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2AX5X Vol. 1

Self Test Question Part 2

QuestionAnswer
1. What’s the primary function of powered AGE? Provides an auxiliary means of external power without operating the aircraft engines, APU (if equipped), or internal systems to support maintenance activities.
2. What happens to the waste product when the SGNSC separates the nitrogen from the air?(017) It becomes enriched with oxygen (about 33% oxygen).
3. What is the purpose of the MC-1A air compressor?(017) Provide high- or low-pressure, clean, dry air for servicing aircraft pneumatic systems, hydraulic accumulators, oleo struts, and tires.
4. How much compressed air is the MC-2A air compressor capable of producing?(017) 15 cfm up to 200 psi.
5. How is heat increased or decreased on the H-1 heater?(017) By allowing more or less fuel to enter the burner section.
6. How is heating accomplished on the NGH?(017) By a 60 Hz alternator that powers a separate oil burner and combustion blower.
7. What is the temperature range of conditioned air provided by the C-10 air conditioner?(017) 47 °F – 200 °F.
8. From where does the C-10 receive its source of air?(017) Hot bleed air from a gas turbine compressor.
9. What’s the electrical power output of the A/M32A-86 generator?(017) 115/200-volt, 400 Hz , 3-phase.
10. How much air is the A/M32A-60 capable of producing?(017) Approximately 150 pounds of air per minute at 50 psi.
11. What source of power is used to start the A/M32A-95 generator?(017) Nickel-cadmium battery, or two 12-volt gel pack batteries.
12. How much electrical power can the FL-1D trailer-mounted floodlight produce?(017) 120 VAC, 60 Hz.
13. How high can the mast on the FL-1D trailer-mounted floodlight be raised?(017) 12 ft.
14. How is power supplied to the MK-3A-3?(017) By a 93 hp, 440-volt, 3-phase, 60-cycle, 1,760 rpm electric motor.
15. How is the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand driven?(017) By a diesel engine.
16. How are the hydraulic systems designated on the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand?(017) Primary and secondary
17. What’s the primary function of a tow vehicle?(017) Towing and parking large aircraft.
18. What is the adjustable height and lift capacity of the electric, split deck maintenance platform?(017) An adjustable height from 6.7 feet to 36 feet and a lift capacity of 2,000 pounds.
1. What TO covers aircraft hardware? (018) 1-1A-8.
2. The size of a bolt is stated in what terms?1. What TO covers aircraft hardware? (018) Length, diameter, and threads per inch.
3. Define the grip length of a bolt.1. What TO covers aircraft hardware? (018) Unthreaded portion.
4. What type of bolt is available with thin heads for use in tight places?(018) Hexhead
5. What kind of bolt is used where shearing or sideways stress occurs?(018) Clevis.
6. What special-purpose bolt is used where external tension loads are applied?(018) Eyebolt
7. What feature distinguishes the internal wrenching bolt from other bolts?(018) The head is recessed.
8. List three kinds of nonself-locking nuts.(018) Any three of the following: (1) Plain. (2) Check. 3) Castle. (4) Wing.
9. List two uses for plain washers.(018) (1) Provide smooth bearing surface(2) Act as shims in obtaining correct relationship between threads of the bolt and nut(3) Adjust the portion of castellated nuts with respect to drilled cotter pin holes (4) Under lockwashers to prevent damage to surfaces
10. How are screws usually described?(018) According to the shape of the head.
11. What type of rivet is usually used for fastening aircraft structures?(018) Common, solid shank.
12. What type of aircraft fastener is not designed to carry a structural load?(018) Quick-release.
13. How is a cable size determined?(018) By the diameter of the cable.
14. Why are some cables coated with a nylon jacket?(018) To increase the service life of the cable by keeping lubricants in and dirt out and dampening vibration.
15. What is the purpose of a turnbuckle?(018) To adjust tension on aircraft cables.
16. Pulleys are made of what?(018) Typically molded or machined phenolic of light alloy metal such as aluminum.
17. What keeps cables from coming in contact with structural parts of the aircraft?(018) Fairleads.
18. What’s the purpose of a pressure seal?(018) To prevent the loss of pressure from pressurized areas through which cables pass.
19. What units are used to transmit motion about an axis and to change the direction of force of a cable or push-pull rod? (018) Quadrants and bellcranks.
20. What is a control rod?(018) A rigid rod that transmits push and pull motions.
21. What devices limit the movement of a control surface?(018) Stops.
22. Where are torque tubes used in flight control systems?(018) Where they’re needed to transmit a twisting force.
23. How are aluminum alloy and stainless steel tubing easily distinguished?(018) By their different metallic luster; aluminum alloy tubing may be stamped with the actual alloy designation.
24. Where is aluminum-alloy tubing commonly used?(018) As a return line.
25. Why is stainless steel tubing preferred on external brake lines and other exposed system lines?(018) To prevent damage caused by flying gravel and stones and ground-handling accidents.
26. What color is an aluminum alloy tube fitting?(018) Blue.
27. Describe the color-code tape used in identifying hydraulic lines.(018) Blue band, a yellow band, and a white band overprinted with a row of black-bordered circles.
28. A system line is 38 inches long and passes through a bulkhead. The bulkhead divides the line so that 25 inches are on one side. How many bands of tape should the line have? (018) Three; one on the 13 inch section and two on the 25 inch section.
29. Before you install a tubing assembly, you should inspect it for what conditions? (018) Obstructions, dents, scratches, and damage to the flared end.
30. What can result from over-tightening a tubing nut? (018) Severe damage to the tubing flare or damage to the sleeve or nut of the fitting.
31. What information can be obtained from the markings on flexible hose? (018) The manufacturer’s code number or symbol marking, date of manufacture, size, and specification numbers.
32. What prevents chafing of a hose passing through a bulkhead? (018) Bulkhead-type grommets or cushion clips.
33. How should hose connections be made to an engine or engine-mounted accessories? (018) Install the hose so 1½ inches of slack or an adequate bend is provided between the last point of support and the attachment to the engine or accessory.
1. What safety-wire method is most commonly used? (019) Double-twist.
2. Using the double-twist method, how many closely spaced bolts can be safetied in a series? (019) No more than you can secure with a 24 inch length of wire.
3. When is 0.032 inch safety cable used to safety parts? (019) When parts have a nominal hole diameter of 0.075 inch or smaller.
4. What is a retaining ring? (019) A retaining ring is a fastener that holds components onto a shaft or in a housing/bore when installed in a groove.
5. Where are axially assembled retaining rings installed? (019) Installed into machined grooves in housings or on shafts.
6. How are beveled retaining rings held in place? (019) Beveled retaining rings feature a beveled or angled edge. This angle allows the ring to wedge itself between the groove and the retained part until it can go no farther, effectively “locking” everything in place.
7. When are spiral retaining rings used? (019) When there is little clearance between the housing and the part to be retained.
1. What parts of a Cannon plug ensure connector halves aren’t mismated? (020) A key and keyway arrangement in the barrel of the plug and receptacle.
2. AN-type Cannon plugs are being replaced with what type of plugs? (020) MS.
3. What TO provides information concerning connector repair?(020) 1-1A-14.
4. Why is aluminum foil not used as a cover for Cannon plugs? (020) May cause a short circuit.
5. Why should you not attempt to remove a Cannon plug’s insert from the shell? (020) It is permanently bonded and can’t be removed without destroying it.
1. What do torque wrenches measure? (021) The force of pull in pounds when tightening hardware; nuts, bolts, clamps, etc.
2. How do indicating-type torque wrenches display the applied torque? (021) By a pointer that moves over an indicating scale.
3. What type of torque wrench automatically releases when you apply a predetermined amount of torque? (021) Breakaway.
4. How much free travel does the breakaway torque wrench allow when the preset torque level is reached? (021) Approximately 5 to10 degrees.
5. What may happen if you over-tighten a component greater than the value set on a torque wrench?(021) It may cause internal damage to the torque wrench, it adds a higher torque value to the part, and part failure could occur.
6. What is the working range of a breakaway or indicating type torque wrench?(021) Not lower than 20 percent and not greater than the rated capacity of the torque wrench.
7. When torquing a bolt, to what should you set the torque value?(021) The upper limit of the specific torque value allowed by the TO.
8. When you’re using a torque wrench to tighten a series of nuts, do you tighten each nut to the specified torque before starting to torque the other nuts? Explain. (021) No; gradually tighten each until they all meet the specified torque and tighten the nuts opposite of each other in sequence.
9. Before storing a torque wrench, to what setting should you set the grip? Why? (021) Lowest; this removes tension from the spring in the handle and preserves the accuracy of the torque wrench.
10. Torque wrenches should have some kind of label (paper, tape, or other) on the handle. What information do you determine from this label before using the torque wrench? (021) The calibration date.
11. What do you do if you discover that a torque wrench is overdue calibration? (021) Don’t use it; turn it in for calibration.
12. What are the two stresses a fastener takes when tightened? (021) (1) Torsion, and (2) Tension.
13. Why is breakaway torque measured? (021) To ensure product integrity.
14. What is prevailing torque usually associated with? (021) Self-locking screws and nuts.
1. What is a multimeter? (022) A combined instrument consisting of an ammeter, voltmeter, and ohmmeter.
2. What is the major advantage of the Fluke multimeter?(022) The ability to take readings without having to look at the display at the same time as you are looking at the test leads.
3. How many input receptacles does the Fluke meter have?(022) Four.
4. What are the different Fluke meter modes of operation?(022) Range, relative, minimum/maximum, and hold-reset/MIN/MAX.
5. When does the Fluke meter perform a self-test?(022) Every time you turn the meter on.
6. Which measuring technique should you use for troubleshooting for a loose wire? (022) Continuity.
7. What should be done if the digital meter goes from OL to 0 when performing a continuity check? (022) Continue using it (this is the normal indication).
1. What is a feeler gauge? (023) A tool used to measure the gap between two parts.
2. What is incorporated into the feeler gauge case? (023) A locking screw.
3. What are three commonly used micrometers? (023) Outside micrometers, inside micrometers, depth micrometers.
4. What determines a micrometer’s “range”? (023) The longest movement possible between the spindle and anvil of the micrometer.
5. What do outside calipers measure? (023) Outside diameters.
6. How are simple calipers adjusted? (023) By pulling or pushing the legs to open or close them.
7. What are transfer calipers used for? (023) Measuring chamfered grooves or flanges.
8. How are slide calipers graduated? (023) Inches, fractions, or millimeters.
9. What is used on depth gauges as the reference surface or master standard from which measurements are taken? (023) The supporting block.
10. What must be done to the depth gauge before any measurements are taken? (023) You must zero the gauge before measuring any depth.
1. Whose responsibility is supply discipline? (024) All military and civilian employees, regardless of grade or position.
2. Why is it important to promptly process repairable items? (024) The repairable item is as important as a serviceable item, since the repairable item may be the only part available.
3. List some examples of bench stock items. (024) Nuts, bolts, cotter keys, washers, resistors, capacitors, light bulbs, sealants, and batteries.
4. How should operating stock be identified? (024) Clearly identify items as “Operating Stock” and label them with their noun, NSN or part number (if applicable), U/I, and shelf life, if applicable.
5. What is the basic purpose of a QRL? (024) To provide maintenance personnel with a speedy identification and communication capability for placing a demand on a supply.
6. What form is normally used to request parts/supplies? (024) AF Form 2005.
7. What form is used to request items that don’t have an NSN? (024) DD Form 1348.
8. What form is used as a control document whenever you loan a tool to another individual? (024) AF IMT 1297.
1. What is the primary objective of the repair cycle asset control system? (025) To bring about the economy of spares procurement through the effective management of assets.
2. When does base supply order a replacement DIFM item? (025) When it is determined the unserviceable item cannot be repaired on base, or the item is condemned.
3. What documents are used to control a DIFM item through the repair cycle? (025) DD Form 1348 and AFTO Form 350, Part II.
4. When shop action is complete, what form is used to tag the item for turn-in? (025) AFTO Form 350.
5. What are the two categories of supply-type items that require turn-in? (025) (1) Recoverable. (2) Consumable.
6. Unserviceable and scrap materiel should not be thrown out, but turned in to whom? (025) DRMO.
7. Which part of the AFTO Form 350 serves as a production-scheduling document? (025) Part II.
8. Which condition tags and labels are easily identified by their yellow margins and letters? (025) DD Forms 1574 and 1574-1.
1. What’s the purpose of deficiency reporting? (026) Establish a system to identify, report, and resolve deficiencies.
2. Which DR category, if uncorrected, would cause death, severe injury, or severe occupational illness? (026) CAT I.
3. What DR category identifies a potential enhancement? (026) CAT II.
4. What does the engine warranty program guarantee against? (026) Defects in AFMC workmanship.
5. You submit reports against the engine warranty program IAW what directive? (026) TO 00-35D-54.
1. What’s the purpose of the planned inspection and maintenance concept? (027) Provides a method of performing required inspections and repairs on a scheduled and controlled basis.
2. Name the two overall inspection concepts used at base level to inspect aircraft. PH and PE.
3. Which inspection is due upon the accrual of the number of flying hours or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable MDS-specific -6 technical order, and is more extensive in scope than the HPO inspection o PE.
4. What is the primary object of the PH inspection concept? (027) To reduce the amount of time an aircraft is out of commission from a normal flight schedule for any given inspection package.
5. Which inspection concept consists of the HSC, major, and minor inspections? (027) Isochronal.
6. Describe and briefly explain the use of the two primary aids of the planned inspection and maintenance concept. (027) (1) Inspection WCs outline minimum inspection requirements. (2) SCs depict a basic planned work schedule and sequence in which the inspection WCs can be used.
7. How are WCs sequenced? (027) In the most logical or practical order of accomplishment.
1. What TOs cover aircraft inspection concepts? (028) 00-20-1 and the aircraft -6 TO.
2. What inspection is performed to ensure that no serious defects or malfunctions exist? (028) PR
3. What inspection is performed just prior to takeoff? (028) EOR
4. What type of inspection is performed between flights? (028) TH
5. When is a BPO inspection performed? (028) After the last flight of the specified flying period.
6. If an aircraft is out of commission for more than 30 consecutive days, what minimum inspection is required before the aircraft is returned to operational status? (028) A BPO.
7. Who determines the additional requirements for a 90-day NO FLY calendar inspection? (028) MXG/CC.
8. Give three occasions when a special inspection may be required. (028) (1) After a specified number of flying/equipment hours. (2) Following the lapse of a specific calendar time. (3) After the occurrence of a specific or unusual event.
9. When is an acceptance inspection performed? (028) When an aircraft is newly assigned to an organization and on all aircraft and engines received from depot.
10. Under what two conditions must we comply with time replacement items? (028) (1) After accrual of a specific interval of time. (2) Following the occurrence of a specific or unusual condition.
1. Why do you make periodic checks of accountable equipment on aircraft? (029) To maintain control and serviceability of equipment.
2. Which form is used to transfer aircraft -21 equipment through transportation channels? (029) DD Form 1149.
3. What form is used to indicate the physical presence or absence of aircraft -21 equipment? (029) AF IMT 2691.
4. When aircraft -21 equipment is transferred with an aircraft, which form is used as a receipt document for the organization receiving the equipment? (029) AF IMT 2692.
1. When is a weight and balance update required? (030) Anytime a component weighs more than 5 pounds or causes more than a 0.1 percent change in CG is removed or installed.
2. Who updates the weight and balance? (030) QA personnel must update the aircraft weight and balance records to check and show the CG difference.
3. What is the DD Form 365-1; CHART A used for? (030) This form lists all equipment and other items that are or may be installed, and for which provisions or fixed stowage has been made in a definite location in the aircraft.
4. The DD Form 365-3; CHART C is used for what? (030) All changes to the aircraft basic weight and moment regardless of the size shall be recorded (typed or clearly written in ink) on the Chart C to keep it correct and up-to-date.
5. When is an aircraft in balance? (030) When all weight items in, on, or of the aircraft are distributed so that the longitudinal CG of the aircraft lies within a predetermined CG range.
6. What is the definition of arm? (030) The distance of a weight from a reference datum.
1. What is the definition of battle damage? (031) Damage sustained during combat operations.
2. What are the repair standards designed to do? (031) To last for the projected aircraft life, restore structural members to their original strength and return all aircraft system components to a like-new condition.
3. What are the three fundamental preparations of ABDR? (031) (1) Allowing the use of time-saving temporary repairs on certain types of damage. (2) Training maintenance personnel in the skills and techniques required to effect rapid repairs. (3) Provisioning the material necessary to accomplish rapid combat mainte
4. What has been a critical and decisive factor in successful military campaigns? (031) The ability to quickly return battle damaged weapon systems to combat.
5. Who accomplishes aircraft battle damage assessments? (031) Only fully qualified assessors from MAJCOM approved aircraft maintenance specialties.
1. What is corrosion? (032) The electrochemical deterioration of a metal due to its chemical reaction with the surrounding environment.
2. What happens to iron exposed to moist air? (032) Returns to its natural state––iron oxide or rust.
3.1) Produced by the effects of an alternating cyclic stress and corrosive environment. (032) g. Corrosion fatigue.
3.2) Numerous worm-like traces of corrosion beneath the paint film. (032) i. Filiform.
3.3) First seen as a general dulling of the surface. (032) a. Uniform surface.
3.4) Indicated by a lifting up or swelling the surface grains of a metal. (032) d. Exfoliation.
3.5) Resembles a white or gray powdery, dust-like deposit on the surface of the metal. (032) b. Pitting.
3.6) Occurs when different metals are in contact. (032) h. Galvanic.
3.7) Is a selective attack along a metal’s grain boundaries. (032) c. Intergranular.
3.8) Appears as corroded cracks in the metal. (032) f. Stress.
3.9) May occur when a foreign material covers a surface. (032) e. Crevice/concentration cell.
4. Which TO contains detailed instructions for corrosion prevention and treatment? (032) 1-1691-1
5. Corrosion is removed using what overall method or technique? (032) By the mildest effective technique.
1. The frequency of aircraft cleaning depends on what? The type of aircraft and the environmental conditions to which the aircraft is exposed.
2. What factors should be considered when selecting a cleaner? Type and amount of soil to be removed, material size and surface condition of the part, and degree of cleanliness required.
3. What is the most common type of solvent cleaner used on the aircraft? MIL-PRF-680, Type II.
4. What is the preferred type of cleaner for cleaning the interior cockpit, floor, and deck area? MIL-PRF-85570, Type II.
5. How do you clean optical glass? Spray the cleaner onto a flannel cloth, carefully wipe the lens surface, and then wipe dry with a clean flannel cloth.
6. What solution is used to treat areas affected with electrolyte from a nickel-cadmium battery? Bromothymol Blue.
7. What cleaning agent is used to clean light and moderate soils from the painted exterior of the aircraft? MIL-PRF-85570, Type I or Type II, or MIL-PRF-87937, Type II or IV.
8. What procedure do you use to clean landing gear’s exposed pistons? Clean with a clean cloth dampened with hydraulic fluid; wipe away from seals.
9. When outside temperatures are below 40 °F, where should the aircraft be cleaned? In an indoor heated wash rack.
10. What should you do if cleaner is splashed in your eyes? Rinse your eyes thoroughly with fresh water for 15 minutes and report to the nearest medical facility.
11. What are the purposes of lubrication? To prevent wear between moving parts, fill air spaces, displaces water, and provides a barrier against corrosive media.
12. What type of information is found on a lubrication chart? Items to be lubricated, type of lubricant, and method of application.
13. When can you apply a lubricant to a corroded surface? Never.
14. How do you properly lubricate all aircraft grease fittings? Force grease into fittings until new grease is evident.
15. In addition to your specific aircraft TO, where are safety and maintenance precautionary measures found? TO 1-1-691.
16. Since various hazardous materials are used during lubrication, what should be used at all times? PPE.
17. Why should you not wear rings, watches, or other metallic objects during cleaning/lubing your aircraft? Keep from getting caught in moving parts.
Created by: Aaron_Fahr