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CDC

Vol 3

QuestionAnswer
Where does an in-processing member first report? 402-1 customer support element
What is the primary document used to record the marriage of a military couple? 408-2 The AF IMT 1048,
What is the amount of spouse coverage under FGLI? 409-4 cannot exceed the amount of coverage held by the member, or $100,000, whichever is less.
By law, who is the sole beneficiary for FSGLI coverage? 409-5 military member.
What are the casualty services program objectives? 410-1 track all casualty reports and notifications in accordance with procedures set by HQ AFPC; reports casualties; ensures timely notification ; and provides compassionate assistance until all claims and personal affairs are settled.
What will the CAR send, email, or fax to HQ AFPC? 410-3 The original AF IMT 1075 listing MPS personnel responsible for casualty standby duties, whenever a change occurs and annually on 1 October to HQ AFPC/DPFCS.
When all family members have been notified, what information will the CAR provide the mortuary service officer and the PA office? 410-4 Member’s name and rank, age, home or record, race and religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges.
What is DCIPS-Forward designed for? 210-6 for casualty and mortuary affairs information processes to assist MPS, CARs, and PERSCO team members.
Who does the AFBCMR consists of? 412-1 of civilians in the executive part of the Department of the Air Force who are appointed and serves at the pleasure of the SECAF.
How long do you have to file a correction to military records? 412-4 applicants must file an application within three years after the error or injustice was discovered or with due diligence, should have been discovered.
All personnel are required to maintain what type of confidentiality? 413-3 The identity of individual survey respondents
Who appoints a survey control officer? 413-4 MPS chief.
What was the enlisted assignment preference web-based self-service process designed to do? 414-1 To allow members to apply for normal reassignments to the CONUS and OS areas.
How are assignment selections made for SMSgt and below? 414-3 are computer generated; however, an AFPC Assignment NCO and or functional manager reviews each action to ensure validity and equity
A request for humanitarian reassignment or deferment is considered based on what? 416-2 based on individual merit taking into account the human factors involved, the applicant’s skills and length of service, and manning priorities and requirements.
What must a member, desiring humanitarian deferment, formally submit? 416-6 within 30 calendar days from PCS reassignment notification, nomination to HQ AFPC or MAJCOM, or selection for TDY in excess of 30 calendar days
OPA interfaces with what systems? 417-4 MilPDS, vOP, PSOW and ARMS.
What does dependent travel to a designated place with an approved overseas follow-on assignment allow an Airman to do? 418-4 to apply to relocate their dependents to an OCONUS or non-foreign OCONUS location (the Airman’s follow-on location) while the Airman is serving the dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour
What does dependent travel to a designated place without a follow-on assignment allow an Airman to do? 418-5 to relocate their dependents to a non-foreign OCONUS location while the Airman is serving a short, dependent restricted overseas or unaccompanied overseas tour.
When does an officer or an enlisted member have the opportunity to separate 419-1 has completed their active duty service obligation or an enlisted member has completed their enlistment.
What must officers do before they apply for separation? 419-2 meet with their immediate CC or supervisor before applying for separation to schedule the separation and consider their preference and interests of the Air Force.
A separating member may be subject to recoupment for what reasons? 419-3 They may be subject to recoupment or a portion of education assistance, special pay, or bonuses received if they leave active duty before completing the period of active duty they agreed to serve.
What characterization will an Airman receive if separated at ETS? 419-4 will be characterized as honorable.
How soon can a member apply for retirement? 420-2 NET 12 months before the requested retirement effective date and NLT 120 days to include the number of days of terminal leave and permissive TDY requested.
Who administers the officer promotion program? 421-1 The SECAF administers the promotion program through the Chief of Staff, USAF, and the Deputy Chief of Staff of Personnel (AF/A1).
Who issues written instructions to officer selection boards? 421-2 The SECAF issues written instructions to selection boards as well establishes competitive categories, promotion zones, eligibility and selection criteria, promotion opportunity and selection rates.
Who implements the promotion program approved by the SECAF through a fair and equitable process? 421-3 HQ AFPC.
What requirements must an A1C meet to be eligible for promotion to SrA? 421-5 must be recommended by their CC in writing; have 36 months TIS and 20 months TIG or 28 months TIG, whichever occurs first.
Who determines CBB nomination and board process? 421-6 The host wing CC.
What requirements are eliminated by the EPROM release? 421-7 Eliminates the delay some members experience when trying to determine their select/non-select status, and the requirement for any advance notification.
CCs need not use administrative demotions when what is more appropriate? 422-1 When it is more appropriate to take actions specified by UCMJ
When should CCs begin administrative demotion actions? 422-2 During the term of enlistment when the reason for the action occurred, except when the CC is not aware of the facts and circumstances until after the term of enlistment expires
What type of documentation should the CC maintain on demotions? 422-4 Supporting documentation of all rehabilitation and probationary actions.
What database is used to support WAPS? 423-2 The promotion file.
This promotion database is an extract of what system? 423-3 The MilPDS master personnel file.
Who controls promotions for Amn through SrA? 423-4 MPS, career development element.
What role does HQ AFPC/DPSOE perform during the SNCO and WAPS process? 423-5 HQ AFPC/DPSOE announces processing instructions using the PSDM prior to the PECD for each cycle.
The WAPS program uses an integrated subsystem of MilPDS called the promotion file, what is it used for? 423-6 Used as a guideline to determine promotion eligibility status and to maintain personnel data and testing results for promotion selections.
What is the objective of the selective reenlistment program? 424-1 To ensure the Air Force retains only Airmen who consistently demonstrate the capability and willingness to maintain high professional standards
What Airmen receive SRP consideration? 424-2 Only reenlistment eligible Airmen..
When are career Airmen that complete 20 years TAFMS eligible for SRP consideration? 424-3 They receive consideration when they’re within 13 months of their original ETS and during any extension of their current enlistment.
When do supervisors and CCs use the AF IMT 418? 424-5 Airmen are initially considered and nonselected; airmen were initially ineligible for SRP consideration; determining reconsideration of previous selection or nonselection decisions; airmen require early SRP consideration.
What form(s) must be verified to ensure member is eligible to receive an IEB? 425-2 The AF IMT 3008 and or AF IMT 3009.
Who reserves the authority to approve extensions of enlistment under certain conditions? 426-1 HQ AFPC.
Who may approve or disapprove extension or extension cancellation requests? 426-2 MPS Chiefs or their designated representatives
Designated representatives assigned to the MPSs or GSU personnel functions must possess what grade? 426-3 Designated representatives must be assigned to the MPSs or GSU personnel functions, and possess the grade of TSgt, GS-6, or higher.
What action will occur if a NCS Airman chooses to remain on active duty? 426-5 will be extended for one 24-month period under Rule 28.
MPS will not approve extensions request for what purpose(s)? 426-6 Personal convenience or monetary advantage; increasing bonus entitlement; providing additional time to make a career decision or deferring separation to coincide with civilian plans; applying for a CJR or requesting retraining
The TAFMSD is a computation of what? 427-1 Computation includes all periods of active federal military service in commissioned, warrant, flight officer, or enlisted status.
What is the 1405 date? 427-2 A service retirement pay multiplier that affects enlisted or officers with 18 or more years of active military service
The DIEUS is a service from what date(s)? 427-3 A service from the date of initial acceptance of commission, appointment, or enlistment in any branch of the Armed Forces (regular or Reserve; active or inactive).
How is the DOR computed for lost time? 427-4 Compute the actual number of days lost in that grade on a day-for-day basis
How is the EAD date computed? 427-5 By using the time from the date the member entered on current tour of AD (regular or reserve), backdated by the amount of time served on AD (commissioned or enlisted) without a break in AD
What does an ADSC ensure the Air Force and taxpayers? 428-1 Ensures the Air Force and taxpayers receive an appropriate return for their investment in training and education,(including training not provided by the Air Force
What grades incur an ADSC when they complete all or a portion of an ADSC-incurring event? 428-3 Officers in the grades of colonel and below and all enlisted personnel incur an ADSC when they complete all or a portion of an ADSC-incurring event, or if they should become retirement eligible during or prior to the event.
When is the CSB election effective? 429-4 The date the Airman reaches 15 years of service, or the date the election is accepted and received by AFPC/DPSOR, whichever is later
What form is completed in order to apply for CSB? 429-6 Complete the individual notification memorandum (referred to as RIP) and DD form 2839 in order to apply for the CSB
What should all PRP positions be formally designated as? 430-4 As either critical or controlled and restricted to the minimum number required to accomplish the mission.
When can a CO or RO request reinstatement of a member’s PRP certification or requalification? 430-7 for member permanently decertified/disqualified provided the reason or condition of the permanent decertification or ineligibility no longer exists. Do the
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