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Skin System
WVSOM: Skin System
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Pityriasis Versicolor is associated with which organism | Mallassezia furfur |
| Tinea Nigra's organism | Exophilia Werneckii |
| Balck pierdra's organism | Piedriaia Hortae |
| White pierdras organism | Trichosporon beigelli |
| Trichphyton rubrum, trichophyton mentagrophytes, and Epidermophyton are all associated with which TWO infections | Tinea Pedis (athletes foot) and Tinea Cruris (jock itch) |
| Trichophyton concentricum | Tinea Imbricata |
| Trichphyton rubrum, trichophyton mentagrphytes and microsporum canis | Tinea Corporis |
| Trichophyton verrucosum and Trichophyton mentagrophytes | Tinea Barbae |
| Trichophyton rubrum, Trichophyton mentagrophytes, candida, and Fusiarium | Tinea Ungium |
| Spagehetti and meatballs | Pityriasis Versicolor |
| Copper Penny Sores | Chromoblastomycosis |
| Wart like, califlower pigemented lesions | Chromoblastomycosis |
| Fonsecaea sp., Cladosporium sp., ad Phialophora sp | Chromoblastomycosis |
| Asteroid Bodies | Sporotrichosis |
| Sporothrix Schenckii | Sporotrichosis |
| Which disease can lead to bone destruction over a period of months to years | Mycetoma |
| Pseudoallescheria Boydi and Madurella mycetomatis | Mycetoma |
| What does Pityrasis veriscolor use for food | sebum |
| An individual presents with patchy colored skin after a really bad suburn, which disease is this | Pityrasis Versicolor |
| Cradle Cap and Dandruff are a result of the overgrowth of what | Mallesezia |
| brown/black macular lesions usually on hands and/or feet. May resemble melanoma. Non-scaling, non- inflammatory | tinea nigra |
| Do dermatophytoses consume keratin | yes |
| Moccasin Pattern on the bottom of the foot | Tinea Pedis |
| ulcerative papule, spreads via draining lymph channels, nodular granulomas, chronic | sporotrichosis |
| Small, painless papules and nodules, sinustract formation leads to spread, deeper tissue infiltration | Mycetoma |
| ectothrix and endothrix refer to what? | Tinea Capatis, where the infection is inside or outside of the hair shaft |
| In tinea capatis, is the hair loss that occurs permanent | no |
| True or False: the Ids associated with the dermatophytes have fungus in them | False |
| True or False: THe Copper Penny SOres seen in Chromoblastomycosis have fungus in them | True |
| What is it that the body is reacting against in a insect sting | protiens |
| IS a reaction in the skin always seen during anaphylaxis | Nope |
| Are upper or lower respiratory problems more serious during anaphylaxis | lower |
| What is criterion 1 for anaphylaxis | Skin and/or muscous irritation with AT LEAST either circulation problems or respiratory problems |
| What is Criterion 2 for anaphylaxis | 2 or more problems in: Skin, GI, Heart, or Lungs |
| What is Criterion 3 for anaphylaxis | Reduced BP after exposure to a KNOWN allergen |
| RAST test is used to look at allergies pertaing to which type of allergens | food allergens |
| Where is epi usually given | thigh |
| What other drug can you use in conjuction with epi for anaphylaxis | Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) |
| If a patient is sufferinf from anaphylaxis and is on a B-blocker what might you consider giving them | glucagon |
| What is the main difference between Anaphylaxis and Anaphylactoid Reaction | Anaphylactoid reaction can occur WITHOUT previous exposure to the allergen and IS NOT IgE mediated |
| True or False: The treatment for anaphylaxis and anaphylactiod reaction are the same | true |
| Applying suction, ice and a tourniquet to a snake wound is a good idea? | Nope, not good at all |
| which type of crons usually form on TOP of the toes | hard |
| What is the treatment of corns | removal of the cause (shoes, habits, etc..) |
| What is caused by hyperkeratosis, has poorly demarkated borders and results from a constant friction rub | Callus |
| Plantar warts are caused by which virus | HPV |
| What is a paronychia | bacterial infection of the proximal or lateral nail fold WITH abcess formation |
| What defines a simple subungal hematoma | Intact nail and nail margins |
| What defines a complex subungal hematoma | fracture, nail base dislocation, tissue loss or lacertation |
| Which candida caaounts for about 50% of infections | candida albicans |
| Which two candida species are commonly resistant to antifungals | Candida krusei and candida Galbrata |
| INertigo, balanitis, paronychia, and diaper rash are all associated with what | Candida effects or manifestations |
| Candida, among a few other infections, is a prime indicator of paients with which other disease | HIV |
| While candida most effects the immune compromised, lack of which cell types in the immune system predispose someone to candida | nuetrophils and macrophages |
| Long term corticosteroids, HIV, diabetes, and longterm broadspectrum antibiotics are all risk factors for? | Candida |
| Which candida species is found on about 20% of healthcare workers | parapsilosis |
| what is the #1 opportunistic infection in hosptials | candida |
| What are the 5 pathogenic factors asssociated with candida | Adherance, dimorphism, protienases, phospholipases, and phenotypic switching |
| MOST common presentation of Candida | Diaper Rash |
| Why is oral thrush due to Candida seen in the infant and geriatric population | lack of immune system |
| what percentage of women develop vaginitis during their lives | 70% |
| Is seeing candida in a women a definite diagostic finding of infection | NO, part of normal fauna in 15-20% |
| If you have vaginitis with a pH above 4.5 what type of infection do you suspect? Below 4.5? | Bacteria, fungusNOT a clear line, can have mixed infections |
| Vaginitis with a yeast smell, dry/red appearance and curdy discharge is probably due to what | Candida Albicans |
| Vaginitis with a fishy smell and grey white discharge is most likely due to which organism | Garnerella Vaginalis |
| Vaginitis with a frothy discharge, greenish-yellow in color and foul smell is due to what organism | Trichomonas vaginalis |
| Systemic candida ONLY occurs with a predisposition and the candida causing the infection comes from where | GI tract |
| tzank smear is used to look for which viruses | Herpes |
| ds DNA, icosahedral, enveloped, intrannuclear inclusion bodies and MULTINUCLEATED GIANT CELLS are all properties of which viruses | Herpes |
| Is Simplex Virus Type 1 nuerotropic or lymphtropic | nuerotropic |
| Herpangina (local blisters inside the mouth and in the back of the throat is indicative of which disease | gingivostomatitis |
| Herpes labialis is common reffered to as | cold sores |
| Where does herpes labialis usually become latent | trigeminal ganglion |
| This disease is commonly caused by rubbing the mouth and then the eyes and can cause blindness due to scarring of the cornea | keratoconjuntivitis |
| A disease which commonly occurs around pre-existing eczema or dermatits and occurs later in life | Eczema herpeticum |
| Meningoencephalitis is commonly associated with which type of herpes? Enchephalitis | Type 2, Type 1 |
| Herpes Gladiatorum is most commonly seen in which sport | wrestling |
| Herpatic whitlow is most commonlu seen in which profession | healthcare workers |
| Caused by drugs and has a bulls eye appearance | Erythema Multiform |
| Varicella Roster is commonly known as what? Recurrent form? Nuerotropic or lymphotropic? | Chicken POx. Shingles. Nuerotropic |
| where is replication of varicella roster done | liver or other organs |
| A lymphotropic virus, linked to rosiola virus, febrile seizures, encephalitis and hemophagocytic syndrome | Type 6 |
| Karposii's sarcoma is associated with which virus | Type 8 Herpes (lymphotropic) |
| Orf and Milkers Nodule are forms of which herpes virus | Molluscum Contagiosum |
| What is the primary action of antiviral treatment and preventions | Inhibit DNA polymerase |
| What is the vaccine for chickenpox | TFT - for occular use or Varifax (live attenuated) |
| VariZIG is what | varicella-zoster immungolbin given to neonates that are immunocompromised |
| Can the smallpox virus be given after an infection | yes, up to 4 day after intial infection |
| Why do you use a "scrtach injection" for small pox vaccine | it cannot grow in deep tissue |
| which bacteria is a gram positive, carries out B-hemolysis, and slightly yellow in color | staph |
| Is staph a facultative anerobe | yes, yes it is |
| Which staph strain has coagulase | aueus |
| Which staph strain is white and susceptible to novobiocin | epidermidis |
| which staph infection is responsible for 5-10% of UTI infections in females | saprophyticus |
| Which staph strain commonly infects joint replacements and has a very sticky outter coat | Epidermidis |
| A diagnostic tool for deep seated staff infections is antibodies against? | Teichoic Acids |
| What role does the capsule paly for staph | antiphagocytic |
| What role does Protien A play for staph | anti-opsin effects (found in cell wall. Also finds to the Fc region preventing T-cells from binding |
| What does catalase do | breaks down H2O2 into water and oxygen |
| What does Beta-lactamase do | breaks down penecillin |
| Hemolysins are seen in which bacteria | staph |
| Luekocidin is a enzyme found in which bacteria and does does what | Staph, associated with panto valentine and kills WBC's |
| What purpose do enterotoxins serve | resist gut pH (found in staph strains and common in food poisoning) |
| Which disease is MOST commonly associated with Hep A, but also can be caused by Staph | Impetigo |
| Endocarditis, particularily acute and on the valves is associated with which organism | staph |
| Toxic shock syndrome and scalded skin syndrome is associated with which organism | Staph |
| How must staph enter the body | CANNOT penetrate skin, must come in through an open wound, cut, abrasion, etc... |
| Which drug is used to treat minor staph infections | tetracycline |
| Which drugs are used for staph that is resistant to penecillin | Methicillin, Naficillin, and Oxacillin |
| Which is more common, Community acquired methicillin resistant staph or Hosptial acuquired | Community acquired, thought that community acquired made its way into hospitals |
| USA3000 is what? | Methicillin resistant, "community acquired" staph that has a pantovalentine characteristic. |
| How do you treat USA3000 | trimethoprim/sulfoxazole |
| What is the mechanism to methecillin resistant staph | target modification |
| What is used for the treatment of Hospital acquried staph | vancomycin |
| How will streptococci appear in a stain culture | gram negative cocci in CHAINS |
| How do streptococci grow | ferment sugars, no AEROBIC growth, NOT facultative, AEROTOLERANT |
| What do scientist use to clasify the different strains of strep | C-carbohydrate |
| What type of hemolysis does S. pyogenes carry out | Beta |
| What type os hemolysis does S. agalactiae carry out | Beta |
| What role does the capsule have for S. pyogenes | resist phagocytosis |
| What role do T and R protiens play in S. pyogenes | used for identification and MAY play a role in virulence |
| What is streptokinase | Virulence factor of S. Pyogenes, acts on Fibrin to prevent clots |
| What is streptodornase | Virulence factor for S. Pyogenes, acts to break down DNA |
| What is Erythrogenic toxin | responsible for causing scarlet fever in S. pyogenes infections |
| Describe the two streptolysins (hemolysins) | Type 0 - oxygen labile, antigenicType S - oxygen stabile, non-antigenic |
| In a S. pyogenes infection, what causes most of the tissue damage | Inflammatory response |
| What is scarlet fever caused by | erythrogenic toxin produced by lysogenic Group A strep |
| The classic "strawberry tounge" is indicative of what infection | scarlet fever (Group A strep, only able to get this once) |
| What is the MOST common cause of impetigo | Strep (S. Pyogenes) |
| Short term strep (Group A, S. pyogenes) skin infections can cause what disease in a chronic or post-infection state | glomerunonephritis |
| Upper respiratory Strep infections can lead to what in a chronic or post-disease state | Rhuematic Fever |
| Mothers are commonly found to be carrying this type of strep | Strep B, S. agalactiae |
| As soon as sepsis is mentioned, which disease do you think | Strep |
| What is the number one cause of Otitis media | Strep. pneumoniae |
| What is the number one cause of subacute endocarditis | Viridans Strep or alpha strep |
| Group D strep (enterococcus) is known to cause what type of infections | UTI |
| Which drug is the most effective and cheapest option for treating strep infections | Penecillin |
| A bacteria that is a non-fermenter, oxidase positive, grows at 42 C, pigmented green, and has a fuity odor associated with is... | Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| Having Pili, a capsule, Endotoxin, exotoxin A, and Tissue necrosis are all virulence factors of which bacteria | Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| Patient presents with Ecthyma gangrenosum, which bacteria is responsible | Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| Which bacteria commonly colonize on respirators and requires changing of the tubes | Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| Otitis externa is commonly associated with which bacteria | Pseudomonas aeruginosa |
| Which bacteria is commonly seen in American soliders who served in Iraq | Acinetobacter baumanii(this is commonly drug resistant) |
| Dry areas are typically colonized by what type of bacteria | gram positive cocci (aerobic and anaerobic) |
| Moist areas are typically colonized by which type of bacteria | gram negative rods |
| In a bedridden patient, which type of bacteria would you expect to see an increase of | gram negative rods |
| Cellulitis and Early necrotizing fasciitis are both caused by what bacteria | strep pyogenes |
| Folliculitis is is caused by which organism | staph or psuedomonas aeruginosa |
| Hemorrhagic Cellulitis caused by the consumption of raw seafood is caused by which organism | Vibrio Vulnificus |
| Which organism is responsible for "cat scratch fever" | Bartenealla henselae (gram negative aerobe) |
| Most common cause of burns for children 3-14 | flame burns |
| Most common cause of burns for ages 15-60 | industrial accidents |
| Most common cause of burns for age 60+ | accidents |
| Average water loss before and after a burn | 15ml/m2/hr and 200ml/m2/hr |
| In what time frame does the most waer loss occur | 24 hours |
| When do cappillaries get back in order after a burn | 48 hours |
| Describe a 1st degree burn | dry, minimal edema, ability to keep bacteria out is still intactCaused by gas burn or BREIF contact with hot stuff |
| Describe a 2nd degree burn | blisters, redness, moist, painful and edema Caused by flash heat and contatc with hot sutff |
| Describe a 3rd degree burn | dry, white/charred, leathery, almost PAINLESSCaused by flame burn or contact with hot stuff |
| At what percetage of a 2nd degree burn do you NOT apply a cool compress. Transfer to burn unit? | 10%, at which point you also bring to a hospital. 20% |
| Where does history fall into the burn assessment | Secondary survey |
| What shoudl be done for anyone suspected of CO poisoning | given 100% pure oxygen |
| At what percentage of bidy area for a 3rd degree burn do you hospitalize the patient? Burn unit? | 2% and 5% |
| When CO levels are above 10%, what do you automatically do with the patient | tranfer to burn unit |
| What structures do electrical burns travel on | vessels and nerves |
| Which is worse, alkali or acid | alkali (flush for 8hrs vs 30min) |
| erythema infectiosum is also known as? What is it caused by? | fifths disease or slapped cheek disease or gloves and socks syndrome. Caused by parovirus |
| What does parovirus use in order to attach to precursor cells | P-antigens |
| A disease in which circulating RBC's are coated with virus which causes them to phagocytosed | Hemophagocytic syndrome |
| Rash, arthritis and arthralgia in a parovirus infection are all caused by what | soluble immune complexes |
| When does gloves and socks and syndrome occur in relation to a parovirus infection | Prior to an immune response |
| Gloves and Socks syndrome is an actual infection of what cells | endothelial cells |
| In Erthythema Infectiosum, what come first, the Rash or the fever | fever |
| Why is Hydrops fetalis worse if it happens between weeks 11 and 23 of development | because this coincides with the development of the fetal circulatory system |
| What is needed in order for a transient aplastic crisis to occur | predispostion to poor RBC production |
| BK papillomavirus is associated with what imparticular | virus is involved in kidney transplants |
| E6 papillomavirus is associated with mutations in what gene | p53 (inhibiting apoptosis) |
| E7 papillomavirus is associated with mutations in which gene | Rb(cell replication inhibition) |
| Which type of warts have the highest carcinogenesis probability | Bowenoid |
| Where do flat warts usually occur | on the face |
| HIGHEST malignacy are seen in which type of warts | condylomas (mucocutaneous) |
| Which layer of the skin does the receptor for papillomavirus lie | basal layer |
| What stage is the papillomavirus in when the basal layer of the skin starts to replicate and move outwards | Prickle Stage |
| What are KOILOCYTES a buzz word for | Papillomavirus associated cellular inculsions and vaculesAlso cervical dysplasia |
| What are the four strains of papillomavirus used in HPV vaccine | 6 and 8 (cause genital warts, low malignancy)16 and 18 (highest malignancy) |
| Which two cytokines do keratinocytes produce in an inflammatory response | IL-1 and TNF |
| Can keratinocytes produce class II MHC's | yes |
| IN which disease do you have seperation of the dermis from the epidermis | Bullous Pemphigoid |
| In which disease do you have intraepidermal acanthoylysis | Pemphigus |
| Which bullous skin disease is IgG mediated with a increase in Eosinophils | Bullous Pemphigoid |
| Which bullous skin disease has a strong association to HLA-DRB1*0402 | Pemphigus |
| Pemphigus is potentiallly fatal due to the occurance of what taking place | sepsis of infection |
| Bullous skin disease with high association to IgA | Dermatitis herpetiformis |
| Bullous skin disease with high association to celiac disease (gluten-sensitivity enteropathy) | dermatitis herpetiformis |
| What is the Koebner phenomenon | A person who is prone to psoriasis and has a flare up due to trauma |
| What is a Positive Auspitz sign | a drop of blood forms after peeling off a scale |
| A chronic/reoccuring skin disease, SHARP borders, symetrical, with glossy homogenous erythema, and silvery scales | psoriasis |
| True or False: psoriasis is a T-cell mediated process | true |
| True of False: Newborns have an increase reponse to thermal changes | false |
| What is canosis of the hands and feet of newborns called, and what causes it | Acrocyanosis cuased by increase peripheral arterial tone |
| Net-like, reddish-blue mottling of the skin in a newborn during chilling, which resolves when re-warmed | Cutis Marmorata (can be a sign of sepsis) |
| This film over a babies body is refered to as what. What does this usually resolve to | Ichthyosis, resolves to scales |
| Sores, present ar birth on the fingers or thumbs are most likely attributed to | In-utero sucking |
| Sweat gland obstruction in a newborn leads to which disease | Miliaria |
| Which form of miliaria occurs at flexure areas or areas of occulsion | Miliaria Rubra (pricky heat) |
| You have a newborn that presents with tiny whitish-yellow papules containing kertin all over its cheeks, forehead and nose, what are these called | milia |
| What is the main diagnostic feature identifed in Erythema Toxicum Neonatorium | high amounts of eosinophils |
| What is the main diagnostic feature identified in Transient Neonatal Pustular Melanosis | Nuetorphils (also pigmented macules with a scale) |
| Seborrhetic dermatitis is often refered to as what is newborns? what is thought to cause this | cradle cap, cause by fungal growth |
| Consisting of mature dialated dermal capillaries and representing a permanent defect, this disorder in newborns is usually found on the head and neck region | Port Wine stain |
| Flat grayish-blue macules found in the lumbosaccral area and more prevelant in african americans or asians | Mongolian spots |
| true or false: mongolian spots are usually associated with malignancies | false |
| Usually flat, these tan macules or papules are found at birth and prsent in various sizes with ability to become malignant | congenital nevi |
| What is the MOST common benign tumor of infancy | Herpangiomas |
| What is the difference between a superfical and deep herpangioma | color. Superficial = red Deep = blue |
| PHACE syndrome deals with what... | Herpangiomas that can cuase other problems |
| A rapidly enlarging herpangioma that cuases various blood and coagulation problems like thrombocytonpenia, hemolytic anemia and coagulopathy is refered to as what | Kasabach-Merritt syndrome |
| What is Stuge-Weber syndrome | port-wine syndrome over the opthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve |
| Port-wine syndrome closely associated with local overgrowth of soft tissue and bone found in lower extremeities | Kilppel Trenauney Weber syndrome |
| TORCH syndrome stands for... | Toxoplasmosis, Other (syphilis), Rubella, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes |
| Hydrocephalis, Chorioretinitis and Intracerebral Calcifiaction | toxoplasmosis |
| Early syphylis is seen in what time frame | under 2 years from birth |
| Perioral fissure and scarring, lymphadenopathy, rhinitis, OSTEOCHODRRITIS and maculopapular lesions on the palms and sole are all seen in... | syphylis |
| Hutchinson teeth, mulberry molars, Sabre shin, and Saddle nose deformity are all seen in what | Late syphylis |
| Classical triad of cataracts, deafness and heart malformations | rubella |
| Blueberry muffin rash | rubella |
| Respiatory defects, Hepatits, and DIC with focal sizures | Herpes as a result of TORCH syndrome |
| Cough, Coryza, and conjunctivitis | Measles |
| Which early childhood disease has a prodrome of a HIGH FEVER | measles |
| "rose-pink" macules that progress from a head to toe fashion | rubella |
| When is parovirus most likely to be seen (seasonally) | winter or spring |
| 3-5 days of high fever that progresses to a rash that moves FROM THE TRUNK TO THE EXTREMITIES | Roseoloa |
| A rash that occurs with "dew drops on a rose pedal" and lesiosn at varying stages is... | Varicella Zoster (chicken pox) |
| What is the coxsackie virus associated with | Hand-foot-mouth disease |
| Greywhite vesicular lesions on the hands and feet, with macular eruption on the buttocks | Hand-foot-mouth disease |
| Which vesiculobullbous disease has NO prodrome | Erythema multiform |
| Lesions on lower extremeties and buttocks, with normal platlets, and edema and/or hemmorage of the bowel wall as a result of vasculitis | Henoch Scholien syndrome |
| A patient presents with appearant serum sickness but lacks vasculitis, renal disease and hypocomplimentemia, what do they have | Serum sickness like reaction |
| Bilateral NON-exudative conjunctivitis | kawasaki syndrome |
| A prolonged or unexplained fever of 5 days or more should make you think of... | Kawasaki syndrome |
| CRASH and BURN stands for what and refers to which disease | Conjunctivits, Rash, Adenopathy, Strawberry tounge and Hand/feet with FEVER are all signs of Kawasaki disease |
| Cardiac Sequele represent the most severe form of which disease | Kawasakie syndrome |
Created by:
lowryc
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