directional, spread) can be caused by ____________. What other three bacteria cause cellulitis? C. perfringens; s.aureus and s.pyogenes, h.influenza
unique characteristic of Myonecrosis and “gas gangrene,” which have high case-fatality, develop rapidly. “Crepitance” = pushing on necrotic wound makes hissing or crackling off-gassing noises
Foods poisoning likely to be from contaminated stews and gravies prepared in large quantities and held at temperatures below 60 C (140 F) for extended periods of time. C. perfringens
__________ are large, Gram-positive, spore-forming, strictly anaerobic, and also: Motile (although this test is rarely used to differentiate them) Produce a large, round, terminal spore that makes them look like a lollipop C. tetani
Tetanus toxin is an A/B toxin that has a B-subunit that binds to _______ _________, and an A-subunit that stops ______ + ______ release motor neurons; GABA + glycine
Botulism toxin A is an A/B toxin that has a B-subunit that binds to _______ _______s, and an A-subunit that stops _____________release motor neuron; acetylcholine
In adults and children, botulism is a foodborne intoxication from foods contaminated with C. botulinum spores and then incubated __________ (like canned vegetables). anaerobically
two causes of floppy baby syndrome in neonates <1 year old and their mechanisms C. botulinum stops acetycholine release; Mystenia gravix ---
Most common cause: ingestion of contaminated food Toxin can be destroyed by re-heating food Botulism
Most common cause anaerobic (i.e., puncture) wound infection Widespread vaccination has made_______ cases very rare in developed countries tetanus
Both C. botulinum and C. tetani are broadly susceptible to antibiotics: particularly ___________ metronidazole.
Following long-term antibiotic use, __________ can outcompete more benign normal microbiota,  inflammation, destruction of colonic epithelia , C. difficile
Long-term antibiotic use, especially with ___________ or _________, is the key risk factor for developing C. difficile pseudomembranous colitis clarithromycin; ciprofloxacin
Use of alcohol-based hand sanitizers increases spread of _________ spores from person to person C. difficile
Gold standard treatment was (oral) vancomycin Emerging gold standard treatment = metronidazole + fecal transplants (as capsul) C. difficile
__________ is a short Gram-positive rod that is weakly beta-hemolytic and CAMP-test positive. It’s motile at 25 C but nonmotile at 37 C. Listeria monocytogenes
L. monocytogenes’ beta-hemolysis is caused by________________. How? Listeriolysin O; Pokes big barrel shape holes in RBC’s (an amphipathic poreforming toxin)
Rather than expressing flagella genes at 37 C, Listeria express _____, which causes the restructuring of our cells’ cytoskeletons acting as “_________” moving bacteria from one cell to the next. actA; actin rocket
The actA gene is in the operon for _____________, an antioxidant. This means that more ActA is produced by Listeria bacteria in cells that are trying to kill the bacteria with _______? glutathione; Reactive Oxygen Species
why can listeria cross placental barrier? actin rocket
__________ is normal flora in dairy animals’ digestive tracts  contamination of milk products. Unpasteurized dairy products, especially soft cheeses, are the most at risk Listeria
a facultative psychrophile bacteria that grows well at 4 C and some at 0 C, so bacterial growth occurs even with refrigerated foods. Listeria
Drug txment for listeria? Penicillin or ampicillin
Inflammation of the skin, clear borders, more purple. Seen on hands/arms. V. pxful throbbing or burning. Erysipeloid
Microaerophilic: Must be grown in 5-10% CO2 and reduced O2; slow growth (incubate >3 days). Found in domestic animals, especially pigs. Name this bacteria Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
In the diphtheria toxin, what does the A-subunit do? What does the B-subunit bind to? stops translation by binding to EF-2;heparin-binding epidermal growth factor
Where can we find heparin-binding epidermal growth factor in the B subunit in the diptheria toxin respiratory epithelial cells, some neurons and cardiac cells
this bacteria has a Beta-phage’s (phage with toxin gene) insertion site that is in an operon which is turned off by iron C. diphtheriae
a bacteria that is very resistant to antibiotics and Can grow on indwelling medical devices (e.g., catheters, PIC lines), which can lead to endocarditis (ppl who are already susceptible) C. juekardium
Causes urinary tract infections producing kidney stones because of strong urease activity. Urea produces NH3+ that increases pH and leads to increase in Mg and Ca+ that leads to stones. C. urealyticum
expression of yellow or orange nodules = “sulfur granules.” These are colonies of the ____________ bacteria all glommed together. actinomyces
___________ ___________is the most common symptomatic infection with actinomyces, usually following a dental trauma. Cervicofacial actinomycosis
Actinomyces causing an infection in the uterus or vagina Pelvic actinomycosis
Only mycolic acid containing bacteria that is facultatively anaerobic Actinomycetes
what is the treatment for Actinomycetes? debridement of affected tissue and Uniformly susceptible to beta-lactams (including 1st generation) and macrolides
what are 3 mechanisms to treat Propionibacterium acnes 1.) Benzoyl peroxide dissolves sebum 2.)salicylic acid sloughs keratin 3.) retinol leads to increased cell turnover
Gram-positive bacilli that live off of the sebum in our pores. Propionibacterium acnes
___________ are common contaminants in urine samples from women, and are vancomycin-resistant and also they can cause septicemia and endocarditis in very immunocompromised patients Lactobacillus
how to diagnose bacterial Vaginosis whiff test - vag swab with potassium hydroxide
three reasons Koch’s postulate expirament might be ineffective for human dx -Can’t culture any virus’ -Can’t isolate from organisms that only affect humans -can't culture anything intracellular
Nocardia’s tiny filamentous structures seen on a slide result in colonies that look fluffy to the naked eye are called aerial hyphae
Nocardia’s key virulence factor ___________ stops what? cord factor; phagosome-lysosome fusion
a bacteria that: Can have lymphatic spread Survives in macrophages Antibiotic susceptibility varies by isolate Nocardia
____________ can cause tuberculosis-like symptoms following inhalation, but only in patients with CMI deficiencies who play with horsies Rhodococcus equi
_______________ causes cutaneous infections, can cause cavitating lung infections in immune compromised patients; abscesses can be seen in many different tissues Nocardia
cord factor virlunce factor is made up of _______________ + ____________ mycolic acid + trehalose
a cytokine that like IL-6, can lead to fever; chemoattractant for cytotoxic T-cells IL-12
a cytokine that acts as an Attractant for cytotoxic T-cells, induces apoptosis in targeted cells also increases metabolism Tumor necrosis factor (TNF):
Key cytokine for maintenance of granuloma? what cell releases it? IFN-gamma; Th1 cell
90-95% of TB infections lead to what? symptomless granuloma
5% of TB infections immediate cause what? cavitary TB
M. tuberculosis can disseminate through bloodstream to other body sites besides the lungs, name 2. spleen and other secondary lymphoid tissues
what kind of vaccine is the TB vaccine live attenuated
who is in the highest risk group when using a PPD to measure size of immune response (in mm) >5mm
drug treatments for TB and their mechanisms 1.) Isoniazid- stops mycolic acid synthesis 2.)Ethambutol - inhibits the synthesis of lipoarabinomannan,(attaches mycolic acid to peptidoglycan layers). 3.) Pyrazinamide - disrupt ATP synthesis 4.)rifampin
what kind of leprosy presents with: -Hypo-pigmented plaques -Enlargement of nerves -Leprosy test positive -Good CMI response (Th1) Tuberculoid leprosy
what kind of leprosy presents with: -Decrease in CMI (Th2) -Leonine fascies -Anesthesia -Armadillos Lepromatous leprosy
_____________ leprosy often begins with loss of hair on eyebrows, destruction of tissue around the bridge of the nose, and hyperkeratosis on face. This = “leonine facies” Lepromatous
treatment of tuberculoid leprosy typically with sulfanilamide, to stop bacterial growth and dapsone, to stop macrophage migration. Thalidomide not recommended by WHO because of birth defects.
____________causes tuberculosis-like, cavitary lung lesion + wasting and fever symptoms in patients with deficient CMI. It virtually never causes disease in healthy people, and is ubiquitous in nature. Mycobacterium avium complex
_________causes scrofula, a granulomatous cervical lymphadenitis. M. scrofulaceum
_____________causes slowly-resolving granulomatous subcutaneous infections following traumatic inoculation of the bacteria, which are found in seawater M. marinum
___________are Gram-negative cocci that grow in pairs or tetrads and can grow inside of neutrophils or extracellularly. Neisseria
Neisseria gonorrheae causes production of “______________________” of mucus, PMNs, and bacteria, Burning pain on urination for infected men mucopurulent exudate
_____________ is the #1 cause of septic arthritis because undiagnosed infections may disseminate through the bloodstream to the joints due to Opa proteins that allow endothelial cell bindin N. gonorrheae
N. gonorrheae can only infect ____________ epithelia in cervix, not most of the vagina. columnar
____________ can cause conjunctival infections, especially in babies born to asymptomatic mothers N. gonorrheae
Gonococcal conjunctivitis from mucopurulent exudate in eyes, can lead to lifelong blindness. __________ __________ can cause identical symptoms with same etiology. Prevent both with antibiotic eyedrops at birth Chlamydia trachomatis
N. gonorrheae infections are treated with a Macroglide, ____________or, ______________. ceftriaxone; azithromycin
two test to diagnose N. meningiditis and what does a positive sign look like for both Kerning’s or Brudzinski’s sign
Major virulence factors of N. meningiditis LOS (like LPS, induces inflammation via TLR 4) and pili that allow adherence to respiratory epithelia
what bact. is Catalase +, oxidizes both glucose and maltose (producing acid from both) N. meningiditis
___________ Causes pneumonia in elderly, with white sputom Resistant to 1st-generation beta-lactams, susceptible to everything else Moraxella catarrhalis
Haemophilus species bacteria require what two ingredients from blood? hemin, or “X factor” and nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide/NAD or “V factor”
________________ is a Gram-negative bacterium that can grow as a “coccobacillus” or as a longer rod. It colonizes the__________________________, where it’s more likely to be found in its coccbacillus, short form. Haemophilus influenzae ; upper respiratory tract
_____________________ is the #1 cause of epiglottitis Haemophilus influenzae
_____________________ infections are often associated with an orbital cellulitis Haemophilus influenzae
Most common bacterial causes of otitis media: (4) S. pneumoniae H. influenzae M. catarrhalis S. aureus
___________________ is the #1 bacterial cause of “pink eye” conjunctivitis in children <10 years old Haemophilus aegyptius
_______________________is a sexually-transmitted infection that is almost exclusively symptomatic in men. It causes an ulcerated, painful lesion on the genitals that bleeds easily = “chancroid.” Haemophilus ducreyi
4 things in the Bordella Pertussis vaccine Pertactin, Filamentous hemagglutinin (FHA), and Pertussis and Adenylate cyclase toxoids
3 stages of pertussis disease: and the name of the one that can last for weeks after infection. Catarrhal, paroxysmal, and convalescent
treatment for pertussis Macrolide (-mycin) most often successful in reducing length, severity of symptoms; also given as prophylaxis
What symptoms would you expect to see as a result of cavitary lesions in the lungs? Shortness of breath, coughing up blood
The diagnosis of pulmonary tuberculosis requires detection of what? how is this done? acid-fast bacilli in sputum; First, the sputum sample is treated with NaOH. This kills other contaminating bacteria but not MTB.
long term side effects of using Ethambutol for TB gout and optic neuritis,
are all Gram-negative rods that are oxidase-negative, catalase-positive, and facultatively anaerobic. They all have some fermentation pathways, and make ATP via aerobic respiration. Enterobacteriaceae
5 diseases caused by e-coli Enteric, UTI, Sepsis, neonatal meningitis, pneumonia
Gram-negative bacteria that can have cytoskeleton rearrangements inject actin remodeling proteins into cells with a __________________ Type 3 Secretion System
____________ are motile, and do not ferment lactose or produce urease. They can use citrate as a sole carbon source Salmonella
name a disease that causes Exudative pharyngitis, which is exudate that evolves into a thick pseudomembrane localized to the soft palate and pharynx
5 bacteria that cause UTI's and cystitis -S. saprophyticus -Enterococcus faecalis –bed-ridden patient -Proteus mirabilis -C. urealyticum –IC -Pseudomonas aeruginosa –catheterized
Methylene blue showing “clue cells” with adherent bacteria are associtaed with what bacteria? Gardnerella vaginalis
name three acid fast staining bacteria •Nocardia •Rhodococcus •Mycobacterium
name 3 bacteria that have IgA proteases -S. Pneumoniae -H. influenzae type B -Neisseria
what is the function of the Pertussis toxin? Inactivates Giα, the inhibitory protein that controls adenylate cyclase activity leading to an increase in cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) levels
what stage is the most contagious of whooping cough and what stage do people suffer secondary complications? Catarrhal stage; Convalescent stage
Fever, cramping, watery diarrhea, rarely becomes bloody diarrhea. Type III SS –actin cytoskeleton rearrangement protein Enteroinvasive E. coli
young children in developing countries or travelers to these areas. Net effect of this interaction is an increase in cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) levels -High infectious dose Enterotoxigenic E. coli
Infection initiated by bacterial attachment to epithelial cells of the small intestine. Subsequent destruction of the microvillus. Secretion of proteins into the host epithelial cell via T3SS Tir results in polymerization of actin Enteropathogenic E. coli
Enteropathogenic E. coli mainly affects who? Infants everywhere(developed & developing countries)
Formation of thickbiofilm resulting in malabsorption in small intestine; attaching and effacing (A/E) lesions; toxins induce fluid secretion Enteroaggregative E. coli
a Specialized called __________ attaches very strongly to bladder epithelial cells, preventing E. coli from being flushed out by flow of urine p-pilin
what is the virlunce factor for e.coli meningitis? K1 capsular antigen.
name 4 things that cause bloody diarrhea -EIEC -EHEC -C. perfringens -Shigella
name 4 things that cause necrotizing fasciitis Streptococcus pyogenes (Gram-positive coccus) Clostridium perfringens (spore-forming, strictly anaerobic bacillus) Acinetobacter baumannii (Gram-negative coccobacillus) Vibrio vulnificius
treatment for vibrio species Macrolides and tetracyclines
_________ O19 has a sequence of polysaccharides identical to that on human motor neurons, this can lead to Guillain-Barre syndrome as an autoimmune sequela c.jejuni
If C. jejuni is suspected plates inoculated with patient stool samples should be incubated at _____ to select against other fecal bacteria. 42 degrees Celsius
_________________ rashes develop 1 week – 1 month following bite of B. burgdorferi infected tick Erythema migrans
name two virlunce factors of B. burgdorferi and when they are expressed OspA: colonization of tick guts, expressed at 25 C; OspC : spread from tick to mammals, expressed at 37 C
sxm's of stage 1 lyme disease infection: “Bull’s eye” rash (maybe) + flu-like symptoms
sxm's of stage 2 lyme disease infection: Migratory arthalgias, maybe disseminated bull’s eye rashes, maybe meningitis, carditis
sxm's of stage 3 lyme disease infection: Prolonged athralgias, fatigue; antibiotics not useful as symptoms autoimmune at this point
condylomata lata are raised lesion that occur when and by what bacteria second stage syphilis infecton
why are secondary and tertiary syphilis infections able to evade the immune system? because the bacteria is wrapped in fibronectin
The following or symptoms of what? - rash that Includes palms and soles -flu-like sxm’s -generalized lymphadenopathy -~2-3 months after initial infection secondary syphilis
what are gummas and when are they seen? open destructive granulomas which are the result of autoimmune destruction of tissue; tertiary syphilis
what tests is used to find antibodies against cardiolipin? Rapid plasma reagin
Ubiquitous in the soil, fresh and saltwater.____________ can grow at a wide range of temperatures (4 C – 45 C) and are tolerant of osmolarity and pH changes Pseudomonads
______________ is the #1 cause of “hot tub folliculitis,” especially common after depilation Pseudomonads
five bacteria that cause of CAUTIs E. coli Enterococci P. aeruginosa Candida B. cepacia
_____________is the #1 cause of lung infections in CF patients Pseudomonads
how can we differentiate pseudomonads from Enterobacteriaceae? Pseudomonads have No fermentation of any carbohydrate Strictly aerobic, oxidase and catalase +
___________ is the second most common cause of pulmonary infections in cystic fibrosis patients, and also the leading cause of onion rot B. cepacia
how can we Differentiate P. aeruginosa from B. cepacia in CF patient’s lung infection smell
The leading cause of necrotizing wound infections in soldiers returning from Iraq, Afghanistan Acinetobacter baumannii
word to describe cellulitis precedes necrotizing infection with Acinetobacter baumanni Orange peel
is a pseudomonad that can cause meloidosis, a pulmonary disease in healthy people, and is common in tropical regions of southeast Asia Burkholderia pseudomallei
treatment for Burkholderia pseudomallei sulfa drugs or doxycycline
Enterohemorrhagic E. coli has Shiga toxins 1 and 2 (Stx-1 and Stx-2), A/B toxins whose A-subunits disable ribosomes. Stx-1’s B subunit binds to ____________________ intestinal epithelia
The EHEC phage insertion site is in an operon that is turned on by what? Antibiotics
Stx-2’s B-subunit binds to ______ __________ cells glomerular endothelial
___________________ appears 6-10 days after diarrhea as vomiting, fever, oligouria, and hypertension (or hypo) with a classical triad of kidney failure, thrombocytopenia, and microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Schistocytes are helmet shaped RBCs hemolytic uremic syndrome
3 main sxm's of pyelonephritis flank pain, high fever, WBC's in urine
EHEC that leads to HUS is an _________ of the kidneys, not an infection. Blood, but not bacteria, would be seen in the urine of an HUS patient intoxication
_________________is the leading cause of septicemia caused by Gram-negative bacteria but is always the result of _________________ due to trauma and is rare in immune-competent patients E.coli; intestinal leakage
_____________ are motile, and do not ferment lactose or produce urease. They can use citrate as a sole carbon source (i.e. are “Simmons Citrate positive”) and produce H2S. Salmonella
Shigella ________ is the most common the US and Canada flexneri
Shigella species grow in ___________ in the intestines, producing Stx-1 M-cells
___________ species are members of Enterobacteriaceae that are small, nonmotile, and cause actin rearragements Yersinia
treatment for Yersinia macrolides or quinolones
Sometimes called “currant jelly sputum” because it looks like clots of breakfast food. It's bright red gelatinous. what's the bacteria? Klebsiella pneumoniae
kidney-stone producing UTIs, it's Urease +, H2S+, able to ferment lactose aerobically and anaerobically. capable of swarming motility. Name that Bacteria! Proteus mirabilis
___________are small, Gram-negative bacteria that are normal oral flora in humans, and  very inflamed infection if traumatically inoculated under skin (like from a bite) Eikenella corrodens
___________________ are normal oral flora in carnivorous domestic animals, like cats and dogs Pasteurella multocida
“cat scratch fever”: Swollen, warty-like lesion at site of cat scratch or bite (or broken skin infected by cat flea feces) progresses to lymphadenopathy, slight fever. Can be grown of blood agar plates, but most cultures negative, take 1 mth for growth. Bartonella henselae
you need what three things to be diagnostically sufficient to claim Streptobacillus moniliformis infection Rodent bite + rash + arthralgias
After being internalized by macrophages, ____________ escapes from the phagosome, then replication in cytoplasm F. tularensis
Created by: moore420