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7 level cdcs 1c072
cdcs
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| (001) What symbol, proceding a task, indicates a wartime core task? | An asterisk |
| (001) What symbol indicates a core task for upgrade training? | An asterisk |
| (001) What symbol indicates a 5 level critical task? | plus |
| (001) To what level do you train and certify the tasks that are required in the current duty position? | to the go/ no go |
| (001) On what form must a supervisor document upgrade training progress, training interruptions and training problems encountered? | AF IMT 623a (CFETP) |
| (002) What documents must be included in an upgrade training case file when a training waiver is requested? | AF IMT 623a commander waiver request letter, letters from the trainer, supervisor, and the group 1C0X2 FM |
| (002) Who is the final approval authority for a training waiver request? | 1C0X2 AFCFM |
| (002) What is the maximum number of months available to upgrade to a 5-skill-level? | 21 months |
| (002) What is the maximum number of months to upgrade to a 7-skill-level? | 24 months |
| (003) Who is responsible for giving HARM training to those not permanently assigned to the HARM? | CHARM |
| (004) What document identifies all tasks performed in the work center? | Master Task List |
| (004) What four main factors should you consider when developing the Master Training List | Mission Requirements, special Training, Mandatory AFMAN 36-2108 |
| (005) How do you deny access to information about freindly capabilities and intentions? | identifying, controlling, and protecting indicators associated with planning and conducting military operations and other activities. |
| (005) What is the objective of OPSEC? | Mission effectiveness |
| (005) List the sequential steps necessary for implementing OPSEC | 1-Indentification of critical Information 2- Analysis of threats 3- Analysis of risk 4- Assessment of risk 5- Application of appropriate measures |
| (005) What AFI provides guidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities? | AFI 10-701 |
| (006) Why are cell phones usually prohibited in areas where classified discussions take place? | your voice is transmitted through the air on radio waves, which disperse in all directions so that anyone with the right kind of radio receiver can listen in |
| (006) What can you do to prevent the disclosure of classified discussions take place? | Never discuss classified information over the phone and do not "talk around" classified information |
| (006) Explain how radio transmissions are subject to interception by enemy stations | Electromagnetic energy radiates into space each time an operator keys a radio transmittion |
| (007) What AFI provides guidance for the required AFIs that must be maintained at the HARM, SARM, and TARM office | AFI 11-421 |
| (007) How are standard Air Force publications identified? | Series numbers, control number, and title |
| (007) What determines the series number of a standard publication? | Subject matter of each publication |
| (007) What would be the designation of the first supplement to AFI 11-401 issued by Air mobility Command (AMC) | AFI 11-401/ AMC Supplement 1 |
| (007) What AFI outlines the required publishing that must be maintained in the SARM | AFI 11-421 |
| (008) Which regulation contains general information about the Defense Joint Military Pay System? | DFAS DE Manual 7073-2 |
| (008) Which regulation is referred to as the DoD Pay Manual? | DOD 7000.14-R- Financial Management Vol 7A |
| (008) Which chapter of the DoD Pay Manual provides information on elibility for parachute pay? | Chapter 24, Parachute Duty |
| (009) Name the three phases of the aircrew training program. | 1- Initial qualification training 2- Mission Qualification 3- Continuation |
| (009) What is the purpose of initial qualification training (IQT)? | to train an individual for basic aircrew duties in an assigned position for a specific aircraft, without regard to the unit's operational mission |
| (009) What are the requirements for requalification for an aircrew member that has been unqualified for four years? | Complete appriate retraining |
| (009) What are the three statuses of Phase III- Continuation Training? | 1- Mission Ready Combat mission ready 2- Basic mission capable or mission support 3- Basic aircraft qualification |
| (009) Which status of continuation training would apply to an aircrew member who is capable of performing the unit mission, but it is not their primary job? | Basic Mission Capable |
| (010) What are the four basic factors used to build a flying schedule? | 1- Mission Requirements 2- Equipment or aircraft availablity 3- Allocated Flying hours 4- Aircrew Avalability |
| (URE) If an STS (Specialty Training Standard) element in Part II of the CFETP has an asterisk (*) sign in the Core Task column, the * sign identifies what the 3,5, or 7 level? | Core Task |
| (URE) A supervisor needs to submit a training waiver for 5-level upgrade training when a trainee will pass how many months in upgrade training | 21 months |
| (URE) Which document would not be included in a case file for training waiver? | Trainee's request letter |
| (URE) Who is required to give host aviation resource management training to those not permanently assigned to the HARM? | CHARM |
| (URE) The requirement for the CHARM to establish a career-broadening program at a base comes from AFI 11- | 421 |
| (URE) What consideration for identifying a Master Task List would include looking at additional duties and periodic procedures listed on an AF IMT 797? | Special Training |
| (URE) Which functional area maintains flight/jump record folders? | Host Aviation Resource Management (HARM) |
| (URE) Which functional area would maintain an AF IMT 8 for all aircrew members? | Standardization and Evaluation office |
| (URE) Critical Information is defined as key questions asked by adversary elements about specific friendly | intentions, capabilities, activities and limitations |
| (URE) What OPSEC factor involves an estimate of an adversary's capability to exploit a vulnerability | Analysis of threats |
| (URE) Three broad categories of the most exploitable OPSEC vulnerabilities are a telephone, physical environment and STU-III | telephone, radio bcommunication and physical environment |
| (URE) What AFI provides quidance on OPSEC vulnerabilities? | 10-701 |
| (URE) Who can order publications that are not yet available electronically? | CAR Customer Account Representative |
| (URE) What chapter in DoD 7000.14-R has information in incentive pay for parachutists? | 24 |
| (URE) What category of training would be required for a pilot whose aircraft assignment changed from an F-15E to an F-15C? | Conversion/ difference |
| (URE) What category of training would be required for a newly assigned navigator to perform a command or unit mission in their assigned aircraft? | Mission Qualification |
| (URE) What scheduling factor is considered the most flexible? | Aircrew availability |
| (011) Under which window in the system module of ARMS can you unlock, create, and delete user IDs? | User Administrative |
| (011) How many days does a user have to change their initial password? | within 1 day of user ID assighnment |
| (012) What is the purpose of the AWG? | concentrate on issues affecting ARMS implementation, techical operations, continued maintentance, and modification |
| (012) Who should a functional user of ARMS, at the base level, call to report problems with ARMS? | Base ARMS Adversary Group |
| (013) What group prioritizes suggested changes to the ARMS database? | ASG the ARMS Steering Group |
| (013) What is a DIREP? | Diffuculty report (when functionality problems accure documents a problem with ARMS) |
| (014) In what two main categories do data information flow ARMS to MILPDS? | Aircraft and person |
| (014) What data information flows from MILPDS to ARMS? | 34 data elements personal information (Flying Status) date of birth, total active federal military service date, duty AFSC, duty position number, and API code |
| (014) When would data information stored in MILPDS not update the data elements in ARMS? | When the data is blank in the system |
| (015) What is a two character alpha/numeric code that identifies a training program for na specific group of flyers or aircraft? | A training program code |
| (015) What is the primary reference for all of the training requirements for each type of aircrew member authorized onboard a specific MDS? | AFI 11-2MDS specific |
| (016) What is the purpose of the tailor assignment option in ARMS? | Allows the manipulation of one individuals training requirements without affecting every individual with the same training profile |
| (016) What is the difference between tailor assignment and proration? | Proration will reduce the requirements for every task listed in the training profile for one individual. Tailor manipulation of one individual aircrew member training requ. w/o affecting every aircrew member |
| (017) What source document is required to change an aircrew certification code? | AF MTI 4324 |
| (017) In order to update the second character of the aircrew certification code, what ARMS windows must you update? | Flyer, Aircraft Assignment, Profile Assignment |
| (018) When should you reveiw the master training list and why? | When you modify traing tasksin a training profile, reveiw to determine the accuracy of the changes |
| (018) Why would a scheduler find the unit currency summary useful | Provides a six month for planning purposes, priority scheduling of training requirements |
| (019) Processing flight time in ARMS includes what three tasks? | Audit source document (781: AFTO form 781), 3520 Input flight time into ARMS Audit the Flying Time Update Summary |
| (019) Once you receive all AFTO 781s and AF IMT 3520 for a period, how many days do you have to process the documents in ARMS? | Within three working days |
| (019) Which ARMS report do you retrieve to audit the AFTO Forms 781? | Flying Time Update Summary |
| (020) What flying hour product displays an aircrew member's flying hours for the last 30, 60, 90 days? | Individual Flight Data |
| (020) What flying hour products do you reveiw during a records review? | Individual Flight Record and Flying History Report (IDS, FHR) |
| (020) What AFI do you reference for required source documents to change flight time? | AFI 11-401 |
| (020) What jump reports do you review during a records review? | Individual Jump Record IJR,Jump history Report JHR |
| (021) What is a business area? | A set of related information with a common purpose |
| (021) What type of layout would you use if you wanted to show how one item relates to another? | Cross Tab |
| (021) Why should you validate the worksheet? | Verify the accuracy of the data, ARMS database |
| (021) What action do you take if the data requested is not correct? | Review source document Check source document against data entered into ARMS |
| (URE) What aviation resource management system window is used to limit update capability to the | Security |
| (URE) What ARM group concentrates on issues affecting ARMS implementation, technical operations, continued maintenance, and modification of ARMS? | AWG (Arms Working Group) |
| (URE) What aviation resource management group prioritizes which AF IMT 3215s will be implemented to enhance the ARMS database | Arms Steering Group |
| (URE) Whaen the ARMS interfaces with the MILPDS, under which two categories is the information listed? | Aircraft and personnel |
| (URE) If the informayion in the MILPDS element is blank, the | data will not overwrite the data in ARMS |
| (URE) To group various task IDs in a logical manner for easy management, the ARMS database uses a training | profile |
| (URE) What ARMS window is used to add, delete, prorate, or tailor an individual's training profile? | Training profile |
| (URE) The source document required for changing the aircrew certification code is an AF IMT | 4324 |
| (URE) What ARMS window is used to update the aircraft for a copilot who upgraded to a pilot? | Aircraft Assignment |
| (URE) What ARMS report do you use to reveiw every profile assigned to the aircrew members in a flying squadron? | Training Profile Assignment list |
| (URE) Guidance on how to complete an AFTO Form 781 is in the AFI 11 | 11-401 |
| (URE) If an Oracle Discoverer browser neededn to be designed to retrieve data on aircrew ratings, what business area would you search in to retrieve the data? | Resource Information |
| (If a flight time error is discovered on the flying history report during a records review guidance on the required source documents to change flight time in the ARMS is in AFI 11 | 11-421 |
| (URE) What type of display do you use to show the data in a matrix of rows and columns? | Crosstab |
| (022) What congressional act set standards of minimum experience (OFDA) rated officers must achieve to receive continuous ACIP? | Aviation Career Incentive Act (ACIA) of 1974 |
| (022) What congressional act increased OFDA requirements necessary to receive continuous ACIP at the 12 and 18 year gates? | Aviation Career Improvement Act 1989 |
| (022) What congressional act decreased OFDA requirement necessary to receive continuous ACIP at the 12 year gate only? | FY 96 National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) |
| (022) What congressional act established CEAs? | FY 00 National Defense Authorization Act |
| (022) What congressional act added ABMs to the rated inventory? | FY 00 National Defense Authorization Act |
| (023) What codes are used to manage the rated inventory and manpower positions? | API Aircrew position Indicators for rated officers |
| (023) What code is used by operations to give detailed information about an aircrew member's flying activity? | FAC Flying Activity Code |
| (023) What crew position must be logged by a flight surgeon assigned to API 0 when tasked to perform non-crew duties during a CCAT mission? | FZ |
| (024) In order for an inactive CEA member to attend a formal flying qualification course prior to PCS from an inactive flying position, what FAC would be required? | FAC E |
| (024) What API code do you assign to a CEA in a staff or supervisory position at wing level and below that has responsibilities and duties that require the incumbents to fly actively? | B |
| (025) What DAFSC prefix identifies a non-rated officer who is the squadron operations officer? | B |
| (025) What DAFS prefixes identify non-CEA enlisted member who is an aircrew instructor? | K |
| (026) A flying unit commander would convene what type of board for a pilot who consistently violates flying regulations? | Flying Evaluation Board FEB |
| (026) A flying unit commander would convene what type of board for a CEA who consistently shows lack of judgement in the performance of aircrew duties? | Aircrew Evaluation Board AEB |
| (026) What AFI provides guidance for FEB procedures? | 11-402 |
| (027) What is the purpose of a ARB? (Aeronautical rating board) | Examine Flying Training, experience, and qualifications to determine if the applicant has rate potential comparable to ASAF rated officers |
| (027) Who is the final approval authority for ARB waivers? | MAJCOM/DO |
| (028) What is a man-year? | Specific budgetary obligation of funds to support payment of incentive pay for one individual for one fiscal year |
| (028) When is a man month considered used? | Operational Support member meets minimum flying hour requirements to receive conditional HDIP |
| (029) What AFI do you reference for guidance on publishing AOs for an aerospace physiologist? | 11-401 |
| (029) What AFI do you reference for policies that apply to non-interference flyers? | 11-401 |
| (030) What jump status must be filled by a designated UMD parachutist position? | Active Jump Status |
| (030) What jump status can be authorized no more than 180 days? | Temp Jump Status |
| (030) What jump status can be authorized no more than 12 months? | Permissive |
| (031) What are the four requirements for initiating parachutist status? | Jump UMD position Commander's request Letter Altitude Chamber for Military Free Fall HALO |
| (031) What date would be used to publish an AO initiating Air Force parachutist service for members initially assigned to an authorized jump UMD position? | Use the formal Jump School training class start date |
| (032) What product do you review to find all authorized manpower positions for a unit? | Unit Manpower Document UMD |
| (032) What product do you review to find out what individuals are assigned to a manpower position? | Unit Management Personnel Roster UMPR |
| (032) What API codes cannot be double billeted for more than 30 days for flying purposes? | 5,6,8 and B, D |
| (033) What are the purposes listed in this lesson for which the IDS can be used? | Verify an individuals ARMS record was created correctly, review a member's record prior to updates or changes, and document accomplishment of the annual records reveiw |
| (033) How is the Aviation Service Period Suspense List divided? | three parts error records valid records new records |
| (033) When would you request the Aviation Service Period Suspense List and what actions would you take? | Monthly, at the beginning of each month; audit daily for possible changes to an individual's aviation service. |
| (033) What is the purpose of the Aviation Management Suspense List?(AMSL) | Identify errors in a members ARMS records and to identify resource management actions required in the near future |
| (033) Which part of the Aviation Management Suspense List would you review to monitor parachutists whose jump requirement has terminated? | Part 1 ASC 06 |
| (033) What is part 8 of the Aviation Management Suspense List used for? | To track rated officers and CEAs who have not flown an OFDA creditable flight during the last three months |
| (034) What is the purpose of an AO? | Validate individual qualification for aviation and parachutist service, to authorize and direct individual performance of duty that involves frequent and regular participation in aerial flight |
| (034) What is the purpose of an AO? | parachutist duties and to establish or terminate individual entitlement to ACIP, CEFIP, HDIP |
| (034) List four common reasons for an AO | Assign Aircraft Award Badge Start or end the member's requirement to perform operational flight duty Change termination date |
| (034) What source document would be used to medically disqualify a rated member? | AFI IMT 1042 |
| (034) What type of AO would be used to fix a minor typo error on a perviously published AO? | Amendment |
| (034) What type of AO would be published to delete an AO which was void and without effect from the start? | Revocation |
| (034) What AFI would be used for guidance on effective dates for AOs | 11-401 |
| (034) What should the remark section of an AO explain? | The why, when, and how of the action that was taken. |
| (035) What are the three primary purposes for the AF IMT 1042? | Medically clear a member for flying Medically ground or disqualify a member document a member's understanding of the medical action taken |
| (035) What AFI requires the flight medicine office and the servicing HARM office to exchange pertinent flight medical and aviation management data? | AFI 11-401 |
| (035) What window in ARMS is used to update a flight physical? | Flyer Availability Window |
| (035) What keyboard key would be used to display a list of values for physical availability codes? | F9 |
| (036) How long is an AF IMT 1042 maintained in the suspense file for a pilot? | 365 days |
| (036) Who is required to complete original physiological training? | Pilots, navigators, air battle manager |
| (036) How long is an AF IMT 1042 maintained in the suspense file for a non-ratedofficer? | 120 days |
| (036) What is the purpose of refresher physiological training? | To re-certify training for aircrew members who have completed original training |
| (036) If an individual completed physiological training on 15 Dec 2001, when is the due date? | 31 Dec 2006 |
| (037) Who will document completion of Qualification Centrifuge Training? | A qualified aerospace physiologist will document completion of training on AFI IMT 702 |
| (037) What is the source document for documenting completion of centrifuge training? | AF IMT 702 Individual Physiological Training Record |
| (038) What AFI sets procedures and standards to award aeronautical ratings and badges? | AFI 11-402 |
| (038) What ARMS report can be used to track eligibility for advance ratings? | Aviation Management Suspense List (AMSL) |
| (0380 What are the three requirements reviewed prior to publishing an AO for award of an advance rating? | Years of rated service, military time, OFDA |
| (039) What are the three types of non rated aviation badges? | Officer aircrew Enlisted aircrew Flight Nurse |
| (039) What AFI outlines the requirements for an advance aircrew member badge? | AFI 11-402 |
| (039) What from must be completed to apply for the award of the Air Force parachutist badge? | AF IMT 196 |
| (040) What codes, when combined, form a member's ASC? | ESC Entitlement Status Code and FSC Flying Status Code |
| (040) What is the importance of the ASC effective date? | It determines when the member's flying duties OFDA credit for rated officers/ CEAs and incentive pay will start/stop |
| (040) Besides the primary directive for assigning ASCs, what other instruction provides guidance? | AFI 11-402 |
| (040) What is the purpose of an entitlement status code? | Identifies an aircrew member's entitlement to continuous or conditional pay |
| (040) What is the ESC for a CEA on conditional incentive pay status with 17 years of aviation service? | ESC F for CEA |
| (040) What is the ESC for a operational support member? | ESC 9 |
| (040) What information does the FSC reveal about an aircrew member? | Current flying status and weather the member is active, inactive, suspended, or disqualified |
| (040) What is the FSC for an active parachutist? | FSC E |
| (041) What is the ESC of a rated, nonrated, or an operational support member who is disqualified for aviation service? | ESC 0 |
| (041) What is the flying status code for an aircrew member who has disqualified for medical reasons? | FSC 3 |
| (042) What type of pay will a CEA with an ESC A receive? | Continuous |
| (042) What are the requirements to receive an OFDA credit for January? | Active FSC of A, U, X, Z 15 days of the month |
| (042) If a CEA member is assigned an ASC of 1A from 15-31 January, is the CEA entitled to an OFDA credit for the month? | yes |
| (042) When applying flying hours towards eligibility for conditional flight pay, hours flown in the month of feb can be used up to which month? | July (five months forward) |
| (042) When does a grace period begin? | The first month flight requirements aren't made |
| (042) What are the type types of parachute pay? | Type 1- Static Line Type 2 High Altitude low opening |
| (042) What rule would apply to a parachutist who is unable to perform a jump because of military operations of command or absence of jump equipment or aircraft? | Rule 3 |
| (043) What type of scale in the monthly requirement based on? | 30 days |
| (043) What is the IAD hour requirement for an ARC aircrew member every month? | 2.0 |
| (043) When can AD hours be used outside of the month flown? | On active duty orders in excess of 30 days or AD period extends unbroken over parts of two months |
| (044) What ARMS report do you use in conjunction with the AF IMT 1520 to monitor entitlement for Flight pay? | Flying Pay Control Document |
| (044) What ARMS report do you use in conjunction with the AF IMT 1521 to monitor entitlement to jump pay? | Jump Pay Control Document |
| (044) When would the HARM office use a DD Form 114? | When pay action is needed/ but no AOs is not required |
| (044) How many days does AFO have to process MPOs? | 5 working days |
| (044) How is the EVR/ARMS database audit conducted? | systematically check each entry on the EVR against the entries on the database report. Ensure aircrew member listed on EVR appear on the database report and members on the database report appears on EVR |
| (044) After the audit is complete, what is done with the EVR? | CHARM signs it and returns a copy to the AFO |
| - What document describes an Air Force Specialty (AFS) in detail and highlights the education and training neccessary for career progression. | CFETP |
| (045) What ARMS window is used to update a lump sum of flight time? | Aircraft Hours Window |
| - What ARMS window shows an aircrew member's crew position and Career Total information | The Career Total Hours |
| (045) What AFI would provide guidance for the authorized source documents to change flight time? | AFI 11-401 |
| (046) If a FRF/JRF is lost or destroyed, how can military pay actions be verified? | Contact the local AFO for pay history |
| (046) What action must be performed if the HARM office is unable to locate a missing document after all reasonable efforts have failed to locate it? | Prepare a memo for record detailing the actions taken and reasons, if known, that the document is missing. |
| (046) What AFI provides guidance on proper HARM office in/out processing procedures? | 11-421 |
| -What is an Aeronautical order used for? | it is used to validate individual qualification for aviation and parachutist service, to authorize and direct individual performance of duty that involves frequent and regular participation in aerial flight and to establish or termina.... |
| (URE) What congressional act increased the OFDA requirements at the 12 and 18- year gates? | ACIA of 1989 |
| (URE) What code identifies a rated officer manpower position? | API |
| (URE) Who is the office of responsibility for the assignment and update of an API code for a CEA? | (Either CSS, or HARM, not sure) |
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DCote22
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