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2S051 Volume 3

2S051 Volume 3 - Unit Review Exercises Only

QuestionAnswer
1. (401) Who serves as the base equipment review and authorization activity? 1. A - Equipment accountability office.
2. (401) The selection of property custodians requires mutual agreement between 2. A - The Equipment Accountability Office (EAO) and organization commanders.
3. (402) What element within an allowance standard establishes the number of items that can be issued to an individual, activity, or organization? 3. C - Basis of issue.
4. (402) Which code replaces the cost designator in the expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) for an equipment item? 4. * - Allowance source.
5. (402) Which expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD) identifies nonequipment authorization inventory data equipment items? 5. A - NF1.
6. (402) The equipment custodian uses which Air Force form to request non-equipment authorization inventory data items? 6. A - 2005.
7. (402) Which Air Force Form is used to request a change to an allowance standard or to request an item that requires approval under miscellaneous allowance source code? 7. B - AF Form 601.
8. (403) Which turn-in method is used to process the TIN before picking up the property? 8. D - Prepost.
9. (403) What activity code is used to process non-equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins? 9. B - P.
10. (403) What activity code is used to process equipment authorization inventory data equipment turn-ins? 10. A - E.
11. (403) When a piece of equipment is no longer required or authorized, the equipment management section processes what input to reduce or delete an authorization? 11. C - FCI.
12. (404) Which listing is used to identify out-of-balance conditions? 12. A - Q10.
13. (404) When signed by the property custodian which listing serves as a custody receipt? 13. D - Custodian authorization/custody receipt listing.
14. (405) Which special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) asset is used to detect or isolate a fault or problem in online equipment? 14. D - Fault isolation spares.
15. (405) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to load, change, or delete a special purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) detail? 15. A - 1XA.
16. (405) Which report provides a listing of all items authorized, on-hand, and due-out, for organizations authorized special-purpose recoverables authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets? 16. C - R25.
17. (406) When your base weapon assets are increased or decreased, what report do you send to the Small Arms Registry at Robins Air Force Base? 17. A - DSM.
18. (406) What Materiel Management computer listing do you use to reconcile communications security and weapons assets? 18. C - Weapon/COMSEC Reconciliation (R46).
19. (407) Who works hand-in-hand with LRS to support mission requirements? 19. * - Global Logistics Support Center (GLSC).
20. (407) What stock leveling term represents the maximum quantity that should be on-hand or on order to sustain current operations? 20. C - Requisition objective (RO).
21. (408) When one-for-one stock requisitioning is not needed, which adjusted minimum level should be used? 21. D - A.
22. (408) A request for an adjusted stock level is made on what Air Force form? 22. C - 1996.
23. (408) Which Materiel Management System program is used to review and validate adjusted stock levels? 23. B - R35.
24. (409) The Readiness Base Leveling system computes demand levels for what items? 24. * - XB3
25. (409) The Materiel Management System uses what document identifier code to respond to a readiness-based level allocation? 25. * - XCA
26. (409) Readiness-based level details are identified by 26. A - type detail L, activity code A.
27. (409) Which Materiel Management System listing is used to identify a possible readiness-based level (RBL) misallocation? 27. D - R47.
28. (410) When item managers send directives by telephone, letter, or message communications, or in the normal redistribution order (DIC A2* or A4*) formats, what is the redistribution type? 28. C - Directed.
29. (410) What document identification code indicates a denial to a redistribution order sent by Air Force Materiel Command item managers? 29. A - B7*
30. (410) Which redistribution results when local management decides to force shipment and/or redistribution of base operating stocks? 30. D - Nondirected.
31. (410) What transaction exception code is used to process a return for an item damaged in shipment? 31. A - P.
32. (410) Which shipment exception code is used for assets frozen—do not ship? 32. B - 1.
33. (411) An automatic requisition to the source of supply is identified by what document identification code? 33. A - AO*.
34. (411) Program control uses what system to assign a requisition priority for each requisition? 34. D - Uniform Materiel Movement and Issue Priority System (UMMIPS).
35. (411) What codes are used to determine the requisitioning priority designator used at the source of supply? 35. B - FAD, Urgency-of-need designator (UND).
36. (412) What code is assigned to the item record to indicate the source of supply has cancelled a requisition? 36. D - REX 1.
37. (412) Which type of military standard requisitioning and issue procedures (MILSTRIP) status results from out-of-stock conditions, new requirements, and other conditions that stop the supply source from filling the requisition exactly as it was request 37. C - Exception/other.
38. (413) Military Management System programs create cancellation requests to control 38. B - Excess stockage.
39. (413) What reconciliation flag on the status detail record indicates that the transaction identification code AFC action is to request improved status on a requisition? 39. B - C.
40. (413) Supply difficulty for Air Force-managed items are reported on which Air Force form? 40. D - 1667.
41. (414) To identify shipments that meet the tracer criteria, the military standard transportation and movement procedures (MILSTAMP) tracer reconciliation program (GV597) is run at least 41. B - Twice a month.
42. (414) Due-ins that have been received but remain in the computers because the receipts have not been completely cleared are included on which transportation tracer list? 42. C - Receipt acknowledged error list.
43. (414) Which materiel management program identifies all claims receivable/claims payable details that require follow-up, a report of discrepancy (ROD) or a supply discrepancy report (SDR)? 43. C - NGV587.
44. (415) Which two listings are used to perform due-out review and validation? 44. A - D18 and R01.
45. (415) How often are UND C due-outs validated? 45. D - Quarterly.
46. (415) What transaction exception code is coded on the due-out detail and will prevent an automatic due-out release of assets? 46. A - 1, 8, H, U, X, or .(period).
47. (415) When a due-out cancellation was processed in the Core Automated Maintenance System (CAMS), what review code is used on the due-out-cancellation input? 47. D - M.
48. (415) The factors involved in the due-out release sequence are FAD, UJC, project code, and 48. B - Document number date.
49. (416) How often is FEDLOG updated? 49. C - Quarterly.
50. (416) What CD-ROM based research system can be used to cross relate part numbers and stock numbers? 50. C - Federal logistics (FEDLOG).
51. (416) What transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to access the federal logistics (FEDLOG) interface from a Materiel Management System environment? 51. B - 1RH.
52. (417) Illustrated parts breakdowns (IPBs) are normally identified and published by 52. C - –4 series of technical orders.
53. (417) Which code in an illustrated parts breakdown (IPB) provides maintenance activities with repair level responsibility, support methods, and disposition instructions? 53. D - Source, maintenance, and recoverability (SMR).
54. (417) Which position of the source, maintenance, and recoverability code (SMR) reflects the disposition action for unserviceable assets? 54. D - Recoverability.
55. (418) An expendable item is identified by which code used in the first position of an expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost (ERRC) designator? 55. D - X.
56. (418) What non-catalogue number position indicates which Air Logistics Center (ALC) assigned the number? 56. B - Position 7.
57. (419) Which transaction identification code (TRIC) is used to change the stock number; expendability, recoverability, reparability, cost designator (ERRCD); equipment management code (EMC); routing identifier; or budget code on the item record? 57. B - FIC.
58. (419) What is the maximum number of characters for the descriptive nomenclature field on the item record? 58. C - 32.
59. (419) For internal records what transaction identification code (TRIC) changes the unit price, unit of issue, and quantity unit pack (except for local purchase [LP] items) fields? 59. A - FCU.
60. (419) Registered users of the stock number user directory (SNUD) and Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) SNUD file are reconciled 60. D - Annually.
61. (420) What computer system provides interchangeable and substitute group information? 61. B - D043B.
62. (420) Which interchangeable and substitution group (ISG) relationship code identifies an item that can only be used in place of another for a particular use or under certain conditions? 62. B - S.
Created by: paulezk