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2R071 Study

From the CDCs

(001) Who is the central agency for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain the health of the fleet? Maintenance operations.
(001) Who has the overall responsibility for determining the long-range fleet health maintenance priorities? Maintenance operations superintendent.
(002) What two facets of the Integrated Maintenance Data System Centralized Database (IMDS-CDB) is the database manager tasked to manage? Structural integrity and use.
(002) Who within maintenance management analysis is responsible for ensuring the validity and timely submission of data to meet the major command’s reporting suspenses? Analysis NCOIC.
(002) What type of course does the analysis section noncommissioned officer-in-charge (NCOIC) ensure each assigned 2R0X1 personnel attend within the first 3 months of assignment to the unit? Local familiarization.
(003) In the event of an accident mishap or impoundment, the plans, scheduling, and documentation section Freezes and consolidates aircraft and equipment records.
(003) The PS&D tasks the MMA section with accomplishing airframe, personnel, and facility capabilities assessments for each AMU no later than the last workday of March each year in an activity known as first look requirements.
(004) Which maintenance operations section manages the unit efforts to maintain adequate engine support for mission requirements? Engine management.
(004) Technical Order 00–20–1, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Inspection, Documentation, Policies, and Procedures, mandates reviews of paper and automated engine records be conducted- Semi-annually.
(005) The visual aid format that MOC uses for the flying schedule for each individual aircraft scheduled for flight each day shows serial number, scheduled/actual takeoff, scheduled/actual landing, sortie configuration, remarks, and- Call sign.
(006) All are a function of the maintenance supply liaison except? Transport spare parts to deployed locations.
(006) Which squadron commander is responsible for organizing a maintenance supply liaison function? Logistics readiness.
(007) Responsibility for management of the aircraft configuration management subsystem rests with Maintenance management production.
(007) In aircraft configuration management, aircraft configuration data is organized into configuration- Tables.
(007) In aircraft configuration management, who makes changes to the configuration tables in REMIS when required by a time compliance technical order modification? Configuration specialist.
(007) In auditing configuration records, how does PS&D validate installed items that do not have an established configuration table? Run an inquiry using screen 810, Parts Tracked Inquiry.
(008) What are the three synergistic inspections, within the AF inspection system, that are designed to evaluate different levels of command in the Air Force? Management inspection, commanders inspection program (CCIP), and unit effectiveness inspection (UEI).
(008) How many key components is the commander’s inspection program (CCIP) broken down into? Two.
(008) Which inspection provides an independent assessment of the wing’s resource management, leadership, process improvement efforts and ability to execute the mission? Unit effectiveness inspection (UEI).
(009) What should you do to ensure problems found during a self-inspection are resolved? Set deadlines and conduct follow-ups.
(010) What is your main concern when dealing with the annual operational contract? Maintenance’s capability to support the contract.
(010) When should additional maintenance requirements be plotted on the scheduling boards and on an Air Force Form 2401, Equipment Utilization and Maintenance Schedule? As they are received.
(010) Not later than which weekly scheduling meeting of the month does the operations officer provide the next month’s operational requirements to maintenance? First.
(011) When maintenance receives the operational requirements, who notifies operations of the maintenance capability? Aircraft maintenance unit supervision.
(011) Once the monthly maintenance plan is developed, which commander reviews it for final approval? Wing.
(011) To allow for attrition, the maintenance scheduler over-schedules the contracted sorties by the number of sorties indicated by the Attrition factor.
(012) The purpose of the weekly utilization and maintenance plan is to Refine the monthly plan and provide additional details to it.
(012) Once published, the weekly schedule is used to- Provide the final planning guide for maintenance and operations.
(013) Daily maintenance planning is necessary to incorporate unscheduled Maintenance requirements into the daily portion of the weekly maintenance plan.
(013) Which organization chooses the debriefing option your unit uses? Major command.
(013) Which organization determines criteria to measure and evaluate your unit’s mission accomplishment in the weekly flying schedule? Major command.
(014) What management step is necessary to build a valid generation maintenance flow plan? Coordination.
(014) When a sortie generation is finished, who attends a post exercise/contingency “hot wash” meeting to evaluate flow plans for changes or improvements? Plans, scheduling, and documentation.
(015) Items which are not in any category to be valid candidates for time change replacements are those items whose- Failure would cause an increase in supply requisitioning time.
(015) What conference reviews the time change items that may be candidates for depot change because of accessibility or other factors? Annual workload.
(015) The expiration date for the service life and shelf life on life-sustaining or cartridge-actuated device/propellant-actuated device items is the- Last day of the expiration month.
(016) When cartridge-actuated device/propellant-actuated device items are forecasted annually to the item manager, what month and day is the forecast submitted? 1 August.
(016) The aircraft maintenance unit PS&D section orders non-cartridge-actuated device/propellant-actuated device or engine time change items up to 60 days and not less than 10 days prior to the need date on an Air Force Form 2005.
(017) Who performs an initial evaluation of incoming time compliance technical orders to determine applicability against a unit’s equipment? Quality assurance.
(017) What Air Force Form is used to record the minutes from the TCTO meeting with the owning and performing work centers, quality assurance, and supply? 2410.
(017) The time compliance technical order (TCTO) managing agency (plans, scheduling, and documentation, engine management, or munitions) attend what monthly supply TCTO meeting? Reconciliation
(018) Which IMDS transaction identification code is used to load, change, delete, and inquire all pertinent data required for establishing a job standard? JFP.
(018) When all requirements are annotated on the Air Force Form 2410 during the pre-dock meeting, a copy is given to- The dock chief.
(019) What IMDS transaction identification code inquiry lists all inspections, time changes, and time compliance technical order requirements against a specific aircraft or part/serial number? ITF.
(019) What background IMDS transaction identification code provides the capability to list maintenance requirements and forecasts of time changes and inspections for equipment specified in the input? PRA.
(019) What IMDS transaction identification code produces a graphic display of the time remaining to inspection, profile, or time change for each item of equipment under the input equipment designator? TDI.
(019) What IMDS transaction identification code is used to create an automated work order for the inspection being scheduled and, once this screen has been completed, the IMDS returns with a Year/Event identification number? ZSC.
(020) The jacket files are standardized in accordance with the master aircraft jacket file developed by- Plans, scheduling, and documentation (PS&D).
(020) What item is required to be kept in the aircraft jacket file? Air Force Technical Order Form 95.
(020) A review of the aircraft jacket files and associated decentralized records is completed Semiannually.
(020) What Air Force technical order form is used to document significant historical maintenance actions? 95.
(020) When transferring a piece of equipment, the Air Force Technical Order Form 95 is forwarded With the equipment.
(021) Who usually corrects all documentation discrepancies discovered during the aircraft document review (ADR) prior to updating the ADR job control number? Maintenance personnel, usually the dedicated crew chief or assistant.
(022) Under the inventory reporting concept, all aerospace vehicles in the Air Force must be accounted for as long as they are assigned and possessed by the active Air Force,- Air National Guard, and Air Force Reserves.
(022) What type of reporting is the distribution or allocation of aerospace vehicles by Headquarters United States Air Force and major commands (MAJCOM) to Air Force installations based on the mission of the MAJCOM? Assignment.
(022) Who assigns and distributes aerospace vehicles throughout the United States Air Force (USAF)? Headquarters USAF.
(022) What concept of Air Force Instruction 21–103 reporting is based on exception reporting? Status.
(022) When an aircraft is transferred from one unit to another, who is responsible for the aerospace vehicle distribution officer (AVDO) function or inventory? Plans, Scheduling, and Documentation.
(022) What are the three major possession reporting transactions? Termination, loss, and gain.
(023) For what two major types of engine data does the base-level segment of the Comprehensive Engine Management System serve as the initial collection point? Engine status and component operational.
(023) What Comprehensive Engine Management System application is used to update status and configuration data? Information Management System.
(023) What Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS) application is used for requesting products from the database, and browsing, submitting, and viewing products out of CEMS? Time Sharing Option.
(023) All are methods of collecting accumulated hour and event data on engines except for? Radio telecommunications.
(024) The Comprehensive Engine Management System central data base quarterly inventory report is prepared and distributed on what day of the reporting month for that quarter? 20th.
(024) When you are completing the quarterly inventory, the stock record account number engine manager is responsible for ensuring what two information systems contain the same information? Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS) and Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS).
(024) How often is the data base reconciliation listing for time compliance technical order status completed on engines? Quarterly.
(024) The annotated copy of the time compliance technical order reconciliation report must be mailed to the Comprehensive Engine Management System central data base within how many days from the date of the report? 30.
(024) What are three types of condition codes used when reporting engine status? Serviceable, reparable, and installed.
(025) How many major types of technical orders are authorized for use? Three.
(025) Which type of technical order is designed to meet the needs of personnel engaged in or being trained to operate, maintain, service, overhaul, install, and inspect items of equipment and material? Operations and maintenance.
(025) Which type of technical order establishes policies, and details safe practices and processes for preventative maintenance? Methods and procedures.
(025) Methods and procedures technical orders (TO) are published to Tell the “what, when, why, and how” of general subjects.
(025) Which type of index technical order (TO) lists all TOs needed for the specific military system and related commodities covered? List of Applicable Publications.
(025) Which group of a technical order (TO) number primarily identifies the type of TO, instruction, or procedure? Third.
(026) Which office is normally assigned as the group lead technical order distribution office? Quality assurance.
(026) What is a function of the technical order (TO) distribution account? Conduct and document routine TO catalog checks and annual TO library inventories.
(027) What changes to baseline computer programs are normally announced by a time compliance technical order? Software-only.
(027) Which type of item is modified using the time compliance technical order process? Special-purpose vehicle.
(027) What are the levels of maintenance authorized for the completion of time compliance technical orders? Depot, intermediate, and organizational.
(028) What time compliance technical order is issued under conditions that could result in injury to personnel, damage to property, or unacceptable reductions in combat efficiency? Urgent action.
(028) To permit simultaneous release of two or more TCTOs requiring work in the same general area, procuring activities are authorized to withhold the release of non-safety routine action TCTOs for a maximum of how many days? 90.
(028) What kind of time compliance technical order is issued specifically for part or serial numbered items? Commodity.
(029) What Air Force Technical Order Form is used to document maintenance status and servicing information, and provide reference as to the status of aerospace vehicles? 781H.
(029) What symbol is used on aircraft forms to identify the most serious of aircraft discrepancies? Red X.
(030) What is the key role of plans, scheduling, and documentation in the maintenance group records management program to meet the requirements of all applicable maintenance instructions and policies? Standardization.
(030) Besides the current month’s aircraft forms, how many months’ worth of closed aircraft forms are allowed in the aircraft jacket file when the Maintenance Information System is unavailable and the unit is authorized to use manual aircraft forms? Last three.
(030) When the Maintenance Information System (MIS) is available, what Air Force Technical Order Form does the MIS automated history replace to document significant historical events on aircraft, engines, and equipment? 95.
(031) What document must technicians complete when ordering aircraft parts? AF Form 2413, Supply Control Log.
(031) Maintenance supply liaison personnel are physically located within the? Maintenance Group.
(032) Why is the Standard Base Supply System programmed to reject due-in from maintenance (DIFM) issues for more than one item? The possibility of having different maintenance actions taken on items with only one document number.
(032) When does the repair cycle time start for due-in from maintenance parts? As soon as you remove the part from an aircraft, engine, or piece of equipment.
(033) Under the Air Force Repair Enhancement Program, the units identify items for possible Local repair.
(034) Which automated information system provides the majority of data to Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS)? Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS).
(035) Under the equipment inventory multiple status utilization reporting subsystem (EIMSURS) airframe and flying hours are reported for each aircraft by serial number and- Tail number.
(036) The product performance subsystem (PPS) collects and provides maintenance data collection (MDC)- General support data.
(037) The Air Logistics Centers use Generic Configuration Status Accounting System (GCSAS) data to- Assure modifications are completed.
(038) The on-line detailed and summarized data available through REMIS is pre-defined On-Demand Reports, Table Pushdown Output, standard File Maintenance input screens and pre-defined Queries.
(038) When selected users have the authorization to send selected records to other interfacing computers systems such as Integrated Maintenance Data System (IMDS) is called? Table pushdown output.
(039) The Logistics, Installation and Mission Support-Enterprise View application is used? As a tool to compare or contrast analysis findings.
(040) Global Decision Support System 2 (GDSS2) is the only official historical data source to compute? Logistic Departure Reliability (LDR) rate.
(040) What deviation code series are maintenance deviations categorized? 9XX series.
(041) Hypothesis testing is used in data analysis to- Identify significant differences, trends, and relationships.
(042) When you assign a level of significance to a statistical test, you are actually assigning- A certain proportion of data in the normal curve area as your rejection region.
(043) The measure of how good a statistical test is at rejecting a false null hypothesis is called the- Power of a test.
(043) When choosing a statistical test, besides the power of the test and the classification of data, you should also consider the sample size and- Type of test.
(044) What characteristic best applies to a parametric type of statistical test? The random samples should be from a normal distribution.
(044) How do you treat outliers that you find during parametric testing? Eliminate them from the data and continue with the testing.
(045) In parametric testing, a T test is a one-tailed test because- Only one tail of your sampling distribution is used.
(046) In parametric testing, the purpose of an F test is to determine- If significant differences exist between two variances.
(046) If you use an F test for variance between two samples, you reject your null hypothesis when your computed F test statistic is- Greater than the F critical value.
(047) In statistics, a t test evaluates the significance of the difference between the- Means of two small samples.
(048) The z test is considered a two-tailed parametric test because- Of the normal curve area table for its distribution.
(049) When the basic assumption for a z test for means cannot be met, what test should you use? Mann-Whitney U test.
(049) In nonparametric testing when making a comparison to the table of U critical values, you use the- Smaller U statistic.
(049) In nonparametric testing, why is the U test statistic converted to a z deviate when the sample size is greater than 20? The sampling distribution of U rapidly approaches the normal distribution.
(050) What is the minimum number of independent samples needed for the Kruskal-Wallis H test? 3.
(051) In nonparametric testing, what number of samples can the χ² test be used for? Any number of samples.
(052) You have determined that a special study is needed and have identified a negative trend impacting the fleets lagging indicators. As you begin asking questions, which one of your answers would be an assumption? The problem is clearly defined.
(053) If base X commander identified that there is a decrease in a leading indicator, what would you use to support that statement? Kendall’s S test.
(053) While going through the investigation step, you talked to the subject matter expert dealing with a problem with the radar system. Additional insignificant information was given about a wiring harness. What do you do with this additional information? Research the wire harness.
(054) When you have proven or disproven something, you have presented- An analysis that resulted in a positive change.
(055) Data file manipulation in its simplest form is the- Processing of data.
(055) In a customized report that was written in query language processor (QLP) for IMDS or forum of control data users (FOCUS) for G081 there are- No headers, footers or page numbers unless you specify them.
(057) When you are manipulating data, a delimiter is a character that marks- The beginning or end of a data element.
(001) The MO/OIC and MO/SUPT are responsible for evaluating and providing what type of analysis information to the MXG/CC and applicable squadron commanders? Trend analysis.
(002) What are the two main responsibilities of analysis? Analyzing and evaluating unit and weapon system performance, and managing the MIS.
(003) What form does the PS&D scheduler prepare for each aircraft before the pre-inspection (pre-dock) meeting? AF Form 2410, Inspection/TCTO Planning Checklist.
(004) Where are scheduled engine changes published? In the weekly and monthly maintenance plan.
(007) What is the intent of the Aircraft Configuration Management (ACM) subsystem? To ensure selected serially controlled or TCIs are identified and loaded to the MIS database.
(008) What self-assessment program reports compliance with requirements listed in self-assessment checklist up to appropriate staff and the chains of command? The management internal control toolset (MICT).
(008) What is a two-way communication tool designed to improve compliance with published guidance? The self-assessment checklist (SAC).
(009) What types of checklists do you use to conduct a self-inspection? Use MICT checklists and locally developed checklists tailored to specific unit requirements, to include references for each item.
(009) What should you include when providing answers to each item on a checklist? Specific details of how you comply with the item in your daily operations.
(009) What is the first thing done to prepare for an inspection? Verify that checklists are current.
(010) What is the simple definition for the UTE rate? The number of times an aircraft must fly per month/year to meet the annual requirements.
(011) If conflicts arise between the operational requirements and the maintenance capability, who decides what portion of the mission to support and to what degree? The group and wing CCs.
(011) What is the formula to calculate total number of sorties to schedule? (Number of sorties or hours required) divided by (1 minus the attrition factor).
(012) What action, in the act of planning schedules, can spell the difference between mission accomplishment and failure? Selecting the proper aircraft to fly a specific mission.
(013) What is the purpose of the debriefing function in relation to daily scheduling? To inform the controlling agency and PS&D of discrepancies on assigned aircraft.
(013) What type of deviation is an FSE used to record? Ground deviation.
(013) What are the six recorded ground deviations? Addition, cancellation, early takeoff, ground abort, late takeoff, and spare.
(017) Who must be primarily concerned with the status of TCTO completion? Maintenance managers.
(018) Before an inspection package can be produced for your aircraft, what type of package must be initiated in IMDS? Job flow.
(018) Which TRIC and option is used to delete the entire JST, and associated inspections and time changes? JFP—job flow package delete.
(019) What TRIC is used to create an automated work order for the inspection being scheduled? ZSC–scheduled maintenance.
(019) What two maintenance actions are validated for time changes through suspense validation? Equipment removal and equipment installation.
(019) Which TRIC provides the capability to retrieve historical data for a specific piece of equipment? SHD—significant historical data.
(020) When aircraft are temporarily moved to operating locations away from the unit of assignment, what do you do with the aircraft records? Send only those documents necessary to ensure safety of flight and current aircraft status to the temporary location.
(020) How often does a copy of an MIS automated history or equivalent get printed/downloaded (on a CD)? Annually.
(022) What AFI establishes procedures for reporting the inventory, status, and utilization of vehicles? 21–103.
(022) Once an aircraft has been assigned, who reports condition status on the aircraft? MOC.
(023) At base level, what can CEMS products be used to manage? Time changes, inspections, and TCTOs on the engines.
(025) Why are TOs issued? To tell you how to inspect, install, operate, maintain, modify, and overhaul equipment and material maintained by the Air Force.
(025) What are the five major types of TOs? O&M, methods and procedures, index type, abbreviated, and TCTOs.
(025) Under what major type of TO do checklists, inspection workcards, and sequence charts fall? Abbreviated.
(025) What does the first part of a TO number identify? The category of the TO.
(027) What kind of equipment does the TCTO process not apply to? CE or medical equipment, or GP vehicles.
(028) What type of TCTO has a compliance period of 1–10 days after receipt of kits, parts, and tools, if required? Urgent action.
(028) What type of TCTO has a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs (/X/X/X) printed around the border of the first page? Urgent action.
(029) What is the purpose of the AFTO 781-series forms? Provide a record of maintenance, inspection, service, configuration, status, and flight record for certain AF weapon systems.
(029) What form is used to document vehicle operating time and engine data? AFTO Form 781J.
(030) Why does clearing repeat/recurring discrepancies entered in aircraft forms require special procedures? To ensure thorough troubleshooting has taken place.
(031) What supply report is a monthly listing of items that are backordered? Due-Out Validation List (M30).
(035) What is the primary function of EIMSURS? To provide both detailed and summary/historical data for aerospace vehicles, automated test equipment, selected missiles, selected support equipment, and C-E equipment
(035) How does the Air Staff use REMIS utilization data? To determine flying hour allocations and DOD budgets.
(036) Who provides on- and off-equipment maintenance data to REMIS? Base organizations, depots, and contractors.
(038) What is the purpose of Table Pushdown Output? To ensure proper construction of inputs from both System-to-System Input (SSI) and Man-to-Machine Input (MMI) processing.
(044) Which type of statistical test uses data from a normal distribution? Parametric.
Created by: Humphritd1



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