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PTCB Harris 2022

Practice Questions Pharmacy Tech

What is the difference between capsules and caplets? Capsules can be pulled apart unlike caplets
Forms of tablets that are not meant to be swallowed, but dissolved in the mouth, which releases medicine slowly Lozenges and Troches
A very small rod inserted under the skin. of May be used in woman's upper arm to provide birth control. It's invisible and prevents pregnancy for up to 4 years. Implant
Solid pieces of material that holds a specific amount of medicine to be released in to the skin over time Patches
Sugar based solutions that have medication dissolved into them Syrup
Agents contain dissolved medication in either an alcohol or water base, or a mixture of both Elixir
What are sprays composed of Composed of various bases such as alcohol or water in a pump-type inhaler
Inhalants and Aerosols For direct medicinal source of inflammation
APAP ES 650mg i tab PO Q4H PRN pain Acetaminophen Extra Strength 650 milligrams, Take one tablet by mouth every 4 hours as needed for pain
Hydrocortisone supp. i pr TID x 2 wk Hydrocortisone suppository, Insert 1suppository rectally 3 times a day for 2 weeks
SMZ/TMP DS i tab PO Q12H Sulfamethoxazole with Trimethoprim Double Strength, Take one tablet by mouth every 12 hours
IBU 600mg i tab PO TID PC Ibuprofen 600 milligrams, Take 1 tablet by mouth 3 times a day after meals
PB 1/4 gr i tab PO TID Phenobarbital 1/4 gram, Take 1 tablet by mouth 3 times a day
APAP c Codeine elix 10 cc PO Q4-6H for 12 days, what is the sig and quantity? Acetaminophen with codeine elixir, Take 10 cubic centiliters (CC)(2 tsp) by mouth every 4-6 hours for 12 days. 720 cc or ml
Cortisporin opth ung apply 1/2 in ribbon OD Q3H Cortisporin ophthalmic ointment, Apply a 1/2 inch ribbon in right eye every 3 hours
Triamcinolone 0.1% cr apply aa BID Triamcinolone 0.1% cream, apply as directed twice a day
ii tab PO stat, then i tab PO Q4H until gone Take 2 tablets by mouth immediately, then 1 tablet by mouth every 4 hours until gone
i tab sl q5min PRN chest pain, NTE 3 doses/15mins Place 1 tablet sublingually every 5 minutes as needed for chest pain, not to exceed 3 doses in 15 mins
ii puffs Q4H PRN sob/wheezing Inhale 2 puffs every 4 hours as needed for shortness of breath or wheezing
i cap BID c food Take 1 capsule by mouth twice daily with food
i tab PO QID Take i tablet by mouth four times a day
i-ii gtt os Q2H x 1-2 days, then Q4-6H thereafter Place 1-2 drops in left eye every 2 hours for 1-2 days, then every 4-6 hours thereafter
0.3mg IM x 1 Inject 0.3 milligrams intramuscularly x 1 injection
Apply 1/2 inch strip od TID-QID Apply 1/2 inch strip in right eye 3-4 times daily
17 units SQ TID ac Inject 17 units subcutaneously 3 times daily before meals
ECASA 81mg i tab po QAM Enteric-coated aspirin 81 milligrams, Take 1 tablet by mouth every morning
TCN 500mg i cap PO Q6H Tetracycline 500 milligrams, Take 1 capsule by mouth every 6 hours
i-ii tab PO Q6H PRN pain Take 1-2 tablets by mouth every 6 hours as needed for pain
Absorption The taking in or incorporation of a chemical agent across natural barriers in the body system
Bioavailability The amount of drug that reaches its intended destination by being absorbed into the blood stream
Bioequivalence The difference between a drug that is manufactured in a different dosage form or by a different company
Distribution The ability of a drug to pass into the blood stream
Excretion Process of elimination of medicinal agents
Half-Life The amount of time it takes a chemical to decrease by one half
Inhale To breathe in
Instill To place into
Metabolism Process that breaks down drugs for excretion
OTC Over the counter medications
Parenteral Medication given by injection
Pharmacokinetics Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism and Excretion
CD Controlled-Diffusion
CR Controlled-Release
CRT Controlled-Release tablet
LA Long-Acting
SA Sustained-Action
SR Sustained/Slow Release
TD Time-Delay
TR Time-Release
XL Extra-Long
XR Extended-Release
Examples of solid medications Tablets, troches, capsules, lozenges, troches, implants, patches
Examples of liquid medications are? Syrups, sprays, enemas, inhalants, emulsions, solutions
Examples of semi-solid medications Creams, lotions, ointments, powders, gelatins, suppositories
Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act 1970- The DEA was created, which also created the drug schedules I-V.
When was the Pure Food and Drug Act enacted and what is it? 1906- Prohibited interstate transportation or sale of adulterated or misbranded food and drugs
Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FDCA) 1938- The FDA was created; It also defined adulteration and misbranding, and all new drug applications had to be filed through the FDA
Kefauver-Harris Amendment 1962- Requires all medications in the US to be pure, safe, and effective. Required that drug related adverse events be reported to the FDA.
Durham-Humphrey Act 1951- Required all products to have adequate directions for use, as well as separated drugs into prescription and over the counter. Required the labeling "Caution: Federal Law Prohibits Dispensing without a Prescription."
Poison Prevention Packaging Act 1970- Requires all over the counter (OTC) and legend drugs to be in child proof resistant containers
Occupational Safety & Health Act (OSHA) 1970- Ensures a safe and healthful workplace
Drug Listing Act 1972- Each drug was assigned a NDC (national drug code)
Orphan Drug Act 1983- Medications for treatment of diseases or conditions of which are fewer than 200,000
Drug Price Competition and Patent Term Restoration Act 1984- Encouraged the creation of both generic and new medications by streamlining the process for approval and by extending the patent
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act Produced federal guidelines regarding the disposal of hazardous waste
HIPPA 1996-Health Insurance Portability and Accountability (HIPAA) AKA-Protected Health Information (PHI) Improves the portability and continuity of health coverage in the group and individual markets as well as combating waste, fraud, and abuse in health
Prescription Marketing Act 1987- Prohibits the sale or distribution or sale of samples to anyone other than those licensed to prescribe them
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA '87) 1987- Revisions to Medicare/Medicaid conditions regarding long term care facilities, and that a patient regimen should not contain unnecessary medications
Anabolic Steroid Act 1990- resulted in harsher penalties for abuse of anabolic steroids by athletes
OBRA '90 1990- Requires manufacturers to provide the lowest prices to any customer or Medicaid patients. Also required a pharmacists that want to be paid by Medicaid to councel all new prescritions.
FDA Safe Medical Devices 1990- Requires all medical devices to be tracked and records to be maintained for durable medical equipment
When was the Americans with Disabilities Act enacted and what is it? 1990- Prevents discrimination against potential employees who may possess a disability
Anabolic Steroid Control Act 2004- Anabolic Steroids as a schedule 3 by eliminating the requirement to prove muscle growth
Any Willing Provider Law Allows any pharmacy to participate in a prescription drug benefit plan as long as they comply to terms and conditions
Freedom of Choice Law Allows any member of a drug plan to select any pharmacy
Freedom of Choice with Regard to Long-Term Care Long term residents may choose an outside pharmacy for their medications if the pharmaceutical service is not provided
Prescription Drug Equity Law Prohibits a drug plan from requiring mail order prescription coverage without also providing non-mail order coverage
Medicare Drug Improvement and Modernization Act 2003- Provides for a voluntary prescription drug benefit (Medicare Part D) to Medicare beneficiaries and lowers reimbursement rates. The program is administered under the Medicare Advantage program.
Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act 2005- Sale and storage restrictions on drugs with ephedrine, pseudoephedrine, and phenylpropanolamine. Stores are required to keep a log book containing the name, quantity sold, address, date and time of persons buying the medicine. Patients can only pur
ASAP As soon as possible
S Without
BID Twice a day
ATC Around the clock
ad lib As often as needed/freely
hs At bedtime (hour of sleep)
Q4H Every 4 hours
pc After meals (post consumption)
IV Intravenously
ou both eyes
IM Intramuscularly
au both ears
as left ear
pr per rectum (rectally)
SL sublingually
IEN in each nostril
ad right ear
os left eye
PO by mouth
od right eye
vag vaginally
ud As Directed (under direction)
wk week
stat Immediately (short turnaround time)
ac before meals
TID three times a day
PM In the afternoon/evening
noc night
P after
-tinib (crizotinib) Antineoplastic (Kinase Inhibitor)
-trel (desogestrel, norgestrel) Female Hormone (progestin)
tretin-, -tretin-, -tretin (acetretin, alitretinoin, tretinoin) Retinoid; Dermatologic agent, form of vitamin A
-triptan (almotriptan, sumatriptan) Antimigraine, Selective 5-HT Receptor Agonist
-tyline (amitriptyline, nortriptyline) Tricyclic Antidepressants
-vudine (lamivudine, stavudine) Antiviral; Nucleoside analogues
-zepam (clonazepam, diazepam) Benzodiazepine
-zolam (alprazolam, triazolam) Benzodiazepine
-zosin (alfuzosin, prazosin) Alpha Blocker
-bicin (doxorubicin, epirubicin) Antineoplastic; Cytotoxic Agent
-bital (phenobarbital, secobarbital) Barbiturate (sedative)
-caine (lidocaine, prilocaine) Local Anesthetic
cef-; ceph- (cefaclor, cephalexin) Cephalosporin Antibiotic
-cillin (amoxicillin, ampicillin) Penicillin Antibiotic
-cort- (clocortolone, hydrocortisone) Corticosteroid
-cycline (doxycycline, minocycline) Tetracycline Antibiotic
-dazole (albendazole, metronidazole) Antithelmintic Antibiotic; Antibacterial
-dipine (amlodipine, nifedipine) Calcium Channel Blocker
-dronate (alendronate, risedronate) Bisphosphonate; Bone Resorption Inhibitor
-eprazole (esomeprazole, omeprazole) Proton Pump Inhibitor (PPI)
-fenac (diclofenac, bromfenac) NSAID
-floxacin (ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin) Quinolone Antibiotic
-gliptin (sitagliptin, saxagliptin) Antidiabetic; Inhibitor of the DPP-4 Enzyme
-glitazone (pioglitazone, rosiglitazone) Antidiabetic; thiazolidinedione
-iramine (brompheniramine, pheniramine) Antihistamine
-lamide (dorzolamide, methazolamide) Carbonic Anhydrase Inhibitor
-mab (adalimumab, daclizumab) Monoclonal Antibody
-mustine (carmustine, lomustine) Alkylating Agent (antineoplastic)
-mycin (azithromycin, clarithromycin, clindamycin) Antibiotic; Antibacterial
-nacin (darifenacin, solifenacin) Muscarnic Antagonist (anticholinergic)
-nazole (fluconazole, miconazole) Antifungal
-olol (atenolol, metoprolol) Beta Blocker
-olone (flucoinolone, prednisolone) Corticosteroid
-olone (nandrolone, oxandrolone) Anabolic Steroid
-onide (budesonide, fluocinonide) Corticosteroid
-afil (sildenafil, tadalafil) Phosphodiesterase (PDE) Inhibitor
-asone (fluticasone, mometasone) Corticosteroid
-terol (albuterol, levalbuterol) Beta agonist; Bronchodilator
-thiazide (hydrochlorothiazide, methylchothiazide) Thiazide diuretic
-oprazole (dexlansoprazole, pantoprazole) Proton Pump Inhibitor
-parin-, -parin (heparin, fondaparinux Antithrombotic; Anticoagulant
-phylline (aminophylline, theophylline) Xanthine Derivative
-pramine (desipramine, clomipramine) Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCA)
-pred-; pred- (prednisolone, loteprednol) corticosteroid
-pril ( Benazepril, enlapril, lisinopril) ACE Inhibitor
-profen (ibuprofen, ketoprofen) NSAID
-sartan (olmesartan, losartan) Angiotensin Reuptake Blocker (ARB)
-semide (furosemide, torsemide) Loop Diuretic
-setron (odansetron, dolasetron) Antiemetic, antinauseant
-statin (atorvastatin, rosuvastatin) HMG-CoA Reductase Inhibitors
sulfa- (sulfacetamide, sulfamethoxazole) Antibiotic, anti-infective
-tadine (cyproheptadine, loratadine,) Antihistamine
-tadine (amantadine, rimantadine) Antiviral; anti-influenza A
DEA Form 41 return drugs to the DEA to be destroyed
DEA Form 104 Voluntary surrender to DEA; used for closed door pharmacies
DEA Form 106 Loss/theft report of C-II drugs
DEA Form 222 Order and transfer C-II drugs Contains 10 lines
DEA Form 222 A The form used to obtain DEA Form 222
DEA Form 225 For manufacturers to order C-II drugs
DEA Form 226 For pharmacies to dispense controlled medications
DEA Form 363 Registration for Narcotic TX Program
Temperature of a freezer should be -20 C to 0 C (-4 F to 32 F)
Temperature of a cold area should be 8 C to 15 C (46 F to 59 F)
The temperature of a fridge should be? 2 C to 8 C (36 F to 46 F)
Temperature of a controlled room should be 20 C to 25 C (59 F to 86 F)
Temperature of heated area should be Above 40 C (86 F)
Isotonic Solution Equation 0.9 * V/100
Ibuprofen (Motrin) causes what kind of damage if taken too often or without food? Gastrointestinal bleeding
Laws concerning pseudoephedrine (PSE)? 3.6g/Day 7.5g/mail or 9 g in 30 days 9g/month
Side effects concerning Warfarin (Coumadin) include? Internal bleeding
Schedule I No accepted medical use and possess extremely high potential for abuse
Schedule II Has medical uses but high abuse potential with severe psychological or physical dependency
Schedule III Accepted medical use and abuse potential is less than with Schedule I and II drugs
Schedule IV Abuse potential is less than with Schedule III, but administration may lead to physical or psychological dependence
Schedule V Abuse potential is less than with Schedule IV drugs, includes exempt narcotics
Ordering Schedule II Ordered by completing DEA form 222. Valid for 60 days. Maximum of 10 item lines per form. Receipts, invoice, shipping, package numbers must be kept for 2 years
Ordering Schedule III and IV Ordered by any method (written, fax or verbal). Packaging slips/invoice must be signed, dated, and stamped with a red "C" and kept for 2 years
Initial inventory Complete and accurate inventory of all controlled substances before the opening of the first day of business
Biennial Inventory Taken every 2 years. Exact count of Schedule II and estimated count for Schedule III to V
Perpetual Inventory Real time inventory. Shows controlled substances received by the facility, supplied to other locations, returned to the pharmacy, and dispensed to patients
Destruction of controlled substances DEA form 41. Retail has one per year. Have to request 2 weeks before destruction. Hospitals have "Blanket Authorization"
Filling Schedule II Prescriptions Handwritten or computer generated. SIGNED IN INK! No allowable refills. Partial filling allowed if available within 72 hours
Schedule II in Long-Term Care Facilities Faxed Schedule II RX allowed. Partial filling allowed for terminal patients. Filed for 60 days from date of issue. "long-term care patient" or "terminally ill" noted on Rx
Antagonism When 2 drugs work against each other
Synergism When the effect of two drugs together is greater than the sum of their individual effects
Class I Recall Most serious type of recall
Class II Recall Less serious types of recall, such as temporary adverse health consequences
Class III Recall Situations in which adverse health consequences are unlikely
Patient Package Insert (PPI) A document provided along with a prescription medication to provide additional information about that drug. AKA monograph or official label.
United States Pharmacopeia USP <797> Has 3 major sections. 1) Responsibilities of personnel: Risk levels of classification of compounded and sterile compounds. 2) Verification: Accuracy and sterility of compounded sterile preparations. 3) Training: Individual training and continued personnel
Minimum weight that can be weighed on a Class A balance, AKA Class III balance? 120mg
PPO Plans Provides substantial discounts for doctors and hospitals; members are reimbursed at a reduced rate; can see any doctor
Parts of NDC Segment 1- first 4- digits identifies the manufacturer Segment 2- next 3 to 4 digits is the product code; Identifies the formulation, strength, and dosage Segment 3- Last 1 or 2 digits that identifies the package forms and sizes
BIN Number A digit number that health plans can use to process electronic pharmacy claims if they do not use pharmacy benefit cards with magnetic stripe
DTD Give of such doses
DW Distilled Water
Pulv. Powder
sig write on label
When using a laminar flow hood, how far into the hood should you work? 6 inches
How often should a package insert be included with medications? Every time
What are some of the main products exempt from the PPPA? Powdered or unflavored aspirin, effervescent acetaminophen or aspirin, sublingual nitroglycerin, oral contraceptives, hormone replacement drugs, and powdered iron.
Doctor Acronym: AuD Doctor of Audiology
Doctor Acronym: DC Doctor of chiropractic medicine
Doctor Acronym: DDS Doctor of Dental Surgery/science
Doctor Acronym: DMD Doctor of dental medicine
Doctor Acronym: DO Doctor of Optometry
Doctor Acronym: DPM Doctor of Podiatric Medicine
Doctor Acronym: DPT Doctor of physical therapy
Doctor Acronym: DVM Doctor of veterinary medicine
Doctor Acronym: ENT Ear, nose and throat specialist
Doctor Acronym: GP General Practitioner
Doctor Acronym: GYN Gynecologist
Doctor Acronym: MD Doctor of medicine
For what condition is Crestor (rosuvastatin) indicated? High Cholesterol
For what condition is Zetia (ezetimibe) indicated? High Cholesterol
For what condition is Diovan HCT (valsartan + hydrochlorothiazide) indicated? Cardiovascular conditions
For what condition is Levaquin (levofloxacin) indicated? Bacterial infections
For what condition is Cymbalta (duloxetine) indicated? Depression
For what condition is Klor-Con (potassium chloride) indicated? Low potassium
For what condition is Premarin (conjugated estrogens) indicated? Hormone Replacement
For what condition is Actos (pioglitazone) indicated? Diabetes Mellitus
For what condition is Strattera (atomoxetine) indicated? attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder
For what condition is Lidoderm (lidocaine) indicated? Local anesthetic
For what condition is Patanol (olpatadine) indicated? Eye allergies
For what condition is Aviane (ethinyl estradiol + levonorgestrel) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Clarinex (desloratadine) indicated? Respiratory allergies
For what condition is Proventil HFA (albuterol) indicated? Asthma
For what condition is Astelin (azelastine) indicated? Respiratory Allergies
For what condition is Armour Thyroid (thyroid) indicated? Hypothyroidism
For what condition is Tussionex (hydrocodone + chlorpheniramine) indicated? Antitussive (cough)
For what condition is Zyrtec D (cetirizine + pseudophedrine) indicated? Respiratory allergies and nasal congestion
For what condition is Boniva (ibandronate) indicated? Osteoporosis
For what condition is Low-orgestrel (norgestrel + ethinyl estradiol) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Ortho Evra (norelgestromin + Ethinyl estriadol) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Levitra (vardenafil) indicated? Erectile dysfunction
For what condition is Rhinocort Aqua (budesonide) indicated? Nasal inflammation and congestion
For what condition is Prempro (conjugated estrogens + medroxyprogesterone) indicated? Hormone Replacement
For what condition is Kariva (desogestrel + Ethinyl estradiol) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Januvia (sitagliptin) indicated? Type 2 diabetes mellitus
For what condition is Avodart (dutasteride) indicated? Enlarged Prostate
For what condition is Namenda (memantine) indicated? Alzheimer's disease
For what condition is Depakote (divalproex sodium) indicated? Epilepsy
For what condition is Budeprion SR (bupropion) Indicated? Depression
For what condition is Endocet (oxycodone + acetaminophen) indicated? Pain
For what condition is Vigamox (moxifloxacin) indicated? Bacterial infections
For what condition is Humalog D (insulin lispro) indicated? Type 1 Diabetes mellitus
For what condition is Levothroid (levothyroxine) indicated? Hypothyroidism
For what condition is Vivelle DOT (estradiol) indicated? Hormone replacement
For what condition is Apri (desogestrel + ethinyl estradiol) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Tri-Sprintec (norgestimate + ethinyl estradiol) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Allegra D (fexofenadine + pseudophedrine) indicated? Respiratory allergies and nasal congestion
For what condition is Yasmin 28 (drospirenone + ethinyl estradiol) indicated? Oral contraceptive
For what condition is Keppra (levetiracetam) indicated? Epilepsy
For what condition is Zyprexa (olanzapine) indicated? Psychotic disorders
For what condition is Coumadin (warfarin) indicated? Anticoagulant
For what condition is Skelaxin (metaxsalone) indicated? Skeletal muscle relaxer
For what condition is Requip (ropinirole) indicated? Parkinson's Disease
For what condition is Avalide (irbesartan + hydrochlorothiazide) indicated? Cardiovascular conditions
For what condition is Abilify (aripiprazole) indicated? Psychotic disorders
For what condition is Avelox (moxifloxacin) indicated? Bacterial infections
What is the brand name for the benzodiazepine drug lorazepam? Ativan
Rx: Drug K 300 mg TID X 30 Days. In stock is, 150mg Drug K tabs. How many tabs are needed to fill this order? 180
Your pharmacy adds a 35% markup for wholesale prescription drugs, a dispensing fee of 4.82and sales tax of 8.5%. Wholesale for drug H is $1620.00 for 1000 tablets. A patient has a prescription for #30 of drug H, and will pay cash. What will there final c 70.43
What auxiliary label needs to go on levothyroxine? Take On Empty Stomach
What auxillary label should be applied to a prescription for; Amoxicillin 250mg/5mL suspension? Shake Well Before Using
If a Doctor calls in a emergency prescription for Oxycontin for a patient. How long does the doctor have to present a written prescription to the pharmacy? 7 days
Vicodin is a combination drug of hydrocodone and APAP. What schedule is Vicodin in? schedule II narcotic
The NDC number : 0002-4463-01 is assigned to Cialis 10 mg. What does the second set of numbers represent? product identification segment
The U.S Food and Drug Administration has a reporting system to collect data about adverse events and side effects. What is the reporting system called? MedWatch
The agency that supervises the development, purity, safety and effectiveness, of prescription and over the counter medications is known as ? Food and Drug Administration FDA
Which publication is the official information on generic therapeutics equivalence ? Orange Book
Sublingual tablets are taken by? placing them under the tongue
Which liquid dosage form contains a mixture of oil and water? emulsions
How are nitroglycerin sublingual tablets dispensed? nitroglycerin sublingual tablets are not required to be dispensed in child resistant containers
The MedWatch program is used to do what? An FDA program that encourages health care professionals to report adverse drug effects
Which drug helps remove mucous from the respiratory system? expectorants
Which DEA form is used to engage in wholesale distribution by retail pharmacy for drugs containing pseudoephedrine? DEA form 510
What type of injectable water is intended to be used for injections? Bacteriostatic water USP
what does the letters VIII stand for in Roman numerals? 8
the medical term -phagia means what? to Eat
What information is needed in the case of a recall? Lot Number, expiration date
what is the gross profit formula? Selling Price - Purchase Price
What is the classification for Celebrex? NSAID, cyclooxegenase inhibitor (COX2)
What is the medication ranitidine used to treat? GERD gastro esophageal reflux disease
the transferring of a schedule II prescription can be done how many times? zero
Which type of Laminar Flood Hood uses recycled air within the hood? vertical
which organization regulates pharmacies and other entities that manufacture or distribute medications? State board of pharmacy
A prescription is written for 125 mg/5ml #16oz, 2tsp po bid. what is the days supply? 24 days
a daily log should be kept for medications stored in the refrigerator that must maintain a temperature of? 2 to 8 degrees C
what is the DEA form that is used to account for significant theft or loss of a control substances? DEA form 106
what is Vesicare used to treat? overactive bladder
when entering the information into the computer, which code would be used for the spouse? 02
What is the generic drug for synthroid? levothyroxine sodium
The only prokinetic drug on the market is? Reglan (metoclopramide)
What is the generic drug for Reglan? metoclopramide
Which insulin is a rapid-acting insulin? Insulin lispro (Humalog)
Protease inhibitors, integrase inhibitors, and nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors can be used in the treatment for? HIV / AIDS
Zoloft is the brand name for which medication? Sertraline
Warfarin levels can be affected by which type of food? leafy green vegetables They contain vitamin K.
a drug with the suffix "-pril" belongs to which class of medications? ACE inhibitors
Zolpidem is indicated for the treatment of which condition? Insomnia
Tamiflu, Relenza, and Rapivab belong to which pharmacological category? Antiviral
a therapeutically equivalent medication must have the same strength, dosage form, route of administration and ______? active ingredients
which side effect commonly occurs with the use of (Pyridium) phenazopyridine? discoloration of the urine
What is the generic for Tagamet an H2 receptor antagonist? Cimetidine
Latanoprost also known as (xalatan) is used for the treatment of which ocular condition? Glaucoma ( keep in fridge)
Classification of the triptan medication class are used for the treatment of ? Migraine headaches
Glyburide is a member of which hypoglycemic medication class? Sulfonylurea
Fluoxetine is the generic name for which of the SSRI drugs? Prozac (SSRI)
What are aspirin and ibuprofen classified as? NSAIDs
Which federal agency should the pharmacy contact in the event of a stolen controlled substance from the pharmacy? DEA
The prefix is located at the _______ of a medical term? beginning
What task should a pharmacy tech complete when assisting a pharmacist with medication therapy management (MTM)? schedule patients appointments
What strategy would a pharmacy tech use to optimize communication with patients? open ended questions
What strategy should a pharmacy tech use when communicating with a patient who speaks a different language? pictogram
If a manufacturer refuses to recall a medication and there is clear evidence of risk to human health, which government agencies should be contacted? can enforce a recall? Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
Which DEA form should a pharmacy tech use to request permission to destroy expired controlled substances? DEA form 41
A pharmacy tech should report an adverse drug event to which government agency? FDA MedWatch
Fentanyl patches should be disposed of in which way? flushed
Which reference should a pharmacy tech use to look up the compatibility of two intravenous solutions? Trissell's Handbook on Injectable drugs
How many controlled substances can be ordered on a DEA form 222? 10
Maximum weight that can be weighed on a Class A balance, AKA Class III balance? 60 to 120 grams
Glucophage (metformin) is the only classification of this drug on the market? biguanides
What are excipients? Inert (not medically active) ingredients that are added to preparations to achieve the required consistency, effectiveness, and functional properties to form a suitable dosage form for administration.
The tongue recognizes how many basic tastes? four-sweet, sour, salty, and bitter
What instrument is used to put the weights on the two pan torsion balance (scale)? tweezers
What is the arrest knob on the two pan torsion balance (scale) used for? lock the scale in place
Why are tweezers used to place the weights on the two pan torsion (scale) balance? So the oils do not corrode the weights and make them off balance.
What side of the torsion balance (scale) does the pharmacy tech place the weights on? right side
When reading the calibrations of a beaker or graduated cylinder, you must have the liquid at? eye level
When reading the calibrations of a beaker or graduated cylinder, the bottom of the liquid line is also known as the? meniscus
The vehicle used to dissolve something is known as the? solvent
The ingredient or agent dissolved in the solvent is known as the ? solute
The final mixture of the solute and solvent is known as the? solution
The only type of compounding that may be done away from the compounding area is the? reconstitution of premade oral suspensions
Ointments, creams and lotions are used for? topical and external use
Ophthalmic preparations are used for? the eye
Otic preparations are used for? the ear
Can pharmacy techs compound intravenous chemotherapy medications? yes
Obtaining medication history is part of? medication reconciliation
A varicella (chicken pox) vaccine should be stored in what location? refrigerator
Cytotoxic agents are disposed of in what bin? hazardous waste bin
The prefix hypo- has what meaning? to little or below
Which reference lists FDA-approved medications and their therapeutic equivalent? Orange book
Which organization enforces guidelines concerning medication quality standards? Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS)
Which of the following temperatures is equivalent to 75*Fahrenheit 24*Celsius
A vial of insulin R was removed form the refrigerator to compound an IV bag on April 1. On which of the following dates will the vial need to be discarded if stored at room temperature? April 29
What is the name of the principle that requires pharmacy professionals to disclose only the information other parties require about a patient? The minimum necessary needed information
How often must employers of pharmacy staff provide training about HIPAA's privacy and security rules? Annually
When reviewing the quantity requested on a prescription for a controlled substance, what might be a sign of a forgery? An unusually large quantity written for
In which controlled substance schedule is the commonly prescribed sleep aid zolpidem (Ambien)? Schedule IV
To which therapeutic action classification does simvastatin (Zocor) belong? Lipid lowering agents
How should patients take effervescent tablets? Dissolve them in water
What is the term for liquids that dry as flexible films on the skin? Collodions
What is the indication for the prescription medication pioglitazone (Actos)? Diabetes mellitus type II (thiazolidinedione's)
What is the generic name for Cleocin? Clindamycin (lincomycin antibiotics)
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