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Culinary 2 Final

1. What is the natural form of sugar found in fruits? a. Lactose b. Sucrose c. Fructose d. Galactose C
2. Fruits that have a central pit enclosing a single seed are known as a. drupes. b. coulis. c. crudités. d. compote. A
3. Which type of fruit is a grape? a. Spring b. Winter c. Summer d. Tropical C
4. Honeydew and Crenshaw are varieties of a. plum. b. peach. c. melon. d. cherry. C
5. Bosc and d’Anjou are varieties of a. pear. b. apple. c. peach. d. berry. A
6. Which type of fruit is an apple? a. Spring b. Winter c. Summer d. Tropical B
7. Rome and Granny Smith are varieties of a. pear. b. apple. c. peach. d. melon. B
8. Citrus fruits are abundant in vitamin a. A. b. B. c. C. d. D. C
9. Which type of fruit is a banana? a. Spring b. Winter c. Summer d. Tropical D
10. Red Spanish and Cayenne are varieties of a. mango. b. papaya. c. coconut. d. pineapple. D
11. Moisture is a sign of good-quality blueberries. FALSE
12. Orange drupes include peaches, nectarines, and apricots. TRUE
13. What does it mean when canned products are rated U.S. Grade A Fancy? a. They are of the lowest quality. b. They are of average quality. c. They are of the highest quality. d. They are of the fanciest quality.. C
14. Many ripe fruits, except bananas, can be stored at 41°F or higher. FALSE
15. What happens when some fruits emit ethylene gas? a. They are dangerous to eat. b. They must be thrown out. c. They cause other fruits to ripen. d. They easily absorb odors from other fruits. C
16. Fruits that need to ripen should be stored at room temperatures of a. 45°F to 50°F. b. 55°F to 60°F. c. 65°F to 70°F. d. 75°F to 80°F. C
17. Before serving any fruit—raw or cooked—the fruit must be a. zested. b. sliced. c. peeled. d. cleaned. D
18. Acids cause cells to break down more quickly, making the fruit soft. FALSE
19. What is the chemical process that occurs when oxygen in the air comes in contact with the flesh of cut fruit? a. Aquaculture b. Polyphenoloxidase c. Enzymatic browning d. Hydroponic farming C
20. What helps fruits retain their structure when cooking? a. Acid b. Salt c. Sugar d. Alkali A
21. To keep fresh fruit from turning brown, coat it with a. water. b. sugar. c. honey. d. lemon juice. D
22. In which cooking method is fruit cooked in simmering liquid? a. Baking b. Grilling c. Broiling d. Poaching D
23. Sticks or pieces of raw vegetables served with a dipping sauce are called a. coulis. b. crudités. c. tempura. d. guacamole. B
24. Which cooking method is used to make tempura vegetables? a. Baking b. Poaching c. Sautéing d. Deep-frying D
25. Which class of vegetables includes broccoli and cauliflower? a. Seed b. Stem c. Fruit d. Flower D
26. Which vegetable classification is an avocado? a. Seed b. Fruit c. Tuber d. Flower B
27. Which vegetable is used to make guacamole? a. Zucchini b. Eggplant c. Avocado d. Artichoke C
28. Black Beauty and Japanese are varieties of a. avocado. b. eggplant. c. winter squash. d. bell pepper. B
29. For which type of cooking method are large green tomatoes best suited? a. Frying b. Baking c. Broiling d. Steaming A
30. Bibb and romaine are varieties of a. spinach. b. lettuce. c. swiss chard. d. mustard greens. B
31. Which type of vegetable is corn? a. Seed b. Stem c. Tuber d. Flower A
32. A sugar snap is a variety of a. pea. b. bean. c. corn. d. tomato. A
33. Which type of vegetable is a turnip? a. Stem b. Seed c. Root d. Fruit C
34. Haricot verts is a variety of a. pea. b. bean. c. radish. d. tomato. B
35. Which type of vegetable is a carrot? a. Stem b. Seed c. Fruit d. Tuber D
36. Bermuda and pearl are varieties of a. beet. b. leek. c. onion. d. scallion. C
37. Which type of vegetable is a mushroom? a. Seed b. Stem c. Root d. Flower B
38. Vegetables are grown indoors year-round, under regulated temperatures and light, in nutrient enriched water through a. aquaculture. b. enzymatic browning. c. ethylene gas farming. d. hydroponic farming. D
39. How long should fresh produce be kept? a. 1 day b. 4 days c. 1 week d. 2 weeks B
40. When storing roots and tubers, remove their leafy tops. TRUE
41. Cutting a product into cubes with a chef’s knife is called a. dicing. b. slicing. c. mincing. d. chopping. A
42. Which cutting technique is commonly used on smaller foods, such as garlic and herbs? a. Dicing b. Slicing c. Mincing d. Chopping C
43. Cooks can tell whether a vegetable is done cooking by the vegetable’s appearance and its a. texture. b. time cooked. c. cooking method. d. presentation style. A
44. Which cooking method quickly and partially cooks a vegetable in water or oil? a. Baking b. Boiling c. Blanching d. Braising C
45. Which cooking method cooks food in a hot or moderate oven with little or no additional liquid added? a. Baking b. Broiling c. Sautéing d. Blanching A
46. One of the responsibilities of a host is keeping track of the waiting list. TRUE
47. Which of these foodservice employees is in charge of greeting the customers? a. host c. server b. busser d. cashier A
48. The server is not responsible for handling the payment for the meal. FALSE
49. Which of these employees acts as the sales staff for the food service operation? a. host c. cashier b. server d. busser B
50. Dishes should not be moved from the table until all customers have finished eating. TRUE
51. Which of these employees keeps the service station stocked with supplies? a. server c. cashier b. busser d. host B
52. A server can argue with the customer when the server is certain the customer is wrong. FALSE
53. Which of these is not an important service skill? a. positive attitude c. neat and clean appearance b. knife skills d. good communication skills B
54. If you are a server and you have a fever, a cold, or are vomiting, what should you do? a. Continue working. c. Switch positions with a busser. b. Stay home from work. d. Switch positions with a host. B
55. You should not chew gum while serving customers. TRUE
56. Which is okay to do while serving customers? a. chew gum c. eat b. laugh d. drink B
57. How often should dispensers for tea, milk, or juice be cleaned and sanitized? a. hourly c. weekly b. daily d. monthly B
58. What type of beverage is made by forcing hot water and steam through finely ground coffee beans? a. coffee c. espresso b. cappuccino d. tea C
59. Espresso machines can produce up to eight cups of espresso at a time. FALSE
60. The recommended proportion of coffee to water is one pound of coffee for each gallon of water. FALSE
61. How full should an espresso cup be filled? a. entirely full c. 2/3 full b. 1/2 full d. 1/3 full D
62. How long should you infuse tea for? a. 30 seconds c. 2-4 minutes b. 1-2 minutes d. 5 minutes C
63. What is an individual place setting at a table called? a. placemat c. seat b. setup d. cover D
64. When serving cold beverages, the tallest and heaviest glasses should be kept near the rim of the tray. FALSE
65. You should wait until the beverage has been completely consumed before asking a customer if he or she would like another one. FALSE
66. Which of these utensils should you place a water glass above? a. spoon c. butter knife b. fork d. entrée knife D
67. When taking an order, you should take one customer’s complete order and confirm it with that customer before moving on to the next order. TRUE
68. Which is an example of an open-ended question? a. What can I get you to drink? c. How about some drinks? b. Would you like something to drink? d. May I offer you a drink? A
69. Writing out the check by hand leads to fewer errors than using computer point-of-sale technology. FALSE
70. Which of these is not an advantage of a point-of-sale system? a. fewer errors c. cheaper to implement b. increased efficiency d. better marketing C
71. You can deliver more dishes with hand service than you can with tray service. FALSE
72. How many soup plates can a good server carry at one time? a. one c. three b. two d. four D
73. From what direction should you always serve the customer? a. from the right side of the customer c. from the back of the customer b. from the left side of the customer d. from the front of the customer B
74. In the United States, the salad is usually served after the entrée. FALSE
75. What type of service takes place after the entrée? a. bread c. salad b. soup d. dessert D
76. When serving bread or rolls, a server should serve enough for each customer to have one and a half servings. TRUE
77. When should a server check back with the customer? a. after they have had their food for a minute or two b. directly after they receive their food c. when they are halfway through the meal d. at the end of the meal A
78. A server should never ask customers if they want change. TRUE
79. What should you do if you make an error on the check? a. Throw away the check and start over. b. Draw a line through the error and begin again. c. Give the customer a discount. d. Circle the error in red pen. B
80. What tip would a server expect to receive for outstanding service? a. 10% c. 20-30% b. 15% d. 50% C
81. Which of these types of restaurants tries to recreate another place or time? a. fine-dining restaurant c. theme restaurant b. casual-dining restaurant d. family-style restaurant C
82. What type of restaurants serves traditional favorites at mid-range prices? a. neighborhood establishment c. buffet b. casual grill d. family restaurant D
83. A fine-dining restaurant has excellent food, elegant decor, and superior service. TRUE
84. A quick-service restaurant has limited menus, low prices, and speedy service. TRUE
85. What type of restaurants offer trayline service? a. family restaurant c. casual grill b. neighborhood establishment d. cafeteria D
86. What type of restaurant has limited menus, low prices, and speedy service. a. neighborhood establishment c. quick-service restaurant b. casual grill d. buffet restaurant C
87. In what type of meal service is food completely prepared, portioned, plated, and garnished in the kitchen? a. classical French service c. Russian/English service b. modern American plated service d. family style service B
88. In what type of service must the server be able to serve from both the left and the right side of each customer? a. classical French service c. banquette service b. Russian/English service d. modern American plated service D
89. In modern American plated service, the food is completely prepared, portioned, plated, and garnished in the kitchen. TRUE
90. When serving at a booth, you should serve the customers in the front of the booth first. FALSE
91. In which of these types of services do customers serve themselves and pass the food around the table? a. buffet service c. modern American plated service b. banquette service d. family service D
92. What type of service requires customers to be served from a single focal point? a. booth service c. butler service b. family Service d. buffet service A
93. In what type of service are some foods fully or partially prepared tableside? a. modern American plated service c. Russian/English service b. classical French service d. banquette service B
94. In what type of service are both ends of the table treated as a focal point? a. booth service c. banquette service b. butler service d. buffet service C
95. The front waiter is responsible for supervising and organizing all aspects of classical French service in his or her station. FALSE
97. In Russian/English service, the order of service moves clockwise. FALSE
98. The advantages of buffet service include low labor costs and a wide selection of food for customers to choose. TRUE
99. At a butler-served meal, each course is presented on a platter from the left side of each customer. TRUE
100. In what type of service is all of the food attractively displayed on a table? a. booth service c. butler service b. banquette service d. buffet service D
101. Which of these services may waste large amounts of food? a. booth service c. buffet service b. banquette service d. butler service C
102. What is the name of the set of duties that service staff members perform before the dining room is opened? a. prep work c. front work b. side work d. set up B
103. When refilling salt and pepper shakers, you only need to wash the shaker if it appears dirty. FALSE
104. Which of these is a condiment? a. salt c. relish b. water d. parsley C
105. Never use a paper towel to dry or wipe off a condiment container. TRUE
106. What type of napkin fold forms the shape of a triangle? a. twin peaks c. flaming flower b. bishop’s hat d. candlestick A
107. Lead crystal glassware is strong and resists breaking and chipping. FALSE
108. For a formal presentation, you should use ceramic tableware. FALSE
109. Which of these is flatware? a. soup bowl c. saucer b. charger d. soup spoon D
110. What table setting includes a cup and saucer? a. formal dinner c. lunch b. dinner d. breakfast D
111. When setting a table, set forks to the left and knives and spoons to the right of each place setting. TRUE
112. Where should you place a soiled tablecloth after removing it from the table? a. in your hands c. on a bin b. on a tray d. in the floor B
113. When changing a tablecloth, place standard accessories, such as candles or flowers, on a tray. Never use a chair to hold such items. TRUE
114. Which of these types of centerpieces is often used on buffet tables? a. sculpted centerpiece c. floral centerpiece b. lighting centerpiece d. edible centerpiece A
115. A buffet is a meal served to a group of customers who have decided in advance on the menu and the time of service. FALSE
116. The menu is a restaurant’s main marketing tool. TRUE
117. These days, the location of a restaurant has no bearing on the menu. FALSE
118. Which of these menu types lists complete meals for one set price? a. California menu c. table d’hôte menu b. à la carte menu d. du jour menu C
119. What type of menu shows dishes available for a single meal? a. California menu c. meal-based menu b. à la carte menu d. du jour menu C
120. A du jour menu offers the same dishes every day. FALSE
121. What type of menu offers the same dishes every day for a long period of time? a. cycle menu c. prix fixe menu b. du jour menu d. fixed menu D
122. What type of menu is used for a set period of time, such as a week or a month? a. California menu c. cycle menu b. du jour menu d. fixed menu C
123. Which of these menu types lists dishes that are available on that particular day? a. California menu c. cycle menu b. prix fixe menu d. du jour menu D
124. Most breakfast menus are made up of inexpensive items that are cooked to order. TRUE
125. What type of menu provides mostly a selection of juices, beverages, and baked goods? a. California menu c. du jour menu b. à la carte menu d. continental menu D
126. Dinner portions are usually smaller than lunch portions, so they are usually lower priced. FALSE
127. What type of menu represents food choices from a specific country? a. California menu c. ethnic menu b. à la carte menu d. continental menu C
128. A garnish is an edible food that is placed on or around the main dish to add color or flavor. TRUE
129. Generally, an odd number of foods on a plate is more visually appealing than an even number of foods on a plate. TRUE
130. A restaurant must provide detailed information to customers about menu items that may contain common allergens, such as peanuts. TRUE
131. A special list that is fastened directly to a menu is called a table tent. FALSE
132. Which of these menu formats is a list that is handed to customers upon being seated? a. menu board c. spoken menu b. printed menu d. clip-on B
133. What menu format is a handwritten or printed menu on a wall or easel? a. printed menu c. spoken menu b. menu board d. clip-on B
134. In which of these menu formats does the server state what is available and the price of each? a. spoken menu c. printed menu b. menu board d. clip-on A
135. Accompaniments are also known as extenders. FALSE
136. What menu category includes salads and cold meat, fruit, and cheese platters? a. cold entrées c. accompaniments b. appetizers d. desserts A
137. What menu category includes extenders and casserole items? a. cold entrées c. accompaniments b. appetizers d. hot entrées D
138. Which of these menu categories often appears only on lunch menus? a. sandwiches c. soups b. salads d. cold entrées A
139. What menu category contains side dishes? a. accompaniments c. soups b. salads d. cold entrées A
140. The types of customers your restaurant attracts will influence your prices. TRUE
141. Restaurants in cities often serve customers with a higher disposable income and can charge higher prices. TRUE
142. The competitors’ pricing method prices items near the average check that you would like each customer to spend. FALSE
143. What pricing method divides the food cost by the desired food cost percentage? a. contribution margin method c. factor method b. markup-on-cost method d. average check method B
144. What pricing method determines the average cost of nonfood services to each customer? a. contribution margin method c. factor method b. markup-on-cost method d. average check method A
145. What pricing method sets prices so that most customers will automatically order food and beverages that come out to a desired total price? a. average check method c. factor method b. markup-on-cost method d. contribution margin method A
146. Which of these pricing method charges approximately what other restaurants charge for similar items? a. competitors’ pricing method c. factor method b. markup-on-cost method d. average check method A
147. Restaurants that emphasize quality food at low prices often use psychological pricing methods. TRUE
148. Which of these pricing methods is based on a prediction of how a customer will react to menu prices? a. psychological pricing method c. competitors price method b. markup-on-cost method d. average check method A
149. Which of these pricing methods is the riskiest? a. markup-on-cost method c. factor method b. contribution margin method d. competitors’ pricing method D
150. The factor pricing method is a moderate risk pricing method. FALSE
151. Each kind of poultry is divided into different classes based on the size and weight of the bird. FALSE
152. Which of these is not a kind of poultry? a. sparrow c. turkey b. chicken d. guinea A
153. A bird with more connective tissue will have tougher flesh. TRUE
154. Frozen poultry may be kept for up to six months. TRUE
155. Which of these parts of the bird contain more muscle and connective tissue? a. dark meat c. wings b. light meat d. giblets A
156. How long may you keep frozen poultry for? a. 3 months c. 8 months b. 6 months d. 12 months B
157. Dark wing tips are a sign of fresh poultry. FALSE
158. Which of these is not required for a bird to earn Grade A? a. be plump and meaty c. have all feathers intact b. have clean skin d. have no broken bones C
159. How much time should you allow for defrosting poultry? a. 1 hour for every pound c. 24 hours for every 5 pounds b. 10 hours for every 5 pounds d. 24 hours for every pound C
160. Grade A poultry is used to make processed poultry products such as turkey pot pies. FALSE
161. If poultry will not be used within 2-3 days, it should be frozen immediately. TRUE
162. At what temperature should you store frozen poultry? a. 32°F (0°C) c. 0°F (-18°C) b. 104°F (40°C) d. 40°F (5°C) C
163. Ducks and geese should not be basted. TRUE
164. Cooking poultry at high temperatures causes fat to render. TRUE
165. What is the process of fat melting out of the skin called? a. basting c. barding b. rendering d. searing B
166. What is the proper range of roasting temperatures for chicken? a. 400°F-425°F (204°C-218°C) c. 400°F-450°F (204°C-233°C) b. 375°F-425°F (191°C-204°C) d. 375°F - 400°F (191°C-204°C) D
167. Grilled poultry should have crosshatch grill marks set at a 35° angle. FALSE
168. The first step in searing a chicken is to cook it at 325°F (163°C) for 30 minutes. FALSE
169. What is the process of coating poultry parts in seasoned flour called? a. flouring c. drowning b. dredging d. covering B
170. Which of these types of poultry is ideal for grilling? a. smaller birds or poultry pieces c. yearling turkey b. whole chickens d. goose A
171. Which of these methods is not a method of frying poultry? a. pan-frying c. pressure-frying b. deep-frying d. fat-frying D
172. Which of these is not true of pressure-frying? a. It uses a commercial pressure fryer. b. It cooks food more quickly than other frying methods. c. It makes food extra crispy and juicy. d. It makes food more greasy than other fried foods. D
173. What is sautéing? a. cooking poultry in a liquid for a long period of time b. cooking poultry in a pan with little fat c. cooking poultry in hot oil d. cooking poultry on a grill B
174. Which of these methods is commonly used to cook young, tender birds? a. simmering c. braising b. poaching d. deep-frying B
175. What should always accompany braised poultry? a. the skin c. the fat b. the drippings d. the cooking liquid D
176. Dark meat takes longer to deep-fry than light meat. TRUE
177. Pressure-frying takes longer than other methods of frying. FALSE
178. Sautéing requires little fat. TRUE
179. Poaching is commonly used to cook whole, young, tender birds. TRUE
180. When pan-frying, the temperature of the fat or oil should be kept above the smoking point. FALSE
181. What is the smoking point temperature of oil used for pan-frying poultry? a. 350°F (177°C) c. 400°F (204°C) b. 375°F (191°C) d. 425°F (219°C) C
182. What temperature range should chicken be deep-fried at? a. 275°F-300°F (135°C-149°C) c. 325°F-350°F (163°C-177°C) b. 300°F-325°F (149°C-163°C) d. 350°F-375°F (177°C-191°C) C
183. What is the hollow interior of the bird called? a. stomach c. torso b. cavern d. cavity D
184. Which of these is not a common garnish for poultry? a. vegetables c. stuffing b. nuts d. fruit C
185. What is the minimum safe internal temperature for poultry? a. 160°F (71°C) c. 170°F (77°C) b. 165°F (74°C) d. 175°F (80°C) B
186. About 75% of muscle is protein. FALSE
187. A primal cut is a menu-sized portion of meat. FALSE
188. A fabricated cut is a smaller portion taken from primal cuts. TRUE
189. What cut of meat is the most popular cut purchased by foodservice operations? a. primal cut c. whole carcass b. fabricated cut d. hind cut A
190. What cut of meat is purchased if you are planning to serve roasts, stews, or steaks? a. primal cut c. whole carcass b. fabricated cut d. hind cut B
191. What cut of meat is most likely to result in a waste of food and money? a. primal cut c. whole carcass b. fabricated cut d. hind cut C
192. Which of these cuts of meat is a main section of beef? a. hindsaddle c. foresaddle b. hindquarter d. forecut B
193. The U.S. Food and Drug Administration is responsible for inspecting all meat. FALSE
194. Which of these is a quality grade of lamb? a. USDA Standard c. USDA Choice b. USDA Commercial d. USDA Select C
195. Quality grades show a meat’s tenderness, juiciness, and flavor. TRUE
196. What is the maximum temperature fresh meat should be stored at? a. 41°F (5° C) c. 55°F (13° C) b. 32°F (0° C) d. 0°F (18° C) A
197. How long can you store a beef steak in the freezer for? a. 2-4 weeks c. 6-9 months b. 3 months d. 1 year C
198. Pork is the meat from hogs that are less than one year old. TRUE
199. Which of these cuts of pork comes from the hind leg? a. loin c. belly b. shoulder d. ham D
200. Aged hams are cured and then smoked. TRUE
201. Which of these cuts of lamb is least often used in foodservice? a. shoulder c. rack b. shank d. loin B
202. What cut of lamb comes from the area between the rib and the leg? a. shoulder c. rack b. shank d. loin D
203. Quality lamb should have no marbling in the lean areas. FALSE
204. Meat from which of these cuts of veal is usually braised or stewed? a. shoulder c. rack b. shank d. loin A
205. Which of these cuts of veal is very small, tender, and expensive? a. shoulder c. rack b. shank d. loin C
206. The chuck cut of beef comes from the shoulder. TRUE
207. What cut of beef can be salt-cured to make corned beef? a. chuck c. rib b. brisket d. loin B
208. What primal cut of beef is the large, hind leg? a. chuck c. rib b. round d. flank B
209. Smoking meat decreases surface moisture, preventing bacterial growth. TRUE
210. High-heat cooking is the best method for preparing large cuts of meat. FALSE
211. Which of these methods of cooking is best for tender cuts of meat? a. high-heat cooking c. low-heat cooking b. medium-heat cooking d. microwave A
212. Roasted meats are usually left uncovered during the cooking process. TRUE
213. What cooking technique uses hot dry air to cook the food? a. sauteing c. pan-frying b. roasting d. braising B
214. Always carve meat against the grain. TRUE
215. What cooking technique uses low heat and slow cooking times? a. barbecuing c. grilling b. roasting d. broiling A
216. When sautéing, be sure to add the fat before heating the pan. FALSE
217. Which of these cooking techniques uses fat to help cook the meat? a. barbecuing c. grilling b. simmering d. sautéing D
218. The best way to test a meat’s doneness is by its color. FALSE
219. What cooking technique involves partially covering meat with liquid and cooking until tender? a. pan-frying c. sautéing b. roasting d. braising D
220. At what stage of doneness is meat browned on the outside and gray on the inside? a. medium rare c. medium well b. medium d. well done D
Created by: MArrowood