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HM Manual Fall 2014

HM Manual 14295B

On March 2, 1799, Congress mandated that all new ships have ________. Cockpit/sickbay
Who was the first Loblolly boy? John Wall
What is the Corpsman birthday? June 17, 1898
Who signed the Act of Congress deciding this date? William Mckinley
What were some other names of Loblolly boys? Baymen, Apothecaries, Male Nurses
Who was the first HM to be given the Medal of Honor? HA Robert Stanley
When was the current HM rank structure put in effect? April 2, 1948
When did the Dental Tech rating merge with the Hospital Corps? 2005
How many Medals of Honor have HM’s received? Navy Crosses? Distinguished Service Medals? Medal of Honor: 22. Navy Cross:174. Distinguished Service Medal: 31
How many ships are named after HMs? 14
What is the location of all our reports as HMs? MANMED NAVMED P-117
Severe injuries, conditions which may affect health of the crew, and damage/loss of equipment are all items which _______. Must be reported
What is a management tool used to track dental/medical readiness of Sailors? MRRS - Medical Readiness Reporting System
What are two types of directives? Temporary and Permanent
How long may a notice be in effect? Up to 12 months
What is a change transmittal for? To issue instructions and notices
How are change transmittals numbered? Consecutively (1, 2, 3…)
How many sub-groups are the SSICs divided into? 3
Individual medical readiness is composed of what? Medical equip., Imms, Readiness Lab Studies, Deployment Limiting Conditions, PHA, Dental
An oral condition which will cause a dental emergency within 12 months is Class __. 3
Needing a dental exam or having an unknown oral condition is Class __. 4
Fleet hospitals are made to be used in operations greater than __ in length. 60 days
What does AHLTA stand for? Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application
Emergency dental care is authorized for whom? All personnel worldwide
What is the purpose of the Family Advocacy Plan? To identify and monitor spouse/child abuse
What are two types of consent? Expressed (informed) and implied
Who should NOT be a witness to consent? A staff member involved in the procedure or a family member
What report should not be put in a patient’s medical record? Quality care report
DoN will give to any person all documents requested, as long as the person does what? (Personnel files are EXEMPT) Reasonably describes the records and pays for search/photocopy costs.
What does HIPAA stand for? Health Information Portability & Accountability Act
What year was it enacted? 1996
What are the 3 types of secondary medical records? Convenience, Ancillary, Temporary
Death, retirement, discharge, MIA, desertion and transfer to inactive duty are all reasons to ____. Close a medical record.
Where should a retiree’s dental record be sent? National Personnel Records Center
How must a record be sent to the VA to be considered as a primary source of evidence in a claim for VA’s benefits? Directly from the MTF
Where are alcohol & tobacco use recorded in the medical record? Medical Alert: Chronic Illness
Should one or both sides of an SF 600 be used when a person is seen at a different MTF? Both sides
When a person has a med board, should the evaluation be transcribed onto the SF600, or should the report be put in the medical record? Put report in the medical record.
On the inside front cover of the dental record, forms should be filed as follows, front to back: Unmounted radiographs in envelops, sequential bitewing radiograph, pantographic radiograph.
What is a source for the purchase of non-medical admin material (ex. Cleaning gear)? SERVMART
Requisitions exceeding the current competitive threshold of $____ must get quotes from at least __ vendors. $3,000; 3 vendors
Controls established to ensure one person does not award, initiate, and receive materials are called what? Separation of functions
What does NIIN stand for? National item identification number
What are items ordered by a customer that are to be issued to the customer? Direct turnover items
What is suspended “J” stock? Storage for material unsuitable for issue.
What are three types of maintenance? Scheduled, unscheduled, and no maintenance required.
Who has primary responsibility for management of medical equipment? Command Equipment Manager
What are 2 basic expectations of a BIOMED tech? Recognize major components of equipment and perform routine (level I) maintenance.
What is level III maintenance considered? Depot-level/manufacturer service center level.
What is the study of body structures & the relationship of one part to another? Anatomy
What is the study of how the body works and how the parts function? Physiology
What is near or toward the midline of the body? Away from it? Medial; Lateral
What is toward the lower end of the body? Caudal
What is the position of lying on either side? Lateral recumbent
What are the 3 characteristic functions for survival? Digestion, metabolism, homeostasis
What is a unicellular animal? Amoeba
Where is genetic material stored in the cell? Nucleus
What are the 3 types of muscle tissue? Skeletal, smooth, cardiac
What is the thin outer membrane of the bone? Periosteum
What is the elongated, cylindrical part of the bone? Diaphysis
What are the ends of the bone? Epiphysis
What are the 4 types of bones? Give an example of each. Long/femur, short/wrist, flat/sternum, irregular/pelvic bones
What does the axial skeleton include? Skull, vertebrae, thorax
What does the Appendicular skeleton include? Upper & lower extremities.
What are the seams where the skull bones meet called? Sutures
Men have __ million RBCs/mm3. Five million
Women have __ million RBCs/mm3. 4.5 million
What allows RBCs to carry O2 and CO2? Hemoglobin
What is a condition where a muscle cramps and refuses to move? Fatigue
What is the longest muscle in the body? Sartorius
What are the types of joint movement? Gliding, angular, rotation, circumduction
What are the names of the two processes at the proximal end of the femur? Greater and lesser trochanters
What are the 3 types of joints? Immovable, slightly moveable, freely moveable
What are the 3 parts composing the innominate? Ilium, ischium, pubis
What is the cuplike structure into which the head of the femur fits? Acetabulum
How many carpal bones are there? Eight
Is the thumb the first or the fifth finger? First
How many phalanges does each finger have? 3, except the thumb which has two
The sacrum is composed of how many vertebrae which fuse together between the ages of 18-30? Five
What is the pectoral girdle composed of? The clavicles and scapulae
How many vertebrae are in the vertebral column? 24
How many are cervical vertebrae? Thoracic? Lumbar? 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar
What are the names of the first and second cervical vertebrae? Atlas and axis
What is the mental protuberance? Chin
What is a common area to inject anesthetic in dental procedures? Mandibular foramen
What forms the floor and sides of the orbits? Sphenoid bone
What forms the posterior section of the hard palate and the floor of the nasal cavity? Palatine bone
What forms the nasal septum? Vomer
How long to RBCs live? 100-120 days
What is a normal WBC count? 6,000-8,000/mm3
What is a normal WBC count during infection? 15,000-20,000/mm3
What is the average platelet count? 250,000/mm3
What is the name of the top number in a BP reading? Bottom number? Systolic/diastolic
What is the name of the fibers which stimulate the cardiac muscle of the ventricles? Purkinje fibers
How many miles of capillaries are in the body? 60,000 miles
What is the function of valves in the veins? Prevent backflow
What is the largest artery in the body? Aorta
What are the only veins which carry oxygenated blood? Pulmonary
What is the most commonly used vein for venipuncture? Median cubital
Which vein is used for injections in the ankle? Great saphenous
What is the fluid which all tissues in the body are bathed in? Interstitial fluid
Once the above fluid enters the lymphatic system, it is then called ____? Lymph
What inside the lymph nodes engulfs and destroys foreign substances? Macrophages
What are molecular markers visible to the immune system? Antigens
What type of cells maintain their capacity for cell division throughout adulthood? Glia
What are the 3 types of neurons? Interneuron, sensory, and motor
How fast can impulses in neurons move? Up to 300 miles/hr.
What is the largest and top-most part of the brain? Cerebrum
What part of the brain is chiefly concerned with balance and coordination? Cerebellum
What are the 3 parts of the brain stem? Medulla Oblongata, Pons, and Midbrain
What are the layers of the brain covering, from outside to inside? Dura mater, arachnoid membrane, pia mater
What is the quantity of spinal fluid bathing the spinal cord? 75 ml
How many pairs of cranial nerves are there? 12
How many pairs of spinal nerves are there? 31
What is the part of the Peripheral Nervous System that functions automatically? Autonomic Nervous System
What are the 2 divisions of the ANS? Sympathetic and Parasympathetic
Which part of the ANS does fight or flight come from? Sympathetic
What is the tympanic membrane? Eardrum
What are the 3 auditory ossicles? Hammer, anvil, stirrup
What is the growth hormone? Somatotropin
When there is not an adequate amount of ADH, the daily urine output increases from 1.5L to how many L? 10-15L
What is this condition called? Diabetes insipidus
Hypothyroidism in kids can lead to a condition characterized by retarded mental/physical development called ____. Cretinism
When islet cells are destroyed, sugar stays in the blood and excess is excreted in the urine. What is this condition? Diabetes mellitus
Why do more foreign objects get stuck in the right bronchi? The right bronchi is larger and straighter than the left bronchi.
How many lobes does each lung have? Right – 3, Left – 2.
What are airtight membranes that cover the outer surface of the lungs and line the chest wall? Pleurae
How much air will the lungs hold when filled to capacity? 6,200 ml
How much air is exchanged with each normal breath? 500 ml
During digestion, these turn to: Complex carbs -> Fats -> Proteins-> Simple sugars Fatty acids Amino acids
What are the primary and secondary digestive enzymes? Pepsinogen and Hydrochloric acid
What are the 3 sections of the small intestine? Duodenum, jejunum, ilium
What is the largest gland in the body? Liver
Schedule I substances have what type of medical use? No accepted medical use
What are the 2 types of gingiva? Attached and unattached
In each quadrant, there are _ anterior and _ posterior teeth. 3 anterior; 5 posterior
Humans have __ primary and __permanent teeth. 20 primary; 32 permanent
What is included in the complete identification of each tooth? Quadrant and full name of tooth
The tissues that surround the teeth are called the what? Periodontium
What are the 3 growth phases of teeth? Growth, calcification, eruption
How many years does it take for permanent teeth to go from crown completion to the tooth emerging? 3 years
Enamel consists of _% inorganic material, _% organic material, and _% water. 96% inorganic; 1% organic; 3% water
Enamel and dentin are both mainly composed of what? Phosphorous and calcium
What is the thin layer of compact bone that forms the tooth socket? Alveolar bone
What is the opening on the apex of each tooth root that allows for the passage of blood vessels and nerves into the tooth? Apical foramen
What are Edward Angle’s 3 profile classes? I – normal; II – deficient in chin length; III-excessive chin length
Which are the first permanent teeth to erupt? Mandibular central incisor
What gives the occlusal surface of a tooth its wrinkled appearance? Supplemental groove
How much saliva do our salivary glands secrete daily? Approximately 1,500 ml
What is a localized collection of pus caused by a bacterial infection? Abscess
What are round, pinpoint, flat, purplish-red spots caused by mucosal or dermal hemorrhage? Petechiae
What type of caries develop in hard to clean depressions of teeth surfaces? Pit and fissure type
What type of caries develop on proximal and lingual surfaces? Smooth surface type
What condition is caused by a bacterial infection resulting from dental caries or fractured teeth? Pulpitis
What is the condition which results when the pulp is inflamed and a small pus-like abscess forms in the pulpal canal? Periapical abscess
What is it called when a tooth is blocked by a physical barrier? Impaction
Diuretics increase the formation of what? Urine
What type of meds produce a rhythmic contraction of the uterus? Oxytocics
What is the study of weights and measures? Metrology
What is the formula to solve percentage problems? (Amount active ingredient x 100%)/amount total preparation
What is an aromatic, sweet, hydroalcoholic solution? An elixir
What is a gelatin shell filled with liquid or solid meds? capsule
What type of prescriptions is filled as: Schedule II: Schedule III, IV, V: General: Narcotics Controlled medications All others
Which type of Rx can never be refilled and must be initially filled within 7 days? Schedule II
Which type of Rx may be refilled 5 times within a 6 month period and must be initially filled within 30 days? Schedule III
All controlled meds must be prescribed on which form? DD1289
If a controlled med must be written on a poly prescription pad, what must be done? It must be the only med prescribed on that form
Ice used in/around food must be made of what? Potable water
What is “the number of microorganisms contaminating an object”? Bioburden/bioload/microbial load
Pathogenic protozoa live freely in nature and must be spread by a ____. Carrier
What can be transmitted through saliva even if there are no active lesions present? HSV-1/oral herpes
What oral disease is characterized by pain, redness, swelling, necrotic white tissue, and foul odor? NUG/necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
What condition results from a short lingual frenulum (tongue-tied)? Ankyloglossia
Vaccines given to personnel to prevent diseases are called what? Prophylactic immunizations
What condition results in loss of teeth supporting bone and increased tooth mobility? Periodontitis
What is an animal capable of transmitting pathogens? Vector
What is Recurrent Apthous Stomatitis? Canker sores
What is the absence of one or more teeth? Anodontia
What is the development of one or more extra teeth? Supernumerary teeth
What is the most common type of gingival disease? Marginal gingivitis
What are the most common areas for oral cancers? Tongue, floor of mouth, lower lip
What are cancerous, dark bluish-purple lesions that involve blood vessels? Kaposi’s sarcoma
Mold spores are easily destroyed by ___. Heat
What are the most common human fungal infections (2)? Ringworm and Athlete’s Foot
Chlorihexidine gluconate is approved as a __. Surgical hand scrub
Iodophors may cause severe what of the skin? Drying
Control of how many components in the chain of events of spreading disease will stop the process? Just one
What type of gloves are 3x more puncture resistant than rubber? Nitrile gloves
Potable water supplies may contain up to __cfu/ml, while water in dental units may end up containing more than ___ cfu/ml. 100cfu/ml; 1,000,000cfu/ml
Flush the HVE with ___ of water when securing the DTR. Greater than 1 quart
What is the name of the HM or nurse who is not scrubbed in during surgery and is free to grab gear? Circulator
When opening a sterile wrap, the first corner should be pulled in which direction? Away from the person opening the pack
How wide of a border around the edge of the sterile field is considered contaminated? 1 inch
How much soap is used when scrubbing in? 6 ml
What does SOAP stand for? Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
What is the main reason for prescribing rest as a therapeutic measure? To prevent further damage when the demands of use exceed ability.
Energy from food is measured in what? Calories
Created by: kevo526