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3E052

Power Pro Vol 2

QuestionAnswer
What tool measures the depth of an item? Depth Gauge
What tool do you use when you must tighten a nut or bolt to a given amount of pressure? Torque handle
To what accuracy does the micrometer measure? One ten-thousandth (0.0001) of an inch
What part of the micrometer is the support for all components? Frame
What part of the micrometer is the stationary measuring surface? Anvil
What part of the micrometer has a stationary scale that is graduated in twenty-five thousandths of an inch? Barrel
Once you reach a certain pressure, what part of the micrometer starts to slip in the direction in which you are turning? Ratchet stop
What part of the micrometer secures the thimble in place and to protect against the accidental moving of the scale once you take the measurement? Lock
What tightness indicates you are to stop turning the thimble of the micrometer when you are measuring a component? Snug fit.
What component converts reciprocating motion, up and down, into rotary motion, round and round? Crankshaft.
What is the name of the top of the piston? Crown
What component transfers the power of the piston to the crankshaft? Connecting rod.
What component forms the top of the combustion chamber? Cylinder head.
What type of energy does the flywheel continually store and release to smooth the erratic operation of the engine? Kinetic.
What term describes the complete movement of a piston? Stroke.
What term describes a complete series of events? Cycle.
What term describes the use of fresh air entering the combustion chamber and pushing the burned gases out? Scavenging.
On a two stroke engine, how long does the power stroke continue? Until the exhaust valve opens.
On a two stroke engine, what pushes the exhaust gases out of the combustion chamber? The inrush of intake air.
On a two stroke engine, what creates this movement of intake air? Blower.
On a two stroke engine, what is the position of the valves and how is the piston moving during the compression event? Both valves closed and the piston moving upward.
What provides an electrical spark in the combustion chamber at the proper time to ignite the air/fuel mixture? Ignition system.
What prevents the voltage in an ignition system from arcing across the breaker points, causing them to burn? Condenser.
What type of ignition system uses a permanent magnet to provide the power? Magneto.
When you make an adjustment the low-speed air/fuel mixture by initially adjusting the needle valve all the way in, what adjustment do you then make? Backing it off 1½ turns.
What can you use to get better adjustments of the air/fuel mixtures of a carburetor? Vacuum gauge.
What do you use to check the gap of a spark plug to make sure it is at the specified distance? Thickness gauge.
What fits into irregularities that exist on surfaces as you connect two engine components? Gaskets.
Generally, from where do you remove the camshaft from the engine? Front of the engine.
How do you time camshafts of gear-driven diesels to the crankshaft? Aligning special marks placed on the gears by the manufacturer.
Generally in how many stages do you tighten the cylinder head to the specified torque? 3.
What type of corrosion can be one of the most common forms of corrosion as well as one of the most destructive? Galvanic.
What type of corrosion do we find most on aluminum? Pitting.
What type of corrosion is a further form of inter-granular corrosion associated with high strength aluminum alloys? Exfoliation.
What is the key to a good corrosion control program? Preventive maintenance.
How does oil with high viscosity flow and pour? In a sluggish manner.
What characteristic does oil with the grade of Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE) 5W–40 contain during cold winter months? SAE 5W.
What is the ability of a thin layer of oil to hold together when we apply heavy loads to it? Film strength.
What is the property that makes oil capable of holding foreign particles suspended until the filter can remove them? Detergency.
Against what does the protective film of oil seal the internal engine parts? Oxygen and moisture in the air.
Which oil pressure gauge uses direct pressure on the gauge to indicate the pressure? Mechanical.
What is a protective device that shuts the engine down if oil pressure gets low? Oil pressure switch.
Where does oil go once the cool, clean oil leaves the filter? Main oil gallery.
What is one way for oil to get to and spray the valve train components? Hollow push rods.
What can reduce the cooling capacity of the oil storage system? Low oil levels.
What component collects most contaminates in the lubricating oil? Oil filter.
For how long do you operate the engine before you change the engine oil? Until it reaches operating temperature.
You are adding new oil into the system; before you close the drain to push the old oil remaining in the bottom of the sump out, when do you close the drain? Once the oil pouring out of the drain becomes clear.
What, in addition to sulfur from the fuel, may get into the engine oil and form sulfuric acid? Water from the cooling system or condensation.
What is the dilution level of fuel of the test sample you create a by adding fuel to a sample of new oil.? 5 percent.
If you are required to replace the oil pump, what must you do prior to replacing the pump? Be sure the engine is cool.
What provides the oil pressure gauge with an electrical signal to allow you to read the oil pressure at which the engine is operating? Oil pressure sending unit.
To replace an oil pressure switch, how do you prevent the generator from starting? Disconnect the negative side of the battery.
What is usually constructed in a series of wooden slats, one above the other, set in at an angle? Cooling towers.
What type of system allows the coolant’s boiling point to rise, allowing more effective cooling of the engine? Pressurized system.
What type of system uses a radiator to cool the hot liquid as it leaves the engine and is the most common system you work with in the power production field? Closed.
What type of system uses cooling water to collect the heat from the jacket water in the heat exchanger, which then flows through a cooling tower? Combination.
What directs the air to the proper sections of an engine to gather heat and then directs it back into the atmosphere? Special shrouding.
A thermostat operates using a theory of expansion and contraction.
What causes the need to use a wire-reinforced hose in the cooling system to prevent the hose’s collapse? High suction from the water pump.
What collects the heat from the coolant in a radiator to transfer it to the air? Fins.
What uses an airtight fit onto the radiator and close tolerances with the cooling fan to prevent recirculation of the hot air into the radiator? Fan shrouds.
What two factors determine whether the fan is suction or blowing? Pitch of the blade and the direction that the fan spins.
What drives the fan on an air cooled engine either directly or through gears? Crankshaft.
Where does coolant enter the engine to ensure there is always coolant in contact with all internal engine components? Lower portion.
What causes coolant to recirculate the coolant back to the water pump to pass through the water jacket again? Thermostat closing.
What allows coolant in the radiator core to cool for a longer period of time before it reenters the water jacket? Thermostat opening.
At what pressures do most cooling systems operate? 10 to 15 psi.
What opens a valve on the radiator cap, thus allowing coolant to move from the expansion tank to the radiator? Vacuum.
What coolant additive is critical for summer time operations because it also raises the temperature at which water boils? Ethylene glycol
What mixture of coolant provides protection to –60ºF? 60 percent ethylene glycol to 40 percent water.
How do you add antifreeze to an engine while it is operating? Mix it thoroughly with a small amount of water.
When do you look for any changes as you mix the solution to for diesel coolant additives (DCA)? After each drop.
For what do you inspect the water pump impeller’s ceramic seal? Chips, cracks, and rough conditions.
When you are inspecting a radiator, what must be straight and free of debris? Fins.
Where do you check the tension of belts using the back of your hand and a ruler? Midway between the pulleys.
What property of belts causes you to always replace belts as a set? Stretch slightly over time.
What coolant heater is installed internally in the engine block in place of a freeze plug? Immersion.
Into what engine component are glow plugs installed? Intake manifolds.
What component do two stroke engines have that serves the same purpose as the intake manifold of four-stroke engines? Air box.
How many lobes do the blowers most commonly used on today’s engines have on each rotor? 3.
What type of blower is a turbocharger that is driven by the exhaust gases? Centrifugal.
In what component might you see leaks because of the carbon-colored discoloration of parts or surfaces adjacent to the leak? Exhaust manifold.
In what component can you often see a leak as dust or smoke blowing from the joint during startup to identify a leak? Expansion joint.
What is a major factor in erosion in the exhaust silencer? Contamination in the fuel oil.
What does supporting the entire weight of the muffler prevent, which eliminates premature failure? Over stressing the expansion joint.
What is created by using gear reduction starters that use an internal gear to drive the pinion gear? Increases the amount of torque at the flywheel.
What prevents damage to the starter motor during engine startup from overspeed conditions? Overrun clutch.
What battery charger component decreases the input voltage to required output voltage to provide the battery with a charge? Power transformer.
What battery charger component rectifies alternating current output of power transformer to direct current.? Power diode.
What is the insulated wire of the coil, also called the field winding, wrapped around? Soft iron core.
What component is the stationary conductor on the battery-charging alternator? Stator.
What do we consider less fuel in the mixture to be? Lean.
What part of the carburetor maintains a constant level of fuel in the bowl? Float.
What is a restriction in the air passage of a carburetor? Venturi.
When you are adjusting the idle speed on a carburetor, what are you adjusting by turning the screw in (clockwise)? Increase the engine speed.
When you are adjusting the main jet by turning the adjusting needle out (counterclockwise), you are making the mixture richer.
What fuel system component may be inside or outside the facility and should hold enough fuel to last for at least 72 hours of operation at full load? Storage tank.
As the plunger of a mechanical injector moves up, what allows fuel to flow into the injector cup? Opening the metering orifice.
What happens as the plunger moves downward in a mechanical injector? Increasing the pressure of the fuel in the cup.
How high can the pressure be in a hydraulic fuel injector? 5,000 psi.
What are the two most common types of multiple plunger inline fuel injection system? Port and helix type and the sleeve type.
What determines the length of the effective stroke in a port and helix multiple plunger inline fuel injection system? The position of helix in relation to the spillway.
What determines the amount of fuel delivered to the cylinder for combustion in a multiple plunger inline fuel injection system? Effective stroke of the plunger.
As engine speed increases with a pressure timed (PT) fuel injection system, what does the increase in pressure and fuel and the shorter amount of time the injector opens determine? How much fuel reaches the combustion chamber.
What type of distributor-type injection pump has a single-cylinder, opposed-plunger pump? Roosa Master.
What type of distributor-type injection pump contains a cylinder and plunger? AMBAC.
In a Roosa Master type of distributor-type injection pump, what do the pistons follow to pressurize the fuel? Cam ring.
When you are timing an inline plunger fuel injection pump, at what position do you place the engine’s number one cylinder? TDC of the compression stroke.
Which fuel injection system does not require timing since it is simply a medium pressure transfer pump? Cummins pressure timed (PT) fuel system.
Which fuel system uses timing marks on the control rack that you must align with the marks on the internal gear that the plunger slides through for timing the system? Unit fuel injection system.
What happens if you undertighten the strainer when you install it? Allows particles to get through the strainer.
What fuel system component can cause the cylinder head valve seats to be warped if you overtighten the clamp studs? Injector.
To where do the flyweights move as the engine speed increases causing the centrifugal force to become greater than the spring tension? Outward.
What hydraulic governor system component controls the movement of the hydraulic fluid to control the governor operation? Pilot valve plunger.
What hydraulic governor system component floats in a cylinder with a linkage rod connected to it? Power piston.
Where can you usually find the droop control on a PSG hydraulic governor? Back side of the governor out of the line of sight.
What portion of the governor prevents overcorrection of speed changes? Compensation.
What electronic governor component uses a back and forth movement of a magnetic field to induce alternating current (AC) voltage in the coil? Magnetic pickup (MPU).
What opposes the movement of the plunger in an electro-hydraulic actuator pushing it away from the coil? Spring.
When you are making adjustments to the magnetic pickup, what is the maximum that you turn it in at any time? 1/8 turn.
What electronic governor adjustment sets the sensitivity of the module? Gain.
What electronic governor adjustment sets the normal operating speed of the engine? Running speed.
Created by: rentedred