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2S051 Vol 4

Self Test

Question	Answer
1. When a truck arrives at the receiving section, why should a spotter be available	To help the driver back the vehicle into position for off-loading.
2. What action does the cargo movement representative take when a discrepancy is found during off-loading of a shipment	Reports it to the carrier and annotates it on the bill of lading.
3. How does the receiving representative accept a shipment from the cargo movement representative	By signing cargo movement representative’s copy of the bill of lading.
4. Who checks to ensure shipments being off loaded are at the correct destination	The receiving function representative.
5. What does the SRAN identify	The “ship to activity.”
1. List the four basic temporary receiving holding areas.	(1) Receiving line.(2) Bulk area.(3) Outside holding area.(4) Specialized holding areas.
2. What are the two areas found on the receiving line and how are they identified	Priorities and routines. Priority items are coded 01–08, routines (all others) are 09–15.
3. What type of receipts must be processed before all others	MICAP.
4. How are the bulk area holding bays identified in the receiving area	By a three-digit alphanumeric location.
5. What type of items is placed in the outside holding area in the receiving section	Large, heavy, or awkward-shaped items that can be stored outside without harm from the weather.
1. What is used as the accountable document for items received from a source of supply	DD Form 1348–1A.
2. What is the difference between DD Form 1348–1A and DD Form 250 or other incoming source document	The DD Form 250 can list more than one item and document number while the DD Form 1348–1A lists only one.
3. What checks are made by the in-checker after removing receipt documentation from the packing nlist envelope	Stock number, unit of issue, and quantity between the documentation and on the property.
4. What documentation entries are made by the in-checker/inspector on a normal receipt document	(1) Tote box/holding bay location.(2) Quantity verification.(3) In-checker’s signature and date the item was received.(4) Inspector’s signature or stamp and date, if the item was sent to an inspector.
1. List the two computer screens used to process receipts in the order in which they appear.	(1) Receipt inquiry screen.(2) Receipt processing screen.
2. When processing a receipt, what data does the receipt inquiry screen collect	Data from the stored due-in detail records.
3. What two entries are required on a receipt inquiry screen	(1) System designator.(2) Due-in document number from the receipt document.
4. What happens to the quantity on the due-in detail record when a receipt is processed	Decreases.
1. Where do you find the quantity you should have received on a receipt document	In print positions 25–29.
2. What action do you take on an overage receipt	Circle the incorrect quantity and write the correct quantity above it. To process an overage signify the overage input the exact quantity received in the QUANTITY REC’D field and QTY over QUANTITY OVER field Input an “O” in the VARIANCE FLAG field
3. What action do you take on a shortage receipt	Circle the incorrect quantity on the document and write the correct quantity above it. Also, ensure that an “S” for shortage is in the VARIANCE FLAG field of the receipt input.
4. What entries are required to process a partial receipt when there is a suffix code at the end of a document number	The document number and suffix, quantity received, tote box/hold bay location, and partial quantity flag P.
5. What action do you take if you suspect an item is misidentified	Send the item and the receipt documentation to an inspector.
6. What TEX code is used to process misidentified property	Q.
7. Explain the difference between a TEX code P and a TEX code Z	A TEX code P identifies an item damaged in shipment. TEX code Z identifies an item with hidden defects.
8. What document is prepared to receive a quantity that has been taken or extracted from another receipt document	An extract document.
1. When are XB3 items turned in to the LRS	When serviceable or unserviceable items have potential use or resale value.
2. Whose responsibility is it to establish and implement an effective program for returning serviceable XB3 materiel to the supply system	Accountable officer.
3. Whose responsibility is it to prepare the documentation for an XB3 turn-in	Receiving function.
4. Which form is used to process a turn-in request	AF Form 2005.
5. What does AFI 23–111 say about property found on base	It requires all property found on that installation and not accounted for to be promptly recorded on the appropriate records of accountability.
6. What TEX code is used to process an NF/ND equipment turn-in (FOB) when ownership cannot be determined	Plus sign (+).
1. What three factors regarding received property must be verified by the materiel management inspector	Identity, condition, and status.
2. An item’s identity includes what three things	(1) Reference number (part number).(2) Stock number.(3) Item description (nomenclature).
3. What factor have you defined when you decide that an item can be used for its intended purpose without any alteration or modification	Item status.
4. What series tag is used to ensure that each item is properly identified before issuance or storage	DD Form 1570 series.
5. What condition tag is used to identify unserviceable materiel that is uneconomical to repair (condemned)	DD Form 1577.
6. What condition does a green tag identify	Unserviceable items that can be economically repaired or restored for use (reparable).
7. List the eight entries required on the DD Form 1570 series tag.	(1) Part number.(2) Stock number.(3) Item description.(4) Inspection activity.(5) Condition code.(6) Unit of issue.(7) Quantity.(8) Inspector’s name or stamp and date.
8. List the three condition codes that can be used with DD Form 1574.	Condition codes A, B, and C.
9. If an item is suspended from issue pending a condition classification, what condition tag and condition code is used to identify the item	DD Form 1575 and condition code J.
10. What is the only condition code that can be used with DD Form 1576	Condition code D.
1. What circumstance requires processing a condition change input	Whenever property deteriorates or becomes damaged in storage.
2. Which change input (transaction identification code) is used to correct an identification error for serviceable items in storage	FCH.
3. Who is the certifying official that signs the FCH documents	The chief of the function making the change.
1. What is the purpose of the surveillance inspection program	To ensure that property is ready for issue and that deterioration and corrosion are controlled.
2. How often should you inspect storage listings and programs for compliance	Daily.
3. During an inspection surveillance, what general guideline must be checked concerning hazardous materiel	Ensure hazardous materiels are properly stored.
1. What form is used to report receiving discrepancies	Standard Form 364.
3. What timeframe does the receiving activity have to submit the SDR	(1) Within 24 hours of discovery for controlled items.(2) Within 90 calendar days from date of shipment for CONUS destinations.(3) Within 150 calendar days from date of shipment for overseas destinations.
4. What happens to the suspense file copy of an SDR when a reply is received	It is destroyed.
5. What materiel management function evaluates and controls the incoming SDR program	The procedures function.
6. Why does the procedures function keep a copy of all incoming SDRs	To determine the reason for the discrepancy and to forward the SDRs to the element responsible for the discrepancy.
7. When are incoming discrepancies involving classified items followed up on	Always, regardless of the cost.
1. Define covered storage.	Any storage space within a roofed structure.
2. What is the most common type of storage facility used throughout the Air Force	General purpose warehouse.
3. What are the two areas usually found in a refrigerated warehouse or stockroom	Chill space and freeze space.
4. How are open storage areas designed	For storing items that do not require protection from the weather.
5. What serves to define and protect an open storage area	A perimeter fence with a main gate serves as protection for the items stored and provides boundary limits that define the storage area.
6. List the two types of open storage areas. 6. Improved and unimproved.	Improved and unimproved.
1. What is the basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation	Storage space.
2. Why should the location of structural columns be considered when planning a warehouse layout	Space loss can be minimized by using columns as aisle and bay boundaries.
3. What type of warehouse area should be kept to a minimum to increase storage efficiency and space utilization	Work areas.
4. When items with similar handling requirements are stored together, what storage factor is being observed	Item similarity.
5. What storage factor encourages slower moving items to be placed farther away from active stock processing areas	Item popularity.
1. What are the minimum and maximum numbers of positions that make up the warehouse location code	No fewer than 10 and no more than 11.
2. What two factors should you consider when you identify a stockroom	(1) Stockrooms are sequenced from left to right and from front to rear.(2) Never use the letters I or O to identify a stockroom because they are easily mistaken for the numbers 1and 0.
3. How are storage levels identified and how will they be labeled	By a single capital letter. The letters will be placed at least every six feet along the bin row.
4. What are the reasons for processing an FCS	To load or assign a warehouse location, to change a warehouse location, and to delete a warehouse location.
5. Why are location deletions normally processed	To provide new storage space.
6. Why does the Air Force use bar coded bin labels	To aid in inventory and warehouse validation.
7. When are reserve locations used	When you have an overflow of assets that can’t be stocked in the primary location, and only as a last resort.
1. List three reasons for doing a warehouse location validation.	(1) To verify that the asset is in fact stored in the warehouse location stated on the item record.(2) To ensure that all item records indicating a serviceable balance are assigned a warehouse location.(3) To identify duplicate warehouse locations.
2. Who prepares the warehouse location validation schedule	Storage personnel.
3. How often are warehouse location validation schedules prepared	Each fiscal year.
4. Ideally, when should a warehouse validation be completed	Within 10 workdays of the start of a cycle or sample inventory.
5. When do you prepare the parameter input for your warehouse validation	One day before starting the warehouse validation.
6. What corrective action do you take on a discrepancy when the stock number on the property in location does not match the stock number on the bin label	Process an FCS change or move the item(s) to the correct location based upon your research.
7. What is the Serviceable Balance—No Warehouse Location Listing (R36) used for	To identify items having a serviceable balance but no warehouse location assigned to them, and a DOLT greater than three days.
1. List two ways you can conserve storage space.	Stack as high as practical and as compactly as possible.
2. Explain honeycombing.	Storing or removing items in a way that creates unusable areas of storage space in a stack.
3. What system of storage ensures that the oldest items are issued before they become outdated	FIFO. First In First Out
4. What should you do when you discover assets with no markings or identification labels	Turn it over to an inspector for action.
1. Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an item in storage which has deteriorated or has become damaged in storage	FCC.
2. Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for items misidentified by the manufacturer	FCH.
3. Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for a U/I change to an item	FCU.
4. Which TRIC should be used on a warehouse change document when, due to a change in the controlled item code, an item must be relocated to a more secure area	1SC.
1. What verification checks should you make when selecting an item for issue	Ensure the bin label matches the issue document. Ensure the NSN and the unit of issue are correct. Select the oldest dated item. Select the quantity required on the document. Sign and date document. Move the property to the delivery to the customer.
2. How many copies of DD Form 1348–1A are produced for redistributions and transfers	Three warehouse copies and three cargo movement copies.
3. What is a transfer and what are the two types of transfers	Movement of materiel to DRMS; directed and nondirected.
4. What TRIC is used to transfer an item to DRMS	TRM.
5. What code printed on the transfer document is used to decide whether or not demilitarization is required and what method to use	DEMIL code.
6. What is a warehouse refusal	When a needed issue item is not found in the location, or when the quantity needed is not sufficient to fill the request.
1. What information does an MSDS provide	It identifies the hazards and safety measures associated with a particular product.
2. What publication can be used as a guide to identify potentially hazardous items	Federal Standard 313.
3. What must the inspector ensure is assigned to all potential health hazard item records	IEX code 8, 9, M, or HHF.
4. An IEX 9 is assigned to what type of item	Serious health hazard items.
5. What is the purpose of a HHF	It eliminates repetitive initial reviews of the same item and ensures that all items in the categories identified in the health hazard publications have been screened, identified, and controlled.
6. Who makes the determination of which IEX or flag should be loaded on the item record	Bioenvironmental Engineering Services.
1. How should corrosives be stored	On pallets that are compatible with the materiel being stored.
2. Automatic water sprinklers should always be used when what type of acids are stored	Organic.
3. What is the principle hazard of storing closed flammable containers	The rupture of the containers resulting from increased pressure when they are exposed to fire.
4. How should aerosol cans be stored	In a room separate from other flammables if space permits. A barrier should separate aerosol cans from other flammables containing aerosol cans capable of becoming self-propelled projectiles and airborne sources of ignition.
5. Why is outside storage of flammable liquid products in metal drums not recommended	Because pressure buildup in the drums due to thermal loading from the sun and the likelihood of subsequent rupture or drum failure due to corrosion or handling creates a significant spill containment and environmental hazard.
6. Low-risk acids and pesticides, poisons, petroleum products, and certain batteries are examples of what type of items	Low hazard.
1. What should storage personnel be alert for when performing a routine surveillance of storage areas	For expired shelf life dates or for inspection/test dates that have passed.
2. How often should inspection personnel monitor the storage conditions of chemical and petroleum products	Monthly.
3. How long must the completed chemical monthly inspection checklist be maintained	Minimum of one year.
4. What governs the testing of aircraft and ground equipment lubricants and oils	By retest cycle dates instead of shelf life codes.
5. What is the goal of the AF-EMIS	The goal of the AF-EMIS program is to manage, track, and report hazardous material usage by ensuringonly authorized personnel are allowed to order and receive hazardous material.
1. What supply classes does inspection personnel visually inspect or retest	Supply Classes 6810, 6820, and 6850.
2. What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned	QSL.
3. What AFTO form is used by inspection personnel to identify the materiel being sent to laboratory	AFTO Form 475.
4. Aircraft and ground equipment lubricants and oils are governed by retest cycle dates as specified in what TO	TO 42B–1–1.
1. What is the responsibility of all organizations that have excess serviceable materiels	To turn in the unused quantity to the HAZMAT pharmacy.
2. Why does the HAZMAT pharmacy review residual materiel upon receiving a new requirement for hazardous materiel	For possible free issue instead of placing a demand on supply.
1. What are the storage requirements for Top Secret materiel	A class A vault is required under the control of the designated primary or subordinate Top Secret control officer. The area must be controlled and alarmed.
2. What are the storage requirements for Secret and Confidential materiel	Must be stored in a class B vault or secure storage area. Storage areas must meet the supplemental safeguards outlined by local authorities.
3. How are precious metals stored	In a security cage.
4. How often will the keys and locks be audited when key-operated high security padlocks are used to store classified materiel	Each month.
5. How often will combinations be changed when combination padlocks are used to store classified materiel	When a combination is placed in use, when an individual knowing the combination no longer requires access, when the combination has been subject to possible compromise, at least annually, and when taken out of use.
6. What is the purpose of SF 702	To show the location of the container and the names, home addresses, and home telephone numbers of the individuals having knowledge of the combination.
1. How are unit packs marked for ESD items	With a sensitive electronic device unit pack label on the identification marking side of the unit pack.
2. How many yellow caution labels must be placed on each exterior container for an ESD item when the container exceeds one half cubic foot	Two 4 × 4 inch labels.
3. What type cargo code stored on the item record identifies an ESD item	Three.
4. If the asset is on a detail record, what action is taken to process an ESD item to a maintenance function for testing	The inspector processes the item to a maintenance function using TRIC MSI and activity code C.
5. Where can an inspector open the unit pack of an ESD item if it is required	In an ESD protective area.
1. What are the two categories of functional check assets	(1) Assets, other than buildup items, that require extensive functional check after issue for installation, and(2) assets identified by an inspector whose serviceability may be doubtful, due to apparent mishandling while in stock or being dropped.
2. Who is designated to act as the maintenance contact point for functional check items	An individual jointly agreed on by the accountable officer and the chief of maintenance.
3. Adequate proof of a functional check of an item is provided by the stamp or signature of what person	The base maintenance inspector.
4. How does a supply inspector process an item to an organization for functional check	By processing a C activity code ISU to the organization and shop.
5. How often must a functional check listing be run	At least semiannually.
1. What is a type I shelf life code, Type II	Type I alpha codes are for items with definite nonextendable shelf life. Type II numeric codes are for items with a shelf life that can be extended after completion of inspection, test, or restorative action.
2. How many days before their expiration date are type II shelf life items scheduled for serviceability testing	15 to 45 days.
3. When an item is destroyed as a result of testing, what action do you take	Process a turn-in with supply condition code H and action taken code 9.
1. Define an item that is suspect or unsuitable. could cause a hazardous condition or damage to personnel, property, or equipment.	Items that, if used before inspection for verification of serviceability,
2. How is a suspect item flagged on the item record	By processing an FCD input with suspect materiel flag S.
3. How are customers notified of possible suspect items	By daily bulletins, newsletters, or phone calls.
4. What management notice is output when a receipt or turn-in is processed against a stock number that is coded as a suspect item	I302 management notice.
1. TCTO items are modified to the extent that their form, fit, or function is changed, How is this TCTO item identified on the item record	With NPPC 4.
2. How are items requiring TCTO action, where modification will not require reidentification to anew NSN, identified on the item record	By assignment of a TCTO flag.
3. Why does the inspector prepare an inquiry of all item records and detail records for the listed stock numbers on a TCTO	To find out the total number of assets to be modified.
4. What information must be annotated on the cover letter to Maintenance Quality Control	List by stock number the total number of spares on hand that require modification.
5. How often should you conduct an inspection of on-the-shelf TCTO items assigned either NPPC 4 or the TCTO flag	Monthly.
6. What action must the inspector take when an item is received and they cannot determine if TCTO actions have been done	Issue the item to the maintenance function for the necessary inspection or test.
1. How are warranty and guaranty items identified	On the container and in the purchase contract.
2. What information must be annotated on the receiving document for warranty and guaranty items	Model, serial number, manufacturer’s name and address, and any other data required locally.
3. What code is assigned to the item record of any warranty or guaranty item received	IEX B.
1. How are aircraft tires stored	In a cool, dry warehouse that is protected from sunlight.
2. How will unserviceable items be stored	In a totally separate area from serviceable items. They will be tagged with the appropriate unserviceable tag and have a handwritten bin label identifying the location.
3. How are WCDO items stored	Using normal considerations for shelf life, hazardous materiels, and flammable materiels.
1. What are the four types of inventories	(1) Complete.(2) Sample.(3) Special.(4) In-use/in-place equipment.
2. What is the purpose of the inventory schedule	To ensure that all assigned locations and details are inventoried at the correct frequency.
4. What is the inventory deadline date	Julian date on which the inventory count begins.
5. Within what time frame should all transactions applicable to locations scheduled for inventory be processed	At least one day before the inventory deadline date.
6. As a minimum, what data should be included on the recap sheet	TRIC, stock number, warehouse location, quantity, document number, and system designator.
1. What program writes inventory count records to a data base file and assigns freeze code C to all item records within the input parameter	R12.
2. Count records are written for what type of item records	Those with a serviceable balance and a warehouse location within the parameters of the request.
3. What is compared internally upon the input of the count images	Physical count quantity and record balance.
4. What is produced when the CIC input count quantity is unequal to the item record balance	An inventory recount image (IRC).
5. What product do you use to reconcile recap sheets after the completion of the inventory	D04.
6. What is the purpose of the 365-day inventory request	To identify items not inventoried during the regularly scheduled inventories.
1. What freeze code is assigned to the item record for special inventories	Freeze code I.
2. How is a freeze code assigned when an insufficient balance for a degraded issue transaction is detected	Automatically by in-line programs.
3. To request a special inventory, what document does the requesting activity prepare	Special inventory request (1GP).
4. What input removes freeze code I	Special inventory count (IRC).
1. When is a physical recount performed on an inventory discrepancy	Always.
2. What action must be performed before automatic adjustments to inventory discrepancies occur	Physical inventory recount.
3. Specify the criteria for automatic adjustment.	Type account code B, controlled item code U, and total adjusted dollar value is less than $100 for pilferable items and $1,000 for unclassified items.
4. What are the four categories of inventory discrepancies	(1) Resolved discrepancies.(2) Unresolved discrepancies no further research.(3) Unresolved discrepancies where research indicates no personal responsibility.(4) Unresolved discrepancies research indicates evidence of personal responsibility.
5. When performing inventory research, why do you review the Serviceable Balance-No WHSE Location Listing	To see if a different warehouse location was assigned.
6. When researching an inventory shortage discrepancy, how far back do you go from the current date	Go back to the last item record zero balance. If the error is not detected at this point and it is determined that more research is needed, continue back one year, or to the last inventory adjustment, or to the previous numeric DOLI.
1. What transaction adjusts the record balance and updates the applicable inventory accuracy records for a complete inventory	An IRC .
2. What type of items requires support documentation	Inventory adjustments that don’t meet the automatic adjustment criteria.
3. When automatic adjustments occur, what management products do they appear on	Transaction/Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document Register (M10).
4. What does the last page of the M10 reflect	Number of sample inventories in progress over 30 days.
5. Where is the original copy of the M10 filed	Document Control.
6. What reflects inventory trends and problem areas	Trend charts.
7. What activities analyze the causes of unresolved discrepancies	Inventory and analysis functions.
1. What must the ERRCD be for items assigned to a bench stock	XB3.
3. What does the master bench stock detail record identify	Each item on a bench stock.
4. What TRIC is used to process requests for bench stock issues through customer service	1BS.
5. What TRIC code is used to change the authorization or delete a bench stock item	2BS.
6. When should a bench stock have an MRA or an MAQ	When items are placed on bench stock that are not supported by past demands.
7. What code can be used to protect a temporary large quantity of bench stock items from disposition	An excess exception code.
1. When are quantity changes recommended during a review	Only when there are substantial changes in consumption patterns.
2. Who has the final say as to whether an item is deleted or not	The using activity.
3. What action is taken when an item doesn’t have an MRA but the organization representative feels it should not be deleted	The item is extended until the next review.
4. How many phases of bench stock review are there	Three.
5. What listing is used to accomplish the monthly recommended additions, changes, and deletions in the phase I review	The M04.
6. When a phase II semiannual bench stock review is conducted, within what time frame must the review be accomplished	Within one work week.
7. How often must SRD data and MRA levels be validated	Annually by a phase III review.
1. Which materiel handling principle provides the greatest economy in the movement of materiel	The least handling is the best handling.
2. Which principle seeks to reduce the time required to travel a given distance	Straight line flow.
3. Which materiel handling principle results in reducing the costs of operation (i.e., the simplification of maintenance, repair, storage, and issue procedures)	Standardize equipment.
4. What problems can occur if you overload equipment capacity	Excessive wear and tear on the equipment and increased accident potential.
1. What type of warehouse system includes all types of conveyors and AS/RS	MMHS
2. What type of warehouse storage system includes all of the types of general purpose racks shelves, and bins	SAS.
1. Whose responsibility is it to ensure that a repair cycle item is returned in a reusable container	Maintenance activity.
2. What category of reusable containers has an exterior container usually made up of metal, plastic, or synthetic materiel	Long life.
3. What category of reusable containers should survive at least 10 round trips, and are usually made up of plywood, wood, or fiberboard	Short life.
1. Define NWRM	Any components that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status (code and critical components); are classified or become classified once installed and used; serialized items installed on operationally deployed weapons systems
2. What is the primary reference used for NWRM	CJCSI 3150.04.
3. Define classified property.	Material which requires protection in the interest of national security.
1. In order to achieve positive inventory control of NWRM, what must be ensured handled in a manner to ensure its safeguarding and integrity at all times.	A management environment must ensure each item is identified, accounted for, secured, segregated, and/or
2. What AFI is used by AF organizations that will formally designate in writing; personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel	AFI 31–401.
1. Who is responsible to properly train all personnel required to handle controlled materiel	LRS Chief Inspector.
2. How often are code components inventoried as designated in STRATCOM guidance	At 15, 30 and/or 90 days intervals.
3. How are copies of source documents for classified items stamped or handwritten	Stamped in red ink with the words “Classified Item.”
1. For controlled, sensitive, classified and pilferable items, where are shipping documentation placed	Inside all containers rather than on the outside.
2. What does materiel management activities sign to maintain custodial accountability	DD Form 1907 or carrier furnished document.
3. Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the life cycle of these assets	Item manager.
4. Who accounts for assets at both organic and contract repair facilities	AFMC item management team.

Created by: (T)Sgt C

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