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2S051 Volume 4
2S051 Volume 4 - Unit Review Exercises Only
Question | Answer |
---|---|
1. (601) Who should help a driver back a vehicle into position for offloading? | Spotter. |
2. (601) Before accepting a shipment, the receiving function representative must ensure that | all containers are accounted for. |
3. (602) What type of receipt must be processed before all others? | MICAP. |
4. (602) Why are segregated, specialized holding areas necessary for items such as hazardous materiels or pilferable items? | Safety or security reasons. |
5. (603) Which check is not required by the receiving in-checker? | Warehouse location. |
6. (603) The receiving in-checker sends suspected tampered items to the | materiel management inspector. |
7. (604) Before you can access the receipt processing screen, what must you enter on the receipt inquiry screen? | System designator and due-in document number. |
8. (604) Once the on-hand quantity reaches zero, the due-in detail record is | deleted. |
9. (605) Which of the following is not a category of receipt discrepancies? | Serviceable/undamaged items. |
10. (605) What action must be taken on the receipt document for an overage receipt? | c. Circle the incorrect quantity and put the correct quantity above it. |
11. (605) Whose responsibility is it to identify or verify the identity of a misidentified item? | d. Inspector. |
12. (605) When processing misidentified property, what TEX code is required on the receipt input? | c. Q. |
13. (605) When an item is received with a hidden defect, what code is assigned to process the receipt? | b. Transaction exception code Z. |
14. (606) What TEX code is used to process a recoverable item (XF/XD) FOB if the organization no longer requires the item and it is not on that organization’s accountable record? | b. +. |
15. (607) Which materiel management individuals are authorized to determine the condition of property for the supply account? | d. Materiel management inspectors. |
16. (607) What three things are used to identify an item? | d. Reference number, stock number, and item description. |
17. (607) What condition tag is used to identify new, used, repaired, or reconditioned serviceable materiel? | a. DD Form 1574. |
18. (607) What is the purpose of the AF Form 2032? | a. Updates inspection data. |
19. (608) For what type of change is an FCH TRIC used? | b. Identity. |
20. (608) An organizational refusal would be a customer’s responsibility if the | b. customer failed to cancel the due-out. |
21. (609) When deficiencies are noted during a scheduled warehouse surveillance, within how many days does the inspector conduct a follow-up inspection? | d. 10. |
22. (609) Who schedules and accomplishes an aggressive surveillance inspection program for all items in storage? | a. Inspector. |
23. (610) Where are all unresolved supply discrepancy reports forwarded to when additional help is needed? | a. MAJCOM. |
24. (610) Which materiel management function evaluates and controls incoming SDR? | c. Procedures. |
25. (611) At what temperature must a refrigerated storage chill space be maintained? | b. Between 32 and 50°F. |
26. (611) What are the two types of open storage areas? | d. Improved and unimproved. |
27. (611) What protects items placed in open storage from wet ground conditions? | b. Drainage. |
28. (611) What is a major disadvantage in the use of unimproved open storage? | d. Limited use of MHE. |
29. (612) The basic resource of any materiel management and distribution operation is the | c. storage space. |
30. (612) When planning a warehouse layout, what type of space must be kept to a minimum so as to increase storage space and utilization? | b. Work areas. |
31. (613) Warehouse stockrooms are sequenced from | c. left to right and front to rear. |
32. (613) What designator is used to identify the storage level in a warehouse location? | b. Single capital letter. |
33. (613) What is used to identify a bin subdivision in the warehouse location code 05C045F056D? | d. D. |
34. (613) What letter or symbol is entered in the “Warehouse Location Delete Flag” field when deleting a warehouse location? | d. *. |
35. (613) What supply product is used to clear the warehouse location suspense file? | d. Daily document register (D04). |
36. (614) Within how many workdays of the start of a cycle inventory should the storage activity complete scheduled validations? | c. 10. |
37. (614) How many days before the start of a warehouse validation is a warehouse validation parameter input prepared? | a. 1. |
38. (615) The practice of storing items in a way that causes a loss of storage space is called | a. honeycombing. |
39. (615) Markings found on containers that do not apply to presently packaged materials need to be | b. obliterated. |
40. (616) Which TRIC identifies a warehouse change document for an indicative data change? | b. FIC. |
41. (616) What TRIC identifies items that have been misidentified by the manufacturer? | c. FCH. |
42. (617) Which phrase on an issue or shipment document requires you to validate the serviceable balance of property in location? | b. SERV BAL = 0. |
43. (617) Which scenario is an example of a warehouse refusal? | d. Quantity in location needed to fill an issue request is not sufficient. |
44. (618) Which issue exception codes identify health hazard items? | c. 8, 9, or M. |
45. (618) As a minimum, how often must a utility program be run to identify potentially hazardous item records that do not have an issue exception code or health hazard flag assigned? | c. Monthly. |
46. (618) Which health hazard code indicates an item is a serious hazard and requires special control? | c. 9. |
47. (619) Which corrosives are incompatible and should be separated in storage? | d. Acids and alkalis. |
48. (619) What type of storage is best suited for pesticides, poisons, and certain batteries? | d. Low hazard |
49. (620) When chemical and chemical and petroleum products reach their retest dates, what TRIC is input to suspend the outdated materiel on an unserviceable detail and prevent reissue? | c. FCC. |
50. (620) What is the Air Force source for hazardous material data and pollution prevention information? | c. AF-EMIS. |
51. (621) To prevent unnecessary testing, what tool published by the DLA provides data on products which have been tested or condemned? | a. Quality Status List. |
52. (621) What AFTO form is used by inspection personnel to identify the materiel being sent to laboratory? | c. Form 475. |
53. (621) What list is published by DLA that provides data on products which have been tested or condemned? | a. Quality Status List. |
54. (622) Hazardous disposal can generally be grouped into how many categories? | b. Two. |
55. (622) Who is responsible for the costs of disposing of hazardous wastes? | d. Using organization. |
56. (623) What type of assets receives priority handling throughout the receiving process and is never left unattended? | d. Classified. |
57. (623) What materiel management controlled item code identifies precious metals? | d. R. |
58. (624) How are electronic sensitive devices identified on the item record? | c. Type cargo code 3. |
59. (624) What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device item from a detail record to maintenance for testing? | d. MSI, C. |
60. (624) What transaction identifier code and activity code are used to process an electronic sensitive device from the item record to maintenance for testing? | c. ISU, C. |
61. (625) Who provides the materiel management inspector a listing of items requiring extensive functional check before installation? | d. Maintenance contact point. |
62. (625) Which supply activity code is used to process issues to maintenance for functional check items? | c. C. |
63. (626) What type of shelf life coded item has a definite non-extendable period of shelf life? | c. Type I. |
64. (626) Which TRIC should an inspector use to transfer an unserviceable shelf-life asset to a maintenance function? | c. MSI. |
65. (626) How many days prior to the expiration date should type II shelf-life items be scheduled for serviceability testing? | b. 15 to 45. |
66. (627) What computer input is used to load a suspect materiel flag to an item record? | d. FCD with suspect flag S. |
67. (627) What management notice is output when suspended property is placed on an unserviceable detail? | c. I302. |
68. (628) What computer input is used to load a TCTO flag? | d. FCD. |
69. (628) At a minimum, how often are on-the-shelf TCTO items inspected to ensure TCTO compliance is being accomplished? | b. Monthly. |
70. (629) When an item is under warranty or guaranty it will be identified as such: | b. On the container. |
71. (629) The information that must be annotated on the receiving document of a warranty or guaranty item is the serial number, | a. model, and manufacturer’s name and address. |
72. (630) Which items are not considered a miscellaneous commodity? | c. Serviceable items. |
73. (630) What marking identifies the year of manufacture on an aircraft tire? | b. Color tape. |
74. (631) The minimum data recorded on the recap sheet should include the stock number, system designator, quantity, document number, | d. TRIC, and warehouse location. |
75. (632) Which program assigns freeze code C to all item records specified within the report parameter for a complete inventory? | c. Inventory Count File Program (R12). |
76. (632) Which materiel management listing is reviewed by the inventory section to verify that all degraded operations emergency issues have been processed? | b. Daily Document Register (D04). |
77. (633) What document is used to clear the “I” freeze code suspense file? | d. Annotated 1GP notice. |
78. (634) An automatic adjustment for a pilferable item occurs when the record balance does not agree with the recount quantity and the dollar value of the adjustment is at least less than | c. $100. |
79. (634) Which objective is not an objective of inventory research? | c. Process requisitions when required. |
80. (634) When researching a physical overage, what is the maximum number of months from the current date do you go to the last inventory adjustment? | c. 12. |
81. (635) The last page of the M10 shows the number of sample inventories in progress over how many days? | b. 30. |
82. (636) The ERRCD for bench stock items must be | a. XB3. |
83. (636) When controlled items, approved by the unit commander in writing, are placed on bench stock, they are assigned issue exception code | d. N. |
84. (637) How many days before a scheduled semiannual phase II bench stock review is a complete inventory and replenishment done? | c. 15. |
85. (637) How often must bench stock SRD data and MRA levels be validated? | d. Annually. |
86. (638) The principle of “preposition materiel” includes all of the following except | c. keep the length and number of moves to a minimum. |
87. (639) Which type of warehouse equipment is part of a SAS? | d. General-purpose shelves. |
88. (639) Which of the following is not a factor to consider when operating MMHS to ensure unsafe incidents are eliminated? | d. Cost. |
89. (640) Short-life reusable containers are expected to survive at least how many round-trips? | a. 10. |
90. (640) Reusable containers come in how many categories? | b. 2. |
91. (641) This is defined as any components that are critical to launch, enable, inhibit, and authenticate status (code and critical components); are classified or become classified once installed and used; serialized items installed on operationally de.. | d. NWRM. |
92. (641) The periodic interval between successive inventories of CCIs may never exceed how many months? | a. 12 months. |
93. (642) Who is responsible for the accuracy of inventory held to include units maintaining COMSEC and equipment in-use assets? | a. Storage activity. |
94. (642) Air Force organizations will formally designate, in writing, personnel permitted and authorized to accept controlled materiel in accordance with Air Force Instruction (AFI) | c. 31–401. |
95. (643) What handling concept minimizes the possibility that an unauthorized or inadvertent act could degrade the nuclear surety of a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system? | d. Two person. |
96. (644) Who is responsible for the health of assigned items to meet mission requirements over the lifecycle of these assets? | d. Item manager. |