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2S051 Volume 4

2S051 Volume 4 - Unit Review Exercises Only

1. (601) Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading? Spotter.
2. (601) Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that all containers are accounted for.
3. (602) What type of receipt must be processed before all others? MICAP.
4. (602) Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous materiels or pilferable items? Safety or security reasons.
5. (603) Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker? Warehouse location.
6. (603) The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the materiel management inspector.
7. (604) Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen? System designator and due-in document number.
8. (604) Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is deleted.
9. (605) Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies? Serviceable/undamaged items.
10. (605) What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt? c. Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it.
11. (605) Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item? d. Inspector.
12. (605) When processing misidentified property, what TEX code is required on the receipt input? c. Q.
13. (605) When an item is received with a hidden defect, what code is assigned to process the receipt? b. Transaction exception code Z.
14. (606) What TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization’s accountable record? b. +.
15. (607) Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account? d. Materiel management inspectors.
16. (607) What three things are used to identify an item? d. Reference number, stock number, and item description.
17. (607) What condition tag is used to identify new, used, repaired, or reconditioned serviceable materiel? a. DD Form 1574.
18. (607) What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032? a. Updates inspection data.
19. (608) For what type of change is an FCH TRIC used? b. Identity.
20. (608) An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the b. customer failed to cancel the due-out.
21. (609) When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many days does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection? d. 10.
22. (609) Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage? a. Inspector.
23. (610) Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when additional help is needed? a. MAJCOM.
24. (610) Which materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming SDR? c. Procedures.
25. (611) At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained? b. Between 32 and 50°F.
26. (611) What are the two types of open storage areas? d. Improved and unimproved.
27. (611) What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions? b. Drainage.
28. (611) What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage? d. Limited use of MHE.
29. (612) The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the c. storage space.
30. (612) When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization? b. Work areas.
31. (613) Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from c. left to right and front to rear.
32. (613) What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location? b. Single capital letter.
33. (613) What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D? d. D.
34. (613) What letter or symbol is entered in the “Warehouse Location Delete Flag” field when deleting a warehouse location? d. *.
35. (613) What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file? d. Daily document register (D04).
36. (614) Within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the storage activity complete scheduled validations? c. 10.
37. (614) How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse validation parameter input prepared? a. 1.
38. (615) The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called a. honeycombing.
39. (615) Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be b. obliterated.
40. (616) Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change? b. FIC.
41. (616) What TRIC identifies items that have been misidentified by the manufacturer? c. FCH.
42. (617) Which phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the serviceable balance of property in location? b. SERV BAL = 0.
43. (617) Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal? d. Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient.
44. (618) Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items? c. 8, 9, or M.
45. (618) As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned? c. Monthly.
46. (618) Which health hazard code indicates an item is a serious hazard and requires special control? c. 9.
47. (619) Which corrosives are incompatible and should be separated in storage? d. Acids and alkalis.
48. (619) What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries? d. Low hazard
49. (620) When chemical and chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what TRIC is input to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue? c. FCC.
50. (620) What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information? c. AF-EMIS.
51. (621) To prevent unnecessary testing, what tool published by the DLA provides data on products which have been tested or condemned? a. Quality Status List.
52. (621) What AFTO form is used by inspection personnel to identify the materiel being sent to laboratory? c. Form 475.
53. (621) What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned? a. Quality Status List.
54. (622) Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories? b. Two.
55. (622) Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes? d. Using organization.
56. (623) What type of assets receives priority handling throughout the receiving process and is never left unattended? d. Classified.
57. (623) What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals? d. R.
58. (624) How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item record? c. Type cargo code 3.
59. (624) What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device item from a detail record to maintenance for testing? d. MSI, C.
60. (624) What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device from the item record to maintenance for testing? c. ISU, C.
61. (625) Who provides the materiel management inspector a listing of items requiring extensive functional check before installation? d. Maintenance contact point.
62. (625) Which supply activity code is used to process issues to maintenance for functional check items? c. C.
63. (626) What type of shelf life coded item has a definite non-extendable period of shelf life? c. Type I.
64. (626) Which TRIC should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf-life asset to a maintenance function? c. MSI.
65. (626) How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing? b. 15 to 45.
66. (627) What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record? d. FCD with suspect flag S.
67. (627) What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail? c. I302.
68. (628) What computer input is used to load a TCTO flag? d. FCD.
69. (628) At a minimum, how often are on-the-shelf TCTO items inspected to ensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished? b. Monthly.
70. (629) When an item is under warranty or guaranty it will be identified as such: b. On the container.
71. (629) The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number, a. model, and manufacturer’s name and address.
72. (630) Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity? c. Serviceable items.
73. (630) What marking identifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire? b. Color tape.
74. (631) The minimum data recorded on the recap sheet should include the stock number, system designator, quantity, document number, d. TRIC, and warehouse location.
75. (632) Which program assigns freeze code C to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory? c. Inventory Count File Program (R12).
76. (632) Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed? b. Daily Document Register (D04).
77. (633) What document is used to clear the “I” freeze code suspense file? d. Annotated 1GP notice.
78. (634) An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is at least less than c. $100.
79. (634) Which objective is not an objective of inventory research? c. Process requisitions when required.
80. (634) When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of months from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment? c. 12.
81. (635) The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over how many days? b. 30.
82. (636) The ERRCD for bench stock items must be a. XB3.
83. (636) When controlled items, approved by the unit commander in writing, are placed on bench stock, they are assigned issue exception code d. N.
84. (637) How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II bench stock review is a complete inventory and replenishment done? c. 15.
85. (637) How often must bench stock SRD data and MRA levels be validated? d. Annually.
86. (638) The principle of “preposition materiel” includes all of the following except c. keep the length and number of moves to a minimum.
87. (639) Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a SAS? d. General-purpose shelves.
88. (639) Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating MMHS to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated? d. Cost.
89. (640) Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips? a. 10.
90. (640) Reusable containers come in how many categories? b. 2.
91. (641) This is defined as any components that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status (code and critical components); are classified or become classified once installed and used; serialized items installed on operationally de.. d. NWRM.
92. (641) The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never exceed how many months? a. 12 months.
93. (642) Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held to include units maintaining COMSEC and equipment in-use assets? a. Storage activity.
94. (642) Air Force organizations will formally designate, in writing, personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel in accordance with Air Force Instruction (AFI) c. 31–401.
95. (643) What handling concept minimizes the possibility that an unauthorized or inadvertent act could degrade the nuclear surety of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system? d. Two person.
96. (644) Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the lifecycle of these assets? d. Item manager.
Created by: paulezk
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