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3S071 Vol 1 UREs

3S071 CDCs

QuestionAnswer
Which agency functions to assist the Secretary of the AF (SECAF) in carrying out the responsibilities of the office? Air Staff
How many subordinate units does the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) have? Six
Which office is responsible for providing administrative support to the Deputy Chief of Staff, AF/A1 by managing workflow, tracking correspondence, administering and monitoring security and safety programs, and overseeing supplies and equipment purchases? Executive Services (AF/A1Z)
This office defines the Culture of Airmen, including core standards, values and expectations. Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment (AF/A1D)
Which office does AF/A1 communicate with to ensure corporate Air Force requirements link mission capabilities to programmed resources? Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M).
This office plans and executes the Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) program. Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M).
Which office implements programs, such as “Stop Loss,” to effectively shape and balance the Air Force’s Total Force? Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P).
Which office serves as the program manager for planning, programming, and developing information technology (IT) for the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1)? Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X).
Which field operating agency (FOA) primarily accomplishes their mission by ensuring the right numbers of people in the right grades and skills are available to perform the missions of unit commanders worldwide? Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center ( HQ AFPC).
The Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) integrates and executes personnel operations to develop Air Force people and meet field commander requirements.
Who does the Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) support by providing transition assistance and support? Air Force retirees.
Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with facilitating the professional development of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of colonel? Assignments.
For assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future Air Force leaders, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) contacts the Directorate of Civilian Force Integration.
Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with developing guidance, procedures and training for active duty, Guard, Reserve and civilian personnel accountability? Force Operations.
Which directorate is primarily responsible for reporting casualties worldwide, notifying family members, and providing assistance to families and field commanders on benefits and entitlements? Force Operations.
Which directorate assists Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) with information technology and lifecycle management? Personnel Data Systems.
Which directorate is responsible for developing guidance, procedures and training for active duty, guard, reserve, and civilian personnel directly supporting Air Force programs? Personnel Services.
Which field operating agency (FOA) is responsible for determining requirements needed to execute wartime and home-station capabilities supporting Air Force Concepts of Operations (CONOPS)? Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA).
What field operating agency (FOA) does the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) look to for measuring and managing the outcome of improved service delivery and efficient investment in human capital? Air Force Personnel Operations Agency (AFPOA).
What authorizations were reduced to save money during Program Budget Decision (PBD) 720 ? Manpower.
What component is comprised of an information technology solution that is provided to commanders to support their personnel needs? Base-level service delivery model (BLSDM).
How many flights were each organization realigned and consolidated into during phase I of the Mission Support Squadron’s (MSS) transformative structure testing? FIve
The major command (MAJCOM) is the highest level of command below Headquarters Air Force (HAF) and directly above the numbered air force (NAF).
How do major commands (MAJCOM) monitor the effectiveness of military personnel sections (MPS) and commander support staff (CSS) programs? Periodic staff assistance visits.
As of August 2009, how many major commands made up the Air Force structure? Ten
he Air and Space Expeditionary Center (AEFC) is a direct reporting unit (DRU) assigned under Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
The Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) is responsible for executing the Air Force battle rhythm by centrally managing the scheduling and sourcing of forces to meet the requirements of combatant commanders.
Why did the Air and Space Expeditionary Force Center (AEFC) move from Langley AFB, Virginia to Randolph AFB, Texas? To merge two centers together with a focus on operationalizing personnel under one commander.
The Air Force Reserve Command’s (AFRC) vision is to have citizen Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power.
Approximately how many aircraft are assigned to the Air Force Reserve Command (AFRC)? 440.
The Air National Guard (ANG) has both a federal and state mission.
Hurricane Katrina, that hit the Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast in August 2005, was one of the most devastating hurricanes of all time. Which agency was activated to help with this natural disaster? Air National Guard (ANG) Bureau.
What percentage of the Air Force’s tactical airlift support does the Air National Guard (ANG) provide for combat communications functions, aero medical evacuations, and aerial refueling operations? 50
When Air National Guard (ANG) units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the Governor.
What does the first position of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify? Career group.
A combination of the first and the second positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identifies the Career field.
What does the combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify? Career field subdivision.
What does the combination of the first, second, and third positions of an Air Force specialty code (AFSC) identify? skill level.
Which skill level identifies enlisted personnel with a high degree of technical knowledge who have acquired additional supervisory capabilities through training and knowledge? Seven.
Which type of Air Force specialty code (AFSC) is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training? Control.
The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include all of the following except advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs.
Which is not a Personnel Support for Contingency Operations (PERSCO) function that a personnel craftsman performs? Personnel classification.
What skill level indentifies enlisted personnel who, through experience, training, and performance, have shown a high degree of managerial and supervisory ability? 9.
Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that training is key to the success of the Air Force.
What is a senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) primary purpose? Mission accomplishment.
What rank transitions from being technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence? Master sergeants.
These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging subordinates’ talents, skills, and resources with other teams’ functions to most effectively accomplish the mission. Senior master sergeants.
What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military leader and develop future enlisted leaders? Chief master sergeants.
The strategy of the Air Force on-the job training (OJT) program provides realistic and flexible training by using all of the following capabilities except enhancing.
The Air Force on-the job (OJT) program consists of all of the following components except job satisfaction.
What is key to the total training program? Upgrade training (UGT).
What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP), and other duty position tasks? Journeyman.
This type of training is defined as specialized, systematic and/or thorough technical training provided to enhance specific knowledge needs of each person involved in the training. In-house.
As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work center and individual training? Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).
What document identifies all day-to day mission requirements, core tasks, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center? Master Task List.
Who is responsible for initiating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training? Unit training managers.
The focal point of the Air Force training program is the Trainee.
Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet? In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced.
All of the following are the trainee’s responsibilities in the upgrade training process except documenting training progress on AF Form 623a, On-the-Job Training Record-Continuation Sheet.
Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when dealing with classified material? To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands.
Which is not an installation security program manager’s program responsibility? Indoctrinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower document.
Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation before they access classified information? 90.
Which application is used only by adjudicative personnel and provides capabilities such as case management and adjudicative history and summary? Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS).
Which application is used for providing capabilities such as access indoctrination, debriefing history, incident and issue file reporting, history, and management of unit personnel security functions? Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS).
It is important to use the SF 312, Classified Information Nondisclosure Agreement, when granting an individual access to classified information to ensure you have a source document signed and dated by the individual.
When a individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed.
It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three-step process against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement (NdA) because the refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior.
Why is it imperative to complete the four-step authorization process when confirming a person’s level of access to classified information? Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process.
Authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch without a previous clearance may not be delegated below the Major command (MAJCOM) commander
Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material? The material may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel.
When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except erase laptops and disks completely before transporting.
Personnel who need to transport classified material will use the Department of State courier system to transport through or within countries hostile to the United States.
Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be transmitted overnight.
Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address? Sender.
Which is not considered one of the five principles of good communication? Justification.
How many effective communication steps are needed to become a better communicator whether you are writing or speaking? Seven.
In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use all of the following tips except being original.
Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals except avoid asking your supervisor until you have all information to present.
What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the subject line communicates your purpose? Be clear and concise.
What e-mail communication rule is violated if you discuss controversial, sensitive, official use only, classified, personal, or privacy act information? Be selective about the message you send.
A member’s date of enlistment (DOE), or day entering an extension, requires an E63 update be input into the military personnel data system (MILPDS) no earlier than 120 days prior.
What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of a reenlistment action? E64.
Which Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to change a date of separation only in the Master Military Pay Account (MMPA)? TU4.
What Defense Joint Military System (DJMS) update is used to cancel an extension prior to the effective date and is automatically output when the extension is cancelled? TU6
What Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) reject code appears when a reenlistments clerk updates a reenlistment or extension, but does not include the obligated service? RDJ.
An individual cannot change a Military Personnel Data System (MILPDS) standard product. Who designs and controls those products? Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC).
How often are transaction registers (TR) programmatically controlled and produced? Daily.
What agency, or individual, coordinates on all suggested changes and/or improvements to management assessment products (MAP)? Personnel System Manager (PSM).
What management assessment product (MAP) reflects an inbound member’s name if the member contacts customer service stating a sponsor has not been assigned? 7A, CUSTSVC-NO SPONSOR.
What management assessment product (MAP) would a member’s name be reflected on if administrative certification under the personnel reliability program (PRP) is required and the member is projected to Minot AFB, ND? MAP 13B, RELOC-PPC-PRP.
What management assessment product (MAP) can the career development section use to ensure database integrity if a member is projected for a permanent change of station (PCS) and is demoted before departing? MAP 6, ENHANCEMENT-QUALITY-CHECK.
Created by: alejandraisabel