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PTCB Harris 2017

Practice flashcards for PTCB/NHA. Study stacks made by Taylor Goff

QuestionAnswer
What is the difference between capsules and caplets? Capsules can be pulled apart unlike caplets
Lozenges and Troches Forms of tablets that are not meant to be swallowed, but dissolved in the mouth, which releases medicine slowly
Implants Special capsules implanted under the skin and left in place for up to 5 years
Patches Solid pieces of material that holds a specific amount of medicine to be released in to the skin over time
Syrups Sugar based solutions that have medication dissolved into them
Elixir Agents contain dissolved medication in either an alcohol or water base, or a mixture of both
Sprays Composed of various bases such as alcohol or water in a pump-type inhaler
Inhalants and Aerosols For direct medicinal source of inflammation
APAP ES 650mg i tab PO Q4H PRN pain Acetaminophen Extra Strength 650 milligrams, one tablet by mouth every 4 hours as needed for pain
Hydrocortisone supp. i pr TID x 2 wk Hydrocortisone suppository, 1 rectally 3 times a day for 2 weeks
SMZ/TMP DS i tab PO Q12H Sulfamethoxazole with Trimethoprim Double Strength, one tablet by mouth every 12 hours
IBU 600mg i tab PO TID PC Ibuprofen 600 milligrams, 1 tablet by mouth 3 times a day after meals
PB 1/4 gr i tab PO TID Phenobarbital 1/4 gram, 1 tablet by mouth 3 times a day
APAP c Codeine elix 10 cc PO Q4-6H Acetaminophen with codeine elixir, 10 cubic centimeters by mouth every 4-6 hours
Cortisporin opth ung apply 1/2 in ribbon OD Q3H Cortisporin ophthalmic ointment, apply 1/2 inch ribbon in right eye every 3 hours
Triamcinolone 0.1% cr apply aa BID Triamcinolone 0.1% cream, apply of each twice a day
ii tab PO stat, then i tab PO Q4H until gone 2 tablets by mouth immediately, then 1 tablet by mouth every 4 hours until gone
i tab sl q5min PRN chest pain, NTE 3 doses/15mins 1 tablet sublingually every 5 minutes as needed for chest pain, not to exceed 3 doses in 15 mins
ii puffs Q4H PRN SoB/Wheezing 2 puffs every 4 hours as needed for shortness of breath or wheezing
i cap BID c food 1 capsule by mouth twice daily with food
i tab PO QID i tablet by mouth four times a day
i-ii gtt os Q2H x 1-2 days, then Q4-6H thereafter 1-2 drops in left eye every 2 hours for 1-2 days, then every 4-6 hours thereafter
0.3mg IM x 1 1 0.3 milligrams intramuscular injection
Apply 1/2 inch strip od TID-QID Apply 1/2 inch strip in right eye 3-4 times daily
17 units SQ TID ac 17 units subcutaneously 3 times daily before meals
ECASA 81mg i tab po QAM Enteric-coated aspirin 81 milligrams, 1 tablet by mouth every morning
TCN 500mg i cap PO Q6H Tetracycline 500 milligrams, 1 capsule by mouth every 6 hours
i-ii tab PO Q6H PRN pain 1-2 tablets by mouth every 4-6 hours as needed for pain
Absorption The taking in or incorporation of a chemical agent across natural barriers in the body system
Bioavailability The amount of drug that reaches its intended destination by being absorbed into the blood stream
Bioequivalence The difference between a drug that is manufactured in a different dosage form or by a different company
Distribution The ability of a drug to pass into the blood stream
Excretion Process of elimination of medicinal agents
Half-Life The amount of time it takes a chemical to decrease by one half
Inhale To breathe in
Instill To place into
Metabolism Process that breaks down drugs for excretion
OTC Over the counter medications
Parenteral Medication given by injection
Pharmacokinetics The life of the drugs
CD Controlled-Diffusion
CR Controlled-Release
CRT Controlled-Release tablet
LA Long-Acting
SA Sustained-Action
SR Sustained/Slow Release
TD Time-Delay
TR Time-Release
XL Extra-Long
XR Extended-Release
Examples of solid medications Tablets, troches, capsules, lozenges, troches, implants, patches
Examples of liquid medications Syrups, sprays, enemas, inhalants, emulsions, solutions
Examples of semi-solid medications Creams, lotions, ointments, powders, gelatins, suppositories
Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act 1970- The DEA was created, which also created the drug schedules
Pure Food and Drug Act 1906- Prohibited interstate transportation or sale of adulterated or misbranded food and drugs
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) 1938- The FDA was created; It also defined adulteration and misbranding, and all new drug applications had to be filed through the FDA
Kefauver-Harris Amendment 1962- Requires all medications in the US to be pure, safe, and effective
Durham-Humphrey Act 1951- Required all products to have adequate directions for use, as well as separated drugs into prescription and over the counter
Poison Prevention Packaging Act 1970- Requires most over the counter and legend drugs to be in child resistant containers
Occupational Safety & Health Act (OSHA) 1970- Ensures a safe and healthful workplace
Drug Listing Act 1972- Each drug was assigned a NDC (national drug code)
Orphan Drug Act 1983- Medications for treatment of diseases or conditions of which are fewer than 200,000
Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act 1984- Encouraged the creation of both generic and new medications by streamlining the process for approval and by extending the patent
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act Produced federal guidelines regarding the disposal of hazardous waste
HIPPA 1996- Improves the portability and continuity of health coverage in the group and individual markets as well as combating waste, fraud, and abuse in health care insurance
Prescription Marketing Act 1987- Prohibits the sale or distribution or sale of samples to anyone other than those licensed to prescribe them
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA '87) 1987- Revisions to medicare/Medicaid conditions regarding long term care facilities, and that a patient regimen should not contain unnecessary medications
Anabolic Steroid Act 1990- resulted in harsher penalties for abuse of anabolic steroids by athletes
OBRA '90 1990- Requires manufacturers to provide the lowest prices to any customer or Medicaid patients
FDA Safe Medical Devices 1990- Requires all medical devices to be tracked and records to be maintained for durable medical equipment
Americans with Disabilities Act 1990- Prevents discrimination against potential employees who may possess a disability
Anabolic Steroid Control Act 2004- Anabolic Steroids as a schedule 3 by eliminating the requirement to prove muscle growth
Any Willing Provider Law Allows any pharmacy to participate in a prescription drug benefit plan as long as they comply to terms and conditions
Freedom of Choice Law Allows any member of a drug plan to select any pharmacy
Freedom of Choice with Regard to Long-Term Care Long term residents may choose an outside pharmacy for their medications if the pharmaceutical service is not provided
Prescription Drug Equity Law Prohibits a drug plan from requiring mail order prescription coverage without also providing non-mail order coverage
Medicare Drug Improvement and Modernization Act 2003- Provides for a voluntary prescription drug benefit to medicare beneficiaries and lowers reimbursement rates for medical equipment
Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act 2005- Sale and storage restrictions on drugs with ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine. Stores are also required to keep a log book containing the name, quantity sold, address, and date and time of the person buying the medicine
ASAP As soon as possible
S Without
BID Twice a day
ATC Around the clock
ad lib As often as needed/freely
hs At bedtime (hour of sleep)
Q4H Every 4 hours
pc After meals (post consumption)
IV Intravenously
ou both eyes
IM Intramuscularly
au both ears
as left ear
pr per rectum (rectally)
SL sublingually
IEN in each nostril
ad right ear
os left eye
PO by mouth
od right eye
vag vaginally
ud As Directed (under direction)
wk week
stat Immediately (short turnaround time)
ac before meals
TID three times a day
PM In the afternoon/evening
noc night
P after
-tinib (crizotinib) Antineoplastic (Kinase Inhibitor)
-trel (desogestrel, norgestrel) Female Hormone (progestin)
tretin-, -tretin-, -tretin (acetretin, alitretinoin, tretinoin) Retinoid; Dermatologic agent, form of vitamin A
-triptan (almotriptan, sumatriptan) Antimigraine, Selective 5-HT Receptor Agonist
-tyline (amitriptyline, nortriptyline) Tricyclic Antidepressants
-vudine (lamivudine, stavudine) Antiviral; Nucleoside analogues
-zepam (clonazepam, diazepam) Benzodiazepine
-zolam (alprazolam, triazolam) Benzodiazepine
-zosin (alfuzosin, prazosin) Alpha Blocker
-bicin (doxorubicin, epirubicin) Antineoplastic; Cytotoxic Agent
-bital (phenobarbital, secobarbital) Barbiturate (sedative)
-caine (lidocaine, prilocaine) Local Anesthetic
cef-; ceph- (cefaclor, cephalexin) Cephalosporin Antibiotic
-cillin (amoxicillin, ampicillin) Penicillin Antibiotic
-cort- (clocortolone, hydrocortisone) Corticosteroid
-cycline (doxycycline, minocycline) Tetracycline Antibiotic
-dazole (albendazole, metronidazole) Antithelmintic Antibiotic; Antibacterial
-dipine (amlodipine, nifedipine) Calcium Channel Blocker
-dronate (alendronate, risedronate) Bisphosphonate; Bone Resorption Inhibitor
-eprazole (esomeprazole, omeprazole) Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI)
-fenac (diclofenac, bromfenac) NSAID
-floxacin (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) Quinolone Antibiotic
-gliptin (sitagliptin, saxagliptin) Antidiabetic; Inhibitor of the DPP-4 Enzyme
-glitazone (pioglitazone, rosiglitazone) Antidiabetic; thiazolidinedione
-iramine (brompheniramine, pheniramine) Antihistamine
-lamide (dorzolamide, methazolamide) Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor
-mab (adalimumab, daclizumab) Monoclonal Antibody
-mustine (carmustine, lomustine) Alkylating Agent (antineoplastic)
-mycin (azithromycin, clarithromycin, clindamycin) Antibiotic; Antibacterial
-nacin (darifenacin, solifenacin) Muscarnic Antagonist (anticholinergic)
-nazole (fluconazole, miconazole) Antifungal
-olol (atenolol, metoprolol) Beta Blocker
-olone (flucoinolone, prednisolone) Corticosteroid
-olone (nandrolone, oxandrolone) Anabolic Steroid
-onide (budesonide, fluocinonide) Corticosteroid
-afil (sildenafil, tadalafil) Phosphodiesterase (PDE) Inhibitor
-asone (fluticasone, mometasone) Corticosteroid
-terol (albuterol, levalbuterol) Beta agonist; Bronchodilator
-thiazide (hydrochlorothiazide, methylchothiazide) Thiazide diuretic
-oprazole (dexlansoprazole, pantoprazole) Proton Pump Inhibitor
-parin-, -parin (heparin, fondaparinux Antithrombotic; Anticoagulant
-phylline (aminophylline, theophylline) Xanthine Derivative
-pramine (desipramine, clomipramine) Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCA)
-pred-; pred- (prednisolone, loteprednol) corticosteroid
-pril ( Benazepril, enlapril, lisinopril) ACE Inhibitor
-profen (ibuprofen, ketoprofen) NSAID
-sartan (olmesartan, losartan) ARB
-semide (furosemide, torsemide) Loop Diuretic
-setron (odansetron, dolasetron) Antiemetic, antinauseant
-statin (atorvastatin, rosuvastatin) HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors
sulfa- (sulfacetamide, sulfamethoxazole) Antibiotic, anti-infective
-tadine (cyproheptadine, loratadine,) Antihistamine
-tadine (amantadine, rimantadine) Antiviral; anti-influenza A
DEA Form 41 To return drugs to the DEA to be destroyed
DEA form 82 Inspection
DEA Form 104 Voluntary surrender to DEA; used for closed door pharmacies
DEA Form 106 Loss/theft report of C-II drugs
DEA Form 222 Order and transfer C-II drugs
DEA Form 222 A The form used to obtain DEA Form 222
DEA Form 225 For manufacturers to order C-II drugs
DEA Form 226 For pharmacies to dispense controlled medications
DEA Form 363 Registration for Narcotic TX Program
Temperature of a freezer should be -20 C to 0 C (-4 F to 32 F)
Temperature of a cold area should be 8 C to 15 C (46 F to 59 F)
Temperature of a fridge should be 2 C to 8 C (36 F to 46 F)
Temperature of a controlled room should be 20 C to 25 C (59 F to 86 F)
Temperature of heated area should be Above 40 C (86 F)
Isotonic Solution Equation 0.9 * V/100
Ibuprofen (Motrin) causes what kind of damage if taken too often or without food? Gastrointestinal bleeding
Laws concerning pseudoephedrine? 4.6g/Day 7.6g/mail 9g/month
Side effects concerning Warfarin (Coumadin) include? Internal bleeding
Schedule I No accepted medical use and possess extremely high potential for abuse
Schedule II Has medical uses but high abuse potential with severe psychological or physical dependency
Schedule III Accepted medical use and abuse potential is less than with Schedule I and II drugs
Schedule IV Abuse potential is less than with Schedule III, but administration may lead to physical or psychological dependence
Schedule V Abuse potential is less than with Schedule IV drugs, includes exempt narcotics
Ordering Schedule II Ordered by completing DEA form 222. Valid for 60 days. Maximum of 10 items per form. Receipts, invoice, shipping, package numbers must be kept for 2 years
Ordering Schedule III and IV Ordered by any method (written, fax or verbal). Packaging slips/invoice must be signed, dated, and stamped with a red "C" and kept for 2 years
Initial inventory Complete and accurate inventory of all controlled substances before the opening of the first day of business
Biennial Inventory Taken every 2 years. Exact count of Schedule II and estimated count for Schedule III to V
Perpetual Inventory Real time inventory. Shows controlled substances received by the facility, supplied to other locations, returned to the pharmacy, and dispensed to patients
Destruction of controlled substances DEA form 41. Retail has one per year. Hospitals have "Blanket Authorization"
Filling Schedule II Prescriptions Handwritten or computer generated. SIGNED IN INK! No allowable refills. Partial filling allowed if available within 72 hours
Schedule II in Long-Term Care Facilities Faxed Schedule II RX allowed. Partial filling allowed for terminal patients. Filed for 60 days from date of issue. "long-term care patient" or "terminally ill" noted on Rx
Antagonism When 2 drugs work against each other
Synergism When the effect of two drugs together is greater than the sum of their individual effects
Herbal Medication for treating anxiety? Kava
Class I Recall Most serious type of recall
Class II Recall Less serious types of recall, such as temporary adverse health consequences
Class III Recall Situations in which adverse health consequences are unlikely
Patient Package Insert (PPI) A document provided along with a prescription medication to provide additional information about that drug
USP <797> Hand Hygiene 1) Remove debris under fingernail with a nail cleaner and warm water 2) Wash hands and forearms to the elbow for at least 30 seconds 3) Do not use microbial scrub brushes on skin because they can damage skin and increase skin shedding
Minimum and maximum weight can than be weighed on a Class A balance? 120mg to 120g
PPO Plans Provides substantial discounts for doctors and hospitals; members are reimbursed at a reduced rate; can see any doctor
Parts of NDC Segment 1- first 4- digits identifies the manufacturer Segment 2- next 3 to 4 digits is the product code; Identifies the formulation, strength, and dosage Segment 3- Last 1 or 2 digits that identifies the package forms and sizes
BIN Number A digit number that health plans can use to process electronic pharmacy claims if they do not use pharmacy benefit cards with magnetic stripe
DTD Give of such doses
DW Distilled Water
Pulv. Powder
sig write on label
When using a laminar flow hood, how far into the hood should you work? 6 inches
How often should a package insert be included with medications? Every time
What are some of the main products exempt from the PPPA? Powdered or unflavored aspirin, effervescent acetaminophen or aspirin, sublingual nitroglycerin, oral contraceptives, hormone replacement drugs, and powdered iron.
Doctor Acronym: AuD Doctor of Audiology
Doctor Acronym: DC Doctor of chiropractic medicine
Doctor Acronym: DDS Doctor of Dental Surgery/science
Doctor Acronym: DMD Doctor of dental medicine
Doctor Acronym: DO Doctor of Optometry
Doctor Acronym: DPM Doctor of Podiatric Medicine
Doctor Acronym: DPT Doctor of physical therapy
Doctor Acronym: DVM Doctor of veterinary medicine
Doctor Acronym: ENT Ear, nose and throat specialist
Doctor Acronym: GP General Practitioner
Doctor Acronym: GYN Gynecologist
Doctor Acronym: MD Doctor of medicine
For what condition is Crestor (rosuvastatin) indicated? High Cholesterol
For what condition is Zetia (ezetimibe) indicated? High Cholesterol
For what condition is Diovan HCT (valsartan + hydrochlorothiazide) indicated? Cardiovascular conditions
For what condition is Levaquin (levofloxacin) indicated? Bacterial infections
For what condition is Cymbalta (duloxetine) indicated? Depression
For what condition is Klor-Con (potassium chloride) indicated? Low potassium
For what condition is Premarin (conjugated estrogens) indicated? Hormone Replacement
For what condition is Actos (pioglitazone) indicated? Diabetes Mellitus
For what condition is Strattera (atomoxetine) indicated? attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
For what condition is Lidoderm (lidocaine) indicated? Local anesthetic
For what condition is Patanol (olopatadine) indicated? Eye allergies
For what condition is Aviane (ethinyl estradiol + levonorgestrel) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Clarinex (desloratadine) indicated? Respiratory allergies
For what condition is Proventil HFA (albuterol) indicated? Asthma
For what condition is Astelin (azelastine) indicated? Respiratory Allergies
For what condition is Armour Thyroid (thyroid) indicated? Hypothyroidism
For what condition is Tussionex (hydrocodone + chlorpheniramine) indicated? Antitussive (cough)
For what condition is Zyrtec D (cetirizine + pseudophedrine) indicated? Respiratory allergies and nasal congestion
For what condition is Boniva (ibandronate) indicated? Osteoporosis
For what condition is Low-orgestrel (norgestrel + ethinyl estradiol) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Ortho Evra (norelgestromin + Ethinyl estriadol) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Levitra (vardenafil) indicated? Erectile dysfunction
For what condition is Rhinocort Aqua (budesonide) indicated? Nasal inflammation and congestion
For what condition is Prempro (conjugated estrogens + medroxyprogesterone) indicated? Hormone Replacement
For what condition is Kariva (desogestrel + Ethinyl estradiol) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Januvia (sitagliptin) indicated? Diabetes mellitus
For what condition is Avodart (dutasteride) indicated? Enlarged Prostate
For what condition is Namenda (memantine) indicated? Alzheimer's disease
For what condition is Depakote (divalproex sodium) indicated? Epilepsy
For what condition is Budeprion SR (bupropion) Indicated? Depression
For what condition is Endocet (oxycodone + acetaminophen) indicated? Pain
For what condition is Vigamox (moxifloxacin) indicated? Bacterial infections
For what condition is Humalog D (insulin lispro) indicated? Diabetes mellitus
For what condition is Levothroid (levothyroxine) indicated? Hypothyroidism
For what condition is Vivelle DOT (estradiol) indicated? Hormone replacement
For what condition is Apri (desogestrel + ethinyl estradiol) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Tri-Sprintec (norgestimate + ethinyl estradiol) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Allegra D (fexofenadine + pseudophedrine) indicated? Respiratory allergies and nasal congestion
For what condition is Yasmin 28 (drospirenone + ethinyl estradiol) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Keppra (levetiracetam) indicated? Epilepsy
For what condition is Zyprexa (olanzapine) indicated? Psychotic disorders
For what condition is Coumadin (warfarin) indicated? Anticoagulant
For what condition is Skelaxin (metaxsalone) indicated? Skeletal muscle relaxer
For what condition is Requip (ropinirole) indicated? Parkinson's Disease
For what condition is Avalide (irbesartan + hydrochlorothiazide) indicated? Cardiovascular conditions
For what condition is Abilify (aripiprazole) indicated? Psychotic disorders
For what condition is Avelox (moxifloxacin) indicated? Bacterial infections
Created by: gharris42345