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2R071
CDC's
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What flight is the central agency for monitoring and developing long-range strategies to sustain the health of the fleet? | Maintenance operations |
| Who has the overall responsibility for determining the long-range fleet health maintenance priorities? | Maintenance operations flight commander |
| What are the two major responsibilities of the maintenance management analysis section? | Analyzing and assessing unit and weapon system performance, and managing the Maintenance Information System |
| Who within maintenance management analysis is responsible for ensuring the validity and timely submission of data to meet the major command’s reporting suspenses? | Analysis NCOIC |
| What is a responsibility of the wing aerospace vehicle distribution officer (AVDO)? | Complies with –21 equipment accountability requirements |
| In the event of an accident mishap or impoundment, the maintenance operations flight plans, scheduling, and documentation section | freezes and consolidates aircraft and equipment records |
| Which maintenance operations flight section manages the unit efforts to maintain adequate engine support for mission requirements? | Engine Management |
| During contingencies, the maintenance operations center assumes increased responsibility for coordinating efforts concerning maintenance actions and works with the? | Command Post |
| The maintenance operations center’s internal control is exercised when all resources are in? | a single group |
| The maintenance operations center maintains visual aids that? | show the status and location of each aircraft on station. |
| Which squadron commander is responsible for organizing a maintenance supply liaison function? | Logistics readiness |
| In aircraft configuration management, what type of data is loaded to track aircraft configuration? | Air Force-approved part numbers |
| Responsibility for management of the aircraft configuration management subsystem rests with? | maintenance operations flight maintenance management production |
| In aircraft configuration management, who makes changes to the configuration tables in the Reliability and Maintainability Information System (REMIS) when required by a time compliance technical order modification? | Configurations specialist |
| Modification management is a process of accomplishing modifications to systems to? | correct deficiencies, and improve reliability, maintainability, or capability |
| Temporary–1 modifications temporarily change, add, or remove equipment to provide increased capability for? | special missions |
| An Air Force Form 1067, Modification Proposal, is used? | by using commands to initiate Temporary–1 and Temporary–2 modifications |
| Which commander has final approval authority for the final assessment of maintenance capabilities for “First Look”? | Wing |
| Personnel capability is measured in terms of | maintenance personnel per operational unit |
| Facility capability is computed to determine | how many flying hours the inspection docks can support |
| The deployment control center is activated and controlled by the | Installation deployment officer |
| Improperly palletized cargo, personnel records out of date, and poor communication on deployment times and marshaling schedules during deployment are referred to as | choke points |
| The stage of the deployment in which the plan is executed at the deployed location is known as? | employment |
| Which type of base has the greatest potential for assisting in maintenance of deploying aircraft? | Established operational |
| When the deployment is to a collocated operating base, the facilities are shared | with foreign military |
| Which inspection covers areas deemed critical or important by senior Air Force leaders and major commands (MAJCOM) that are not typically covered in functional inspections? | Compliance inspections (CI) |
| How often should self-inspections be conducted? | Quarterly |
| What should you do to ensure problems found during a self-inspection are resolved? | set deadlines and conduct follow-ups |
| During the development of the annual operational contract, you should check your dock capability, major maintenance and operational events, utilization rates, and | attrition rates |
| Who devises procedures to ensure the maintenance activity receives its quarterly allocation of flying hours? | Major Command |
| Not later than which weekly scheduling meeting of the month does the operations officer provide the next month’s operational requirements to maintenance? | First |
| What should be included as a portion of the detailed support requirements in the maintenance plan? | Foof service requirements |
| The purpose of the weekly utilization and maintenance plan is to? | refine the monthly maintenance plan and provide additional details to it. |
| The process by which a particular aerospace vehicle is selected to fulfill a given sortie or mission is | serial number assignment |
| The weekly plan should be developed and distributed to all maintenance work centers no later than | 1200 hours Friday preceding the effective week. |
| Daily maintenance planning is necessary to incorporate unscheduled maintenance requirements into the daily portion of the weekly maintenance plan | maintenance requirements into the daily portion of the weekly maintenance plan |
| Which organization chooses the debriefing option your unit uses? | Major Command |
| The purpose of daily planning is to verify the daily portion of the weekly maintenance plan with? | maintenance personnel |
| Which Air Force Form sequences required maintenance actions for sortie generation against a specific line number? | 2409 |
| When a sortie generation is finished, who attends a post exercise/contingency “hot wash” meeting to evaluate flow plans for changes or improvements? | Maintenance operations flight plans, scheduling, and documentation |
| Items which are not in any category for to be valid candidates for time change replacements are those items whose | failure would cause an increase in supply requisitioning time |
| Who ensures cartridge-actuated device/propellant-actuated device forecasts are reviewed for accuracy and coordinated with work centers responsible for maintaining these items before submission to the munitions activity? | Maintenance operations flight plans, scheduling, and documentation superintendent |
| The aircraft maintenance unit plans, scheduling, and documentation section orders noncartridge- actuated device/propellant-actuated device or engine time change items up to 60 days and not less than 10 days prior to the need date on an Air Force Form? | 2005 |
| What service life time parameters must a cartridge-actuated device/propellant-actuated device time change item meet for munitions operations to not reissue the part? | 9 months |
| Maintenance operations flight plans, scheduling, and documentation monitors time compliance technical order (TCTO) status and briefs unaccomplished TCTOs within how many days of grounding at the maintenance group level each week? | 30 |
| The time compliance technical order (TCTO) managing agency (maintenance operations flight plans, scheduling, and documentation, engine management, or munitions) attend what monthly supply TCTO meeting? | Reconciliation |
| Which Integrated Maintenance Data System transaction identification code is used to load, change, delete, and inquire all pertinent data required for establishing a job standard? | JFP |
| What Imds transaction identification code provides the capability to inquire the data base to obtain information pertaining to job standards and the ability to inquire a job flow package using any three of the available formats? | JFI |
| The long-range inspection dock forecast for all assigned aircraft is monitored daily and, as a minimum, this forecast includes the? | current month, plus the next two months |
| Who provides a list of items identified as out-of-configuration to the dock chief in the predock package for verification and correction during the major inspection? | Aircraft maintenance unit plans, scheduling, and documentation |
| What Integrated Maintenance Data System transaction identification code inquiry lists all inspections, time changes, and time compliance technical order requirements against a specific aircraft or part/serial number? | ITF |
| What background Integrated Maintenance Data System transaction identification code provides the capability to list maintenance requirements and forecasts of time changes and inspections for equipment specified in the input? | PRA |
| What Integrated Maintenance Data System transaction identification code produces a graphic display of the time remaining to inspection, profile, or time change for each item of equipment under the input equipment designator? | TDI |
| What Integrated Maintenance Data System transaction identification code provides the current operating time for equipment and parts? | COT |
| What item is required to be kept in the aircraft jacket file? | AFTO form 95 |
| Whom do you contact when equipment is received with an incomplete jacket file? | losing organization |
| An aircraft document review is accomplished for units using fully automated Air Force Technical Order 781-series forms at least every | 60 days |
| For cannibalization aircraft, you conduct an aircraft document review at least every | 30 days |
| Inventory reporting is divided into what two distinct types? | Assignment and possession |
| What concept of Air Force Instruction 21–103 reporting is based on exception reporting? | Status |
| What data is considered the number of sorties/hours flown, and the types of missions being flown? | Utilization |
| Which aerospace vehicle distribution officer (AVDO) is the primary point of contact for aircraft inventory and status reporting within an organization? | Unit ADVO |
| For what two major types of engine data does the base-level segment of the Comprehensive Engine Management System serve as the initial collection point? | Engine status and component operational |
| What Comprehensive Engine Management System (CEMS) application is used for requesting products from the database, and browsing, submitting, and viewing products out of CEMS? | Time Sharing Option |
| What is the purpose of collecting accumulated hour and event data on engines? | Enable engine managers to know the condition of engine parts at all times |
| If the engine data plate is not accessible during the physical inventory, what action is taken? | Review the aerospace vehicle engine documents. |
| When accomplishing the quarterly inventory, the stock record account number engine manager is responsible for ensuring what two information systems contain the same information? | IMDS and CEMS |
| How often is the data base reconciliation listing for time compliance technical order status accomplished on engines? | Quarterly |
| Which type of technical order establishes policies, and details safe methods and procedures for preventative maintenance? | methods and procedures |
| Methods and procedures technical orders (TO) are published to | tell the “what, when, why, and how” of general subjects |
| Which type of technical order (TO) provides a means of selecting needed TOs, showing the status of all TOs, and, in certain circumstances, grouping the TOs pertaining to specific items of equipment? | Index |
| Which group of a technical order (TO) number primarily identifies the type of TO, instruction, or procedure? | Third |
| What is a function of the technical order (TO) distribution account? | Conduct and document routine TO catalog checks and annual TO library inventories. |
| Exceeding what time factors normally causes a time compliance technical order to be classified as depot-level maintenance? | 8 clock- or 25 man-hours |
| How many basic time compliance technical order categories are authorized? | three |
| What are the authorized types of time compliance technical orders? | Immediate action, routine action, and urgent action |
| What time compliance technical order is issued under conditions that, if not corrected, could result in fatal or serious injury to personnel, or extensive damage to or destruction of valuable property? | Immediate action |
| What time compliance technical order is issued under conditions that could result in injury to personnel, damage to property, or unacceptable reductions in combat efficiency? | Urgent Action |
| What symbol is used on weapons systems forms to indicate a condition that will prevent the successful launch of a missile? | Red W |
| What symbol on an aircraft form indicates the condition of the equipment is unknown and a more serious condition may exist? | Red-dash |
| When the Maintenance Information System (MIS) is available, what Air Force Technical Order Form does the MIS automated history replace to document significant historical events on aircraft, engines, and equipment? | AFTO 95 |
| Which type of aircraft discrepancies does not require special procedures for clearing from aircraft forms? | Deferred |
| What document must technicians complete when ordering aircraft parts? | AF Form 2413, Supply Control Log |
| In which flight are maintenance supply liaison personnel physically located? | Maintenance Operations |
| Why is the Standard Base Supply System programmed to reject due-in from maintenance (DIFM) issues for more than one item? | The possibility of having different maintenance actions taken on items with only one document number |
| The overall objective of the Repair Cycle Support System is to | get due-in from maintenance parts turned around as fast as possible |
| The objective of the Air Force Repair Enhancement Program is to? | reduce the total Air Force material costs |
| What is considered a repair cycle bottleneck under the Intermediate Repair Enhancement Program review? | Frozen supply records |
| A special experience identifier is used to indicate the? | Qualification |
| In manpower studies using the logistics composite model, the objective is to determine the lowest manpower level possible to achieve the desired sortie rate for each? | Air Force specialty |
| What minimum dollar value is required for some item discrepancies before you submit a supply deficiency report? | $100 |
| A supply deficiency report is defined as unresolved if a reply has not been received after | 146 days |
| Which type of items has specific rules that must be complied with before you pay with the government purchase card? | Supplies |
| Who is authorized to use the government purchase card under one account? | Cardholder only |
| To what Status of Resources and Training System resource area factor does it belong when a unit’s mission ready rates are measured? | Equipment condition |
| What Status of Resources and Training System rating means the unit requires additional resources or training to undertake its wartime mission(s), but it may be directed to undertake portions of its wartime mission(s) with resources on hand? | C-4 |
| Who assigns functional area offices with the responsibility for each measured unit type in the Status of Resources and Training System? | Major Command Commanders |
| When reporting Status of Resources and Training System data, the basic identity includes the name, | unit identifier code, unit descriptor code, unit level and type, and organizing MAJCOM. |
| What type of hypothesis assumes no significant difference between two or more population samples? | Null or given |
| In stating the null hypothesis concerning an assumption between population A and population B, the mean of population A | is equal to the mean of population B |
| The probability of making a type I statistical error is denoted by | alpha |
| When you assign a level of significance to a statistical test, you are actually assigning | a certain proportion of data in the normal curve area as your rejection region. |
| The measure of how good a statistical test is at rejecting a false null hypothesis is called the | power of a test |
| What characteristic best applies to a parametric type of statistical test? | The random samples should be from a normal distribution |
| How do you treat outliers that you find during parametric testing? | Eliminate them from the data and continue testing |
| To determine whether an outlier exists in a distribution, what is the first thing you must do? | Eliminate the extreme values from further computations |
| In parametric testing, the purpose of an F test is to determine | If significant differences exist between the two variances |
| What does the mean of the squared deviations from the arithmetic mean represent | Variance |
| In statistics, a t test evaluates the significance of the difference between the | means of two samples |
| For a z test, the sample size for differences between sample means should be at least | 30 |
| When the basic assumption for a z test for means cannot be met, what test should you use? | c. Chi-square (x²) test. |
| In nonparametric testing when making a comparison to the table of U critical values, you use the | smaller U statistic |
| The Kruskal-Wallis H test requires data from at least what scale? | Ordinal |
| In nonparametric testing, what number of samples can the ² test be used for? | Any number of samples |
| In nonparametric testing, what is the degree of freedom for a ² sample containing five categories and four rows in a multi-sample test? | 12 |
| In regression analysis, what does a line of regression indicate? | Trend of the data relationships |
| In data correlation for regression analysis, the measure of dispersion is the standard | error of the estimate |
| When plotting a line of regression, you allow for variation of the predicted values by | establishing a range within which a given proportion of the values will fall |
| In probability statistics, what type of data are numbers of personnel, failures, cars, airplanes, and radar sets? | Discrete |
| Using the frequency definition for probability, compute the probability of the next work order being in error if 40 errors are found in 400 work orders. Formula: P(A)= x over n | 0.10 |
| The probability that two events will occur together or in succession is determined by the probability laws of? | Multiplication |
| When you need to know the probability of two independent events occurring at the same time, you determine the answer by | adding the two probabilities |
| The eight-step problem solving model is comprised of the loop “observe, orient, | decide and act |
| Six Sigma (6σ) represents what percent of all data points in a normal distribution? | 99.9997 |
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