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F/A-18A-F EAWS 2017

QuestionAnswer
What is the purpose of carbon/epoxy composite materials? Limit weight, increase strength, reduce the effects of corrosion
What PPE should be worn when handling composite materials? Close weave cotton gloves, respirator and goggles.
Where are the step areas on top of the aircraft? They will have non-skid on the surface and wings are considered walkways.
Where are the NO STEP areas on top of the aircraft? LEF, TEF, horizontal and vertical stabilizers, ailerons and radome sufaces.
What is the purpose of the ground safety pins in the landing gear? To prevent gear retraction while on deck.
What doors must be closed before towing aircraft? Minimum structural access doors, Radome, 68L/R.
What do you use to discharge high voltage static build up? Static Charge Removal kit.
What is the purpose of aircraft plugs and covers? To protect aircraft openings and protruding surfaces from physical and environmental damage and foreign object intrusion.
How many tie-down points are on the aircraft? 12. 13 and 14 are added on the jack my beam.
Where are the tie-down points located? 1 and 2 are on the NLG. 3 is in door 16. 4, 6, and 8 are on left MLG. 5, 7 and 9 are on right MLG. 10 and 11 are under the wings in door 107L/R. 12 is in door 164.
What is the purpose of a Temporary Repair? To restore full load carrying capabilities until permanent repair can be made.
What is the purpose of a One Time Flight Repair? To restore limited load carrying requirements to allow an aircraft to be flown to a repair station for permanent repairs.
What is a Permanent Repair? Meets or exceeds strength of original structure or component with no adverse affects on structural integrity, fatigue, safety or flying characteristics.
Where is the Radome? Nose of the aircraft and covers the radar and provides and electrically transparent window for transmission and reception of radar signals.
Where does the forward fuselage extend from? The end of the Radome to the aft end of panel 18.
Where does the center Fuselage extend from? The forward edge of panel 26 to the aft edge of panel 55L/R.
Where does the aft fuselage extend from? Panel 62L/R to the exhaust nozzles.
What do the wings provide? Lift for the aircraft, store fuel, houses leading edge flaps, trailing edge flaps and ailerons. The outboard section folds for carrier operation, allows for attachment of pylons for weapons/stores.
What does the LEX provide? Added lift at high angles of attack. They are an extension of the wing leading edge.
What are the flight control surfaces? Ailerons, LEF, TEF, Stabs, rudders, speed brake/spoiler, LEX.
What do the Ailerons do? In flight: the ailerons command asymmetrically to produce roll motion. During takeoff/landing: they deflect symmetrically with the TEFs up to 42 degrees.
What to the Leading Edge Flaps do? In flight: deflect asymmetrically to aid ailerons in producing the roll motion. During takeoff/landing: deflect symmetrically to change lift.
What do the Trailing Edge Flaps do? In flight: they independently deflect asymmetrically to aid the ailerons in producing roll motion. During takeoff/landing: deflect symmetrically to change lift.
What do the rudders do? In flight: command asymmetrically to produce yaw motion. During takeoff/landing: when AOA is less than 8 degrees, the rudders toe in to increase lift and stability. When AOA is more than 8 degrees they toe out to improve stability.
What does the speed break do? Creates drag to slow aircraft airspeed.
What does the LEX spoiler do? At less than Mach 1.5 provides speed brake function. Provides a high mode down pitch movement when transitioning from a high AOA with and aggressive down maneuver.
What does the nose landing gear provide? Taxiway absorption and tire runway compliance.
What does the launch bar provide? A means of steering the aircraft during carrier deck operations.
What does the main landing gear provide? A stable platform for aircraft carrier and shore based operations. The MLG absorbs energy from ground loads during landing and taxi operations.
What is the purpose of the wheel brakes? Provides pilots modulated individual wheel controlled braking. Anti skid system prevents skid.
What is the purpose of the arresting hook? The hook point engages an arrestment cable on the carrier deckto stop the aircraft. It also provides a means of stopping the aircraft when normal runway landings are not available.
What does the hydraulic system consist of? Accumulator, reservoir, tubing, valves and pump.
What does HS1 control? Primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source.
What does HS2 provide? Primary flight controls either as a primary or backup source and non flight controls.
What allows backup hydraulic pressure to replace primary hydraulic pressure? Switching valves
What are the danger area related to engine operations? Exhaust velocity, temperature, air intake and noise.
What are the minimum safe distances from intakes at idle and MIL/MAX? 9ft at idle and 25ft at MIL or MAX.
What are the minimum safe distances from the exhaust at idle and at MIL/MAX? 115ft at idle and 925ft at MIL or MAX.
What is the velocity of the APU exhaust at its most center point? 142 MPH.
What is the temperature of the APU exhaust at its most center point? 328-350 degrees Fahrenheit
What makes the APU exhaust a fire hazard? Puddles of fuel or flammable solvents on the deck.
When fueling or de-fueling how many feet should you stay away from airborne radar and ground radar equipment? Airborne radar 100ft Ground radar 300ft
What precautions should you take when fueling an aircraft? Wear goggles, watch gauges to prevent over pressurization of fuel cells, watch vent for overflow and man a fire extinguisher.
What should you check before performing maintenance on an ARS pod? Make sure is is not armed and CADs are removed.
What type of engine is used in the F/A-18? F/A-18E-F is F414-GE-400 F/A-18A-D is F414-GE-400 or 402
What is the engine description? Low bypass, axial flow, dual spool turbofan engine of modular construction with afterburner.
Describe the ignition system. An automatic intermittent duty, AC powered, capacitor discharge system. It is self contained on the engine and requires no aircraft electrical power for operation. It remains energized until N2 is 54% or greater.
What components make up the ignition system? Alternator, FADEC or ECA, two fan speed transmitters, ignition exciter, main igniter, AB igniter, engine fuel control, AB flame sensor and thermocouple harness.
What type of lubrication system is on the engine? Dry sump.
What is the purpose of the lubrication system? To provide lubrication and cooling to the required bearings and gears.
Describe the Variable Exhaust Nozzle system. Cam and link-positioned hinged Flaps, convergent-divergent nozzle mounted to the aft end of the AB.
How is the VEN operated? Hydraulically with fuel.
What is the purpose of the FVG and CVG? To preserve fan and compressor stall margin.
What does the Anti-icing system provide? It provides anti-ice air flow to the engine front frame, inlet center body and inlet device. It prevents ice build up. Manually activated.
What does the FADEC do? Receives aircraft and engine sensor information and determines the appropriate engine scheduling to operate engines through all areas of the flight envelope.
What is the purpose of the fuel system? To provide fuel distribution, control and storage.
What are the components of the fuel system? Main fuel control, AB fuel control, throttle system, fuel cooling and fuel storage.
What is the main fuel controls primary function? Govern the correct main fuel flow to the combustion section controlling engine starting and operation.
What does the AB fuel control do? Governs the correct AB fuel flow controlling the AB operation from AB start through MAX power.
What does the throttle system provide? The pilot control of the aircraft engines.
What type of throttle system is installed? A fly-by-wire system with no mechanical connections to the engines.
How many fuel tanks are in the aircraft? 4 internals, 2 wings and up to 5 external fuel tanks.
How many pounds of fuel can the jet hold? It varies from 10,200lbs to as much as 30,00lbs.
What are wings tanks made of? Foam, they self seal to prevent leaks from battle damage.
Describe the Refuel/Defuel system. A manifold with a single point ground or in-flight input and an outlet in each internal and external fuel tank. It is controlled/monitored from door 8. Can be fueled through the IFR probe in flight.
Describe the internal fuel transfer system. Operates to replenish fuel in the #2 and #3 fuel tanks while maintaining CG. Normally pumps in the #1 and #4 fuel tank transfer fuel into #2 and #3 tanks. The wings transfer into cell 4.
What is the purpose of the CG Control? The SDC monitors the amount of fuel in the #1 and #4 tanks to maintain CG control.
Describe how the Hot Fuel Recirculation system works. Fuel separates from the motive flow fuel at the heat exchanger wash filters. Fuel absorbs heat from the liquid cooling systems, AMAD oil and hydraulic fluid in the heat exchangers which keeps the applicable system cool. It maintains optimum delivery.
What does the fuel pressurization and vent systems do? Maintains pressure on all tanks and cents fuel vapors overboard. Internal fuel pressure is removed and ram air pressure provides positive pressurization on the internal fuel tanks.
How is fuel quantity measured? Using capacitance gauging transmitters and displayed in the cockpit.
What does the secondary power system consist of? APU and AMAD
Describe the APU. A centrifugal flow gas turbine engine supplying air for ECS operation, MES and GMM through the AMADs.
How is engine start initiated through secondary power? The APU provides pneumatic power for the ATS which provides air to the AMAD and the AMAD turn pneumatic power into mechanical power with the PTS shaft that drives the engine turbines.
Describe the AMAD and what's mounted on it. Power to drive the AMAD and accessories is provided by engine during normal operations or by APU during GMM. It's connected to the engine via PTS shaft. The Motive flow boost pump, hydraulic pump, ATS, ATSCV and generator are driven by/ mounted to.
What is the purpose of the ARS? To provide basic aircraft with tanker capabilities.
What does the ARS consist of? Hydraulic, pneumatic, fuel and electrical systems.
What are the three sections of an ARS? Nose(dry). Center (wet). Tail(dry).
What psi does the ARS hydraulic system operate at? 3000psi
What does the ARS hydraulic system provide? Necessary power for hose extension and retraction and fuel transfer. Axial-piston type, variable displacement pressure compensated device.
What does the pneumatic and fuel systems provide on the ARS? Storing, transferring and measuring of fuel to replenish tanks of receiver aircraft.
What is the delivery psi of the ARS fuel system? 35-60psi
What is the fuel delivery rate of the ARS fuel system? Over 220 GPM.
Describe the ARS electrical system. Includes a control panel mounted in the cockpit, has BIT functions and contains a non-volatile BIT codes and Frequency Shift Keying data transmission.
Describe the RAT. A four bladed power source which drives the hydraulic pump via spline shaft. The RAT is mounted on the nose of the store by six threaded studs which extend through the nose cone casting and the hydraulic pump flange.
Describe the feather feature of the RAT. When the control panel power switch is off, the solenoid is de-energized, the brake is on and the blade assemblies are in the feathered position. When the power switch is on, the brake is released causing rapid acceleration.
What is the RATs governing speed? 3600-5000 RPM.
What is the volume actual displacement output per revolution of the of the ARS hydraulic pump? 1.53 cubic inches.
Where is the fuel transfer pump mounted in the ARS? Bottom of the center section and the motor is attached to the pump.
What type of hydraulic motor does the fuel pump have? Constant displacement type consisting of pistons, housing and a cam a drive shaft which mate with the fuel pump via spline shaft.
What type of pump is the ARS fuel pump? Centrifugal impeller type.
Where is the guillotine installed? On the serving gear assembly.
What does the guillotine consist of? A hose guide, and rollers to allow free travel during operation.
What does the guillotine provide? An explosive means of severing the hose from the store.
Where is the hose reel assembly mounted? On the aft bulkhead ok the center section.
Operation of RADAR is... A radiation hazard to personnel
When applying external power how should circuit breakers be positioned? As specified in the required MIMS.
If using a mobile power unit, how should it be positioned? Chocked and facing away from aircraft.
What does a barometric altimeter do? Uses pitot static pressure to indicate altitude above sea level.
What does a radar altimeter do? Uses radio echoes to determine altitude above ground level.
What is Azimuth? The angular position or bearing on a horizontal plane measure clockwise from true north.
What is bearing? The angular position of an aircraft with respect to a reference point or line.
What is range? The distance of an object from an observer.
What is heading? The actual orientation of the aircrafts longitudinal axis at any instant.
What is true heading? Direction measured by try north.
What is magnetic heading? Direction measured for magnetic north
What is relative heading? Direction facing using a 0/360 Azimuth alignment.
What are the advantages of using fiber optic cables? Improved system performance, immunity to electrical noise, signal security, improved safety and electrical isolation, reduced size and weight, environmental protection and improved overall system economy.
What is the purpose of VHF/ UHF communications? To communicate with other aircraft, ground stations, shipping traffic and costal stations. Provides fixed frequency anti-jam transmission.
Purpose of IAS? Provide amplification and routing of audio signals between cockpit, ground crew and rear cockpit. Provides supplemental backup communications/ radio navigation, weapons tones and voice alerting.
Describe TACAN. Determines relative bearing and slant range to a TACAN ground station or a similar TACAN equipped aircraft. Also keeps present position.
What is INS? Self-contained, fully automatic, dead reckoning navigation system.
What is GPS? A navigation system that receives reference information from a satellite source. Provides present positions
What is the ARI? A self contained pitch and roll attitude reference system with an electronically driven gyro that maintains vertical orientation . Provides minimum of 3 minutes of attitude information with total loss of power.
What is ILS? An all-weather approach guidance system that provides steering information during aircraft approach by deciding Azimuth and elevation microwave signals from surface transmitters.
What does the pitot static system do? Measures temperature, pitot an static pressure surrounding the aircraft.
What is the function of the automatic flight control system ? To provide autopilot and automatic throttle control.
What is the purpose of the airspeed indicator? Displays airspeed as a function of pitot and static pressure. It is indicated in 10 knot increments form 50-200 knots.
What does the standby pressure altimeter do? Displays altitude with three displays. Drum display: pointer display: four digit display.
What does the vertical speed indicator do? Senses changes in air pressure and displays them in the form of climb or dive rate from 0-6000 feet per minute.
What does the air data pressure transmitters do? Converts pneumatic static and total pressure inputs from the pitot/static total temperature probes into digital signals. The signals are converted into true air data
What is the purpose of the AOA Indexer? Shows approach angle of attach with lighted symbols.
What is the purpose of the AOAT? To measure the difference between the longitudinal axis of the aircraft and the airstream.
What does the ADC do? Receives inputs from various aircraft sensors, the information is corrected to compute accurate air data ton display primary flight data.
What is the purpose of the Airstream Direction Sensing Unit? Provides angle of attack information to the ADC and electronic flight control system.
What does thE TTP do? Measures total Temperature of the air outside the aircraft and send it to the ADC in the form of electrical signals.
What is data link? A two way UHF communications link with controlling shipboard, airborne or land based could most direction system.
What are the four modes of operation for data link? Vector, automatic carrier landing mode, waypoint mode and alignment.
What is the purpose of RADAR? Provides A/A and A/G modes for target detection, designation, tracking and navigation. Also provides terrain avoidance for low level navigation
What does the MC do? Provides data conversion with non-mix avionic equipment through the control converter.
What does the HUD provide? Aircraft altitude, steering, navigation, A/A and A/G weapons, navigation FLIR video displays in the pilot forward field of view.
What are the capabilities of the L/R DDIs? Night Vision image system compatible, stores status, radar weapon video, cautions and advisories, engine monitor, and BIT displays. LDDI may no be the same as RDDI except for menu and spin modes and HUD.
Purpose of the UFCD? Provides for entry of aircraft data that is used for selection and control of communications, radio navigation and identification. Provides for selection of aircraft displays including tactical displays to which the throttle designator is assigned.
How does the MPCD work? Has mechanical push buttons for operator inputs and is used as a multifunction display.
What system is DMS part of? TAMMAC(Tactical Aircraft Moving Map Capability).
What is the purpose of TAMMAC? To provide enhanced navigational/tactical situational awareness to aircrew, using onboard moving map and image database.
What does the CVRS do? Records critical events and displays as selected by the aircrew. Either 8mm or SSR will be installed.
How many types of memory cards does the AMU have? 2, mission PC Card and maintenance PC Card.
What does the AMU do? Communicates with the mission computer system to provide recording of aircraft maintenance code history, fatigue strain gauge and engine and tactical data.
What are the two functions of the DFIRS? Retrieving and storage of flight data and the deployment of stored flight data before the aircraft crashes or upon impact.
What door is DFIRS located under? Door 300
How long can the DFIRS battery operate for search and rescue, satellite aircraft guard receivers and direction finders? 72 hours at 243 Hz.
What is the purpose of the FIRAMS? It monitors engine and airframe operational status for unit failures and cautions/advisory conditions.
How does the Joint Helmet Cueing System(JHMCS) work? It improves situational awareness, increases aircraft survivability and increases the ability to acquire a visual target. Work with the AIM-9X missile.
What are position lights used for? To determine relative position of the aircraft at night.
What color are the left side position lights? Red
What color are the right side position like lights? Green
What color is the tail light? White
How many formation lights are there? 10, 1 on each side of the forward fuselage, 2 on each wing tip, 1 on each side of the aft fuselage and 1 on each vertical stab.
What is the purpose of the anti-collision strobe light? Provides coverage forward, aft, up, down and outboard to guard against in-flight collisions.
What is the purpose of the DID strobe light? Used to identify aircraft.
Where is the white taxi/landing light located? On the nose landing gear. It faces forward and does not move with the nose wheel.
What are the approach lights? Located on the nose landing gear strut assembly, activated when all landing gear is down and weight off wheels, displays the AOA to the LSO.
What does the electrical power supply consist of? Two generators, two transformer-rectifiers, one battery with dedicated battery charger, and a bus system.
What does each generator provide? A primary AC source and three isolated DC sources from a permanent magnet generator.
What does the bus system consist of? Left and right 115vac busses, right 26vac bus, left and right 28vdc busses and 28vdc essential and maintenance busses.
What does the maintenance battery supply? 28vdc power to the essential and maintenance buses. Power for engine start when external power is not applied.
What does the E-BATT supply? (Baby hornet) Engine start, canopy operation, maintenance monitor on the ground.
Describe the generators. Variable speed, constant frequency power, 115/200 vac, 400Hz, three phase electrical power.
What is the objective of the Explosive Handling Qualification and Certification Program? To ensure that all personnel, after having received training and demonstrated the ability to properly and safely perform all functions and tasks involving explosives, are certified to handle such devices. Applicable to all personnel Navy and Civilian.
What does HERO stand for? Hazards or Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance.
What are the hazards associated with forward firing ordnance? Auto-ignition, toxic chemicals, inadvertent separation from aircraft, high heat, protruding surfaces, and motor detonation.
What is yellow banded ordnance? High explosives
What is brown banded ordnance? Rocket motors
What is blue banded ordnance? Inert weapon or training round.
What BRUs are used in F/A-18s? BRU-32, BRU-33, BRU-42, and BRU-41
What LAUs are used on F/A-18s? LAU-7, LAU-127 and LAU-116
What pylons are mounted on the aircraft? SUU- 62, SUU-63, SUU-78, SUU-79, and SUU-80
How many weapons stations does a legacy have? 9.
How many weapons stations does a super have? 11.
What are CADs ? Cartridge actuated devices. Small explosive filled cartridges used to fire other explosives or release mechanisms. High reliability and easy maintenance.
What types of CADs are used? Mk. 19, Mk. 125, and Mk. 107.
Which cad opens the BRU-32? Mk. 19.
What are cluster bomb units? Anti tank bomb clusters, air launched, conventional free fall weapon.
What types of CBUs are used? Mk. 20, CBU-99, and CBU-100
What is a fire bomb? A thin skinned container of a fuel gel designed for use against dug in troops, supply installations, wooden structures and land convoys.
How much does the Mk. 77 Mod. R hold? Approximately 75 gallons and weighs 500lbs
How are aircraft laid mines used? In offensive operations and defensive mining operations. The primary objective is to defend or control vital straits, port approaches, convoy anchorages and seaward coastal barriers.
What GBUs do we use? GBU-12, GBU-16, GBU-10. Mk. 82/BLU-111, Mk. 83/BLU-110, Mk. 84/BLU-117.
What are the two ways bomb find can be operated? Retarded and non-retarded
What is a CATM? Captive Air Training Missile. These include all types of missiles other than service or tactical, they are used for pilot training in aerial target acquisition and aircraft controls/displays.
What are DATMs? Dummy Air Training Missiles. They are ground training missiles used to train ground personnel in missile assembly/disassembly, uploading and downloading, and handling procedures.
What are NATMs and PGWs? Special Air Training Missiles and Practice Guided Weapons.
What are the three modes of operation of a missile? Active, Semi-Active, and Passive.
Describe an Active missile. The target illumination is supplied by a component carried in the missile.
Describe a semi-active missile. When the missiles gets its target illumination from and external source(aircraft).
Describe a passive missile. Intelligence is received from the target.
What are the Air-to-Air missiles? AIM-7 Sparrow, AIM-9 Sidewinder, AIM-9M, AIM-9X, AIM-120 AMRAAM.
What are the Air-to-Ground missiles?
What are the air to ground missiles? AGM-154 JSOW, AGM-65 Maverick, AGM-84, AGM-84D, AGM-84E, AGM-84H, AGM-88 HARM
What type of gun is used in the legacy? M61A1
What type of gun is used in the super? M61A2
What are the rates of fire of the 20mm gun? High: 6,000 rpm Low: 4,000 rpm
What does the Stores Management System(SMS) provide? Electrical interface between the weapon stations,aircraft switching, and related aircraft systems and consists of an armament control processor also known as the stores management processor and up to 9 signal date converter-controls.
What missiles does the CLC control? The HARM.
What is the purpose of the Countermeasures Dispensing System? (AN/ALE-39 or 47) Provides aircraft protection in sophisticated threat environments. Protection is provided by ejoection of chaffs, flares, RF Expendables and other payloads.
What is the AN/ALE-50? A towed active RF decoy system which provides off-board countermeasures capability.
What are pyrotechnics used for? Signaling, marking, and search and rescue. They can be used to determine wind fire, approximate velocity, mark the location for emergency night landings, establish initial contact point for submarines and locate anti submarine warfare.
What is the objective of the Egress System Checkiut Certification Program? To thoroughly familiarize personnel working in and around the cockpit with ejection seats and the special hazards associated with those systems.
How often is a new seat check out required? Every 6 months of 90 days TAD.
What is Hypoxia? A decrease in the amount of oxygen causing a decrease in the amount of oxygen in the bloodstream and eyes body and muscle failure.
What is Anoxia? Death due to complete lack of oxygen.
What precautions should be observed before entering the cockpit? Ensure seat ejection safety pins are installed and handle is in the safe position and the canopy jettison pin is installed.
When should the canopy be manually opened? Below 0 degrees Fahrenheit
What are the two types of Aviators Breathing Oxygen(ABO)? Type 1: Gaseous Type 2: LOX
Describe LOX. 99.5% pure oxygen that exists as a liquid at atmospheric pressure, at -182.97 degrees Celsius. It is -297 degrees Fahrenheit. Expansion ratio of 862:1. 12,000psi.
What is the safe distance to permit smoking from LOX handling area? 50ft.
What are the minimum requirements for aircrew PPE? Flight suit, aviator boots, anti-g garment, helmet, survival radio/beacon, gloves, anti-exposure suit, ID tags, knife, personal survival kit, signal device, flashlight, life preserver, laser eye protection.
Describe the oxygen mask. For use with a regulator, provides breathing gas upon demand at a pressure schedule dependent upon altitude. Also provides facial protection from projectiles and fire as well as being qualified for depths of 16ft under water.
Describe the LPU-36/P Life Preserver. Low profile flotation collar equipped with the FLU-8B/P automatic/manual inflation assembly. For use only in aircraft equipped with the ejection seat system.
Describe the Anti-G suit.
Anti-g suit Consists of a bladder system encases in a fire resistant cloth. As g-force increases, the bladder automatically inflates to apply pressure to the body to restrict the downward flow of blood to lessen the effects of blackout.
Describe the Parachute Harness Sensing Release Unit(PHSRU) Sea water activated release system that provides a backup automatic mode of separating the parachute from aircrew.
Describe the Helment Mounted Display Unit(HDU). Uses miniature display components, which allow symbology to be projected onto the visor and superimposed in the operators view. Also provides an real-world view by routing the video to the CVRS.
What is he purpose of the ejection seat? To provide aircrew a place to sit and for propelling occupant out during emergency conditions.
What type of ejection seat is used? SJU-17A/V2A.
Describe the ejection seat system. Operated by ballistic gas pressure when the handle is pulled. Each initiator has two cartridges L/R. Gases from the right cartridge start canopy jettison, seat electronic sequencer,restraints, fires seat catapult. Left redundantly actives everything.
Where is the emergency oxygen system located? In the seat pan.
How is the emergency oxygen system activated? Automatically activated during ejection by a lanyard connected to the cockpit floor.
How is the canopy system operated? Pyrotechnically during emergency jettison.
Describe the ECS system. Provides air supply, thermal control, and cabin pressurization. Air is supplied to the ECS system by being bled from the compressor.
What are the 12 subsystems of the ECS system. Bleed air control, bleed air leak detection, air cycle conditioning, cabin cooling and defog, avionics cooking, cabin pressurization, anti-g/vent suit, OBOGS, windshield anti ice and rain removal, radar liquid cooling, canopy seal, wave guide pressurizati
What does the bleed air system consist of? Clamped, insulated metal ducts of many sizes and shapes which connect system control valves and sensors.
What does the bleed air system provide air to? ECS, OBOGS, and external fuel tank pressurization.
Describe the Anti- G system? Made up of tubes MY and a valve which delivers regulated air pressure to the pilots anti-g suit which reduces the fatiguing effects of exposure.
Describe the OBOGS System. A series of lines, valves and a concentrator that regulate pressure, control flow and distribute oxygen to the crew station. Nitrogen and contaminants are removed and vented overboard.
What does the fire detection system do? Monitors APU, AMAD and engine bays for fires or overheat conditions. Provides pilot with audio and visual warnings.
How does the fire extinguishing system work? Uses a single fire extinguisher tank with three distribution lines, 1 for APU, 1 for each engine/AMAD bays. One shot one bay system.
What does the Dry Bay Fire Suppression System(DBFSS) do? Installed in E/F only. Suppresses fire events associated with ballistic damage to the aircraft before significant fire occurs. Performs without pilot action. 14 optical detectors, 6 dry bay extinguishers and a fire suppression control alarm.
What is SEAD? Suppression of Enemy Air Defenses. Function is to destroy, neutralize or temporarily degrade the enemy air defenses(SAMs) via physical attack of electronic warfare.
What is WAS? War At Sea. Objective is to destroy the enemy's naval vessels and amphibious forces.
What is CAS? Close Air Support. Precisely delivers various munitions at a set time to enemy forces in close proximity to friendly forces.
What is MAS? Maritime Air Superiority. Dominance in the air battle and maintaining the airspace around a battle group.
What is ACM? Air Combat Maneuvering. The art of maneuvering a combat aircraft in order to attain a position from which an attack can be made on another aircraft. AKA dog fighting.
What is CAP? Combat Air Patrol. And aircraft patrol provided over an objective area, force protected, critical area of combat zone or over an air defense area for the purpose of intercepting and destroying hostile aircraft before the reach their target.
What is a FCF? Functional Check Flight. Determines whether and aircraft airframe, engine, accessories or equipment is functioning according to established standards. Four types; A, B, C and D.
What is FCLP? Field Carrier Landing Practice. Aircraft practices to simulate carrier landings.
What is VMC? Visual Meteorological Conditions. Those in which VFR is permitted or expressed in terms of ceiling height, aircraft clearance from clouds, and conditions in which pilots have sufficient visibility.
What is IMC? Instrument Meteorological Conditions. "Blind Flying". Weather conditions that normally require pilots to fly primarily by reference to instruments. Describes the actual weather conditions.
What is VFR? Visual Flight Rules. Rules that govern the procedures for conducting flight under visual conditions.
What is IFR? Instrument Flight Rules. Rules for governing the procedures for conducting instrument flight.
What is the CATCC? Carrier Air Traffic Control Center. Maintains primary control of airborne aircraft operating from the carrier and is responsible for the status and upkeep of all carrier air operations.
What is the FLOLS? Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System. Provides the pilot with visual indication of his/her relative position with respect to a prescribed glide slope.
What is MOVLAS? Manually Operated Visual Landing Aid System. Emergency signaling system that is intended to be used when the primary optical landing system is rendered inoperable. Also used for training pilots/LSO.
What are the three installation modes aboard a ship? Station 1(immediately in front of FLOLS). Station 2&3 are independent of FLOLS. Located on port and starboard sides.
What is AAW? Anti-Air Warfare. The detection, tracking, destruction or neutralization of enemy air platforms and airborne weapons.
What is AMW? Amphibious Warfare. Attacks launched from the sea by naval forces and by landing forces embarked in ships of craft designed to achieve a shore presence in a littoral zone.
What is CCC? Command, Control and Communications. Providing communications and related facilities for coordination and control of external or organizations or forces.
What is MIW? Mine Warfare. The use of mines for control/ denial of sea or harbor areas and mine countermeasures over, under, or upon the surface.
What is MOB? Mobility. The ability of naval forces to maneuver and maintain themselves in all situations over, under or upon the surface.
What is NCO? Non-Combat Operations. Selected operations of a noncombatant nature not clearly categorized in any other Warfare mission area.
What is STW? Strike Warfare. The destruction or neutralization of enemy targets ashore through the use of conventional or nuclear weapons.
Who is the CNO? ADM. John Richardson.
Who is the MCPON? MC Giordano
Who is the SECDEF? Ashton Carter
Who is the SECNAV? Ray Mabus
What are the three objectives of first aid? To prevent further injury, infection and the loss of life.
What are the four methods of controlling bleeding? Direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, tourniquet.
What is a pressure point? Where a main artery lies near the skins surface over a bone.
What are the 11 pressure points? Temple, jaw, neck, collar bone, inner upper arm, inner elbow, wrist, upper thigh, groin, knee, ankle.
Describe a first degree burn. Produces redness, warmth and mild pain.
Describe a second degree burn. Causes red blistered skin and sever pain.
Describe a third degree burn. Destroys tissue, skin and bone. Pain may be absent due to nerve endings being damaged.
What are the two types of fractures? Closed/simple, open/compound
What is electric shock? When a person comes into contact with an electric source, shock occurs.
What are the indications of an obstructed airway? Inability to talk, grasping throat, exaggerated breathing efforts and the skin turning a blueish color.
What is heat exhaustion? A disturbance of blood flow to the brain
What are the symptoms of heat exhaustion? The skin is cool, moist and clammy and the pupils are dilated. Body temperature may be normal or high and victim will be sweating profusely.
What is heat stroke? A breakdown of the sweating mechanism.
What are the symptoms of a heat stroke? Hot/dry skin, uneven pupil dilation and a weak, rapid pulse.
What are the three types of cold weather injuries? Hypothermia, superficial frostbite and deep frostbite.
What is septic shock? Results from bacteria multiplying in the blood and releasing toxins.
What is anaphylactic shock? Hypersensitivity of allergic reaction.
What is cardiogenic shock? When the heart is damaged and unable to supply sufficient blood to the body.
What is hypovolemic shock? Caused by severe blood and fluid loss from traumatic injury.
What is neurogenic shock? Caused by spinal cord injury.
What is CPR? Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation. A combination of rescue breathing and chest compressions.
What are the steps for CPR? Circulation, Airway, Breathing.
Who should rescuers be certified by? American Heart Association or American Red Cross.
What are the steps to the survival chain? Recognition/activation of CPR, chest compressions, AED/Defibrillator, rapid defibrillation, effective advanced life support, integrated post-cardiac arrest care.
What is ORM? A synthetic, decision making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources.
What is the ORM process? Identify hazards, Assess Hazards, Make Risk Decisions, Implement Controls, Supervise.
Describe a Class A mishap. Total cost of material property damage is $2,000,000 or more. Injury or occupational illness results in a fatality or permanent total disability.
Describe a Class B mishap. Total cost of material property damage is $500,000 or more. An injury or occupational illness results in permanent or partial disability. Three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized.
Describe a Class C mishap. Total cost of material property damage is $50,000 or more. Non-fatal injury that causes any loss of time beyond the day or shift, 5 or more work days.
What types of PPE are utilized by naval Aviation? Cranials, eye protection, hearing protection, impact protection, gloves, foot protection.
What is Chemical Warfare? The employment of chemical agents that are intended for use in military operations to kills, seriously injure or incapacitate personnel due to their physiological effect.
What are Nerve agents? Liquid casualty agents that disrupt nerve impulses to the body while damaging body functions rather than tissue.
What are blister agents? Liquid or solid casualty agents that can cause inflammation, blisters and general destruction of tissues which often results in temporary blindness and or death.
What are blood agents? Gaseous casualty agents that attack the enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood stream. Rapid breathing or choking may occur due to lack of oxygen.
What are choking agents? Gaseous or liquid casualty agents with initial symptoms that include; tears, dry throat, nausea, vomiting, and headache.
What is M9 Chemical Detector Paper? It detects the presence of liquid chemical agents by turning a red or reddish color, it does not detect vapor.
What is Atropine/2-PAM-Chloride Auto Injector? Uses as a specific therapy for nerve agent casualties, they are issued for intramuscular injection, self-aid or first aid.
What is biological warfare? The use of agents to cause disease, sickness or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces.
What are the two types of biological agents? Pathogens and toxins.
What does the IPE for Chemical/Biological agents consist of? Protective mask MCU-2P with components (C-2 canister filters), advanced chemical protective garment(ACPG), chemical protective gloves and liners, chemical protective overboots and laces, skin decontamination kit.
What is Radiological Warfare? The deliberate use of radiological weapons to produce widespread injury and death to all life.
What are the types of nuclear explosions? High altitude air burst, air burst, surface burst, shallow water burst, deep water burst.
Describe a ready shelter. Just inside the weather envelope, with access to deep shelter and provides minimum shielding from nuclear radiation and allows crew to remain close to battle stations.
Describe a deep shelter. Low in the ship near the centerline, provides maximum shielding from nuclear radiation often requiring personnel to be far away from battle station.
What is the DT-60 Dosimeter? Used to determine the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer is exposed in the 0-600 roentgens.
What does MOPP stand for? Mission Oriented Protective Posture.
What is MOPP level 0? Issue IPE, accessible within 5 minutes.
What is MOPP level 1? Afloat: JSLIST, mask, gloves readily accessible. Ashore: Don protective equipment, M9 tape.
What is MOPP level 2? Afloat: Mask carried, DECON supplies staged. Ashore: Additional to level 1, don protective over boots.
What is MOPP level 3? Afloat: GQ, install filters,don over boots. Ashore: Fill canteens, activate DECON stations.
What is MOPP level 4? Afloat: Don mask/hood, gloves, Circle William, countermeasure washdown. Ashore: Gloves with liners, untie bow in retention cord, loops between legs and secure to web belt.
What is the primary duty of a firefighter? To save lives.
What is the secondary responsibility of a firefighter? To extinguish fires and limit damage to aircraft, shipboard, airfield installed equipment and or airfield structures.
What are the components of the fire tetrahedron? Oxygen, fuel, temperature, uninhibited chain reaction of combustion process.
Describe a Class A fire. Combustible materials that produce ash. Effective extinguishing agents are water or AFFF.
Describe a Class B fire. Flammable liquid substances. Effective extinguishing agents are AFFF, halon, PKP, and CO2
Describe a Class C fire. Energized electrical fires. Effective extinguishing agents are CO2, halon, PKP, H2O. De-energized extinguishing agents are same as Class A, B and D.
Describe a Class D fire. Combustible metals. Effective extinguishing agents are H20 in high velocity fog patterns behind a shelter.
What is AFFF? Liquid concentrate that consists of synthetic fluorocarbon surfactant materials. It is non corrosive and has unlimited shelf life. 3% and 6% are approved for naval use. 6% is for shipboard equipment.
What is H2O? Not A suitable agent for use in combating large aircraft fires without the addition of foam or surfactant agents. It has the ability to cool the aircraft fuselage and provide a heat shiel for personnel. It's also effective at cooling ordnance &batteries
What is Halon 1211? For use on Class B fires and is effective on A fires as well. It's colorless, faintly sweet smelling electrically nonconductive gas that leaves no residue to clean up. Inhibits the chain reaction process.
What is Carbon Dioxide? A colorless odorless gas used to extinguish fires
Created by: JGasser7