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PFT_Terms_Book
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| alternative medicine | use of herbs, dietary supplements, and homeopathic remedies rather than pharmaceuticals |
| apothecary | forerunner of the modern pharmacists; the name also refers to the shop |
| Black Box warning | information printed on a drug package to alert prescribers to potential problems with the drug |
| Biopharmaceutical | a drug produced by recombinant DNA technology |
| brand name | the name under which the manufacturer markets a drug; also known as the trade name |
| C-I | schedule I controlled substance, a drug with the highest potential for abuse, which may be used only for research under a special license |
| C-II | schedule II controlled substance, a drug with a high potential for abuse, for which dispensing is severely restricted and prescriptions may not be refilled |
| C-III | schedule III controlled substance, a drug with a moderate potential for abuse, which can be refilled no more than 5 times in 6 months and only if authorized by the physician for this time period |
| C-IV | schedule IV controlled substance, a drug dispensed under the same restrictions as schedule III but having less potential for abuse |
| C-V | schedule V controlled substance, a drug with a slight potential for abuse; some of which may be sold without a prescription depending on state law, but the purchaser must sign for the drug and show identification |
| chemical name | a name that describes a drug's chemical composition in detail |
| clinical trial | drug testing on humans, used to determine drug safety and efficacy |
| controlled substance | a drug with potential for abuse; organized into five categories or schedules that specify whether and how the drug may be dispensed |
| double blind study | a clinical trial in which neither the trial participants nor the study staff know whether a particular participant is in the control group or the experimental group |
| drug | a medicinal substance or remedy used to change the way a living organism functions; also called a medication |
| Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) | the branch of the U.S. Justice Department that is responsible for regulating the sale and use of specified drugs, especially controlled substances |
| drug sponsor | the entity, usually a pharmaceutical company, responsible for testing the efficacy and safety of a drug and proposing the drug for approval |
| Food and Drug Administration (FDA) | the agency of the federal government that is responsible for ensuring the safety of drugs and food prepared for the market |
| generic name | a name that identifies a drug independently of its manufacturer; sometimes denotes a drug that is not protected by a trademark; also referred to as a USAN (United States Adopted Name) |
| homeopathy | a system of therapeutics in which diseases are treated by administering minute doses of drugs that, in healthy patients, are capable of producing symptoms like those of the disease being treated |
| legend drug | a drug that may be sold only by prescription and must be labeled "Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription" or "Rx only" |
| medication guide | specific information about certain types of drugs that is required by the FDA to be made available to the patient |
| New Drug Application (NDA) | the vehicle through which drug sponsors formally propose that the FDA approve a new pharmaceutical for sale and marketing in the United States |
| over-the-counter (OTC) drug | a drug that may be sold without a prescription |
| patent | a government grant that gives a drug company the exclusive right to manufacture a drug for a certain number of years; protects the company's investment in developing the drug |
| pharmacist | one who is licensed to prepare and sell or dispense drugs and compounds and to fill rescriptions |
| pharmacognosy | the study and identification of natural sources of drugs |
| pharmacologic effect | the action of a drug on a living system |
| pharmacology | the science of drugs and their interactions with the systems of living animals |
| pharmacopoeia | an official listing of medicinal preparations |
| pharmacy technician | an individual working in a pharmacy who, under the supervision of a licensed pharmacist, assists in activities not requiring the professional judgment of a pharmacist |
| Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB) | a national organization that develops pharmacy technician standards and serves as a credentialing agency for pharmacy technicians |
| pharmakon | a Greek word meaning a magic spell, remedy, or poison that was used in early records to represent the concept of a drug |
| placebo | an inactive substance with no treatment value |
| prophylactic drug | a drug that prevents or decreases the severity of a disease |
| therapeutic drug | a drug that relieves symptoms of a disease |
| absorption | the process whereby a drug enters the circulatory system |
| addiction | a dependence characterized by a perceived need to take a drug to attain the psychological and physical effects of mood altering substances |
| affinity | the strength by which a particular chemical messenger binds to its receptor site on a cell |
| agonist | drugs that bind to a particular receptor site and trigger the cell's response in a manner similar to the action of the body's own chemical messenger |
| allergen | substance that produces an allergic response |
| allergic response | an instance in which the immune system overreacts to an otherwise harmless substance |
| anaphylactic reaction | a severe allergic response resulting in immediate life-threatening respiratory distress, usually followed by vascular collapse and shock and accompanied by hives |
| angioedema | abnormal accumulation of fluid in tissue |
| antagonist | drugs that bind to a receptor site and block the action of the endogenous messenger or other drugs |
| antigen | a specific molecule that stimulates an immune response |
| bioavailability | the degree to which a drug or other substance becomes available to the target tissue after administration |
| blood-brain barrier | a barrier that prevents many substances from entering the cerebrospinal fluid from the blood; formed by glial cells that envelope the capillaries in the central nervous system, presenting a barrier to many water-soluble compounds though they are permeable |
| ceiling effect | a point at which no clinical response occurs with increased dosage |
| clearance | the rate at which a drug is eliminated from a specific volume of blood per unit of time |
| contraindication | a disease, condition, or symptom for which a drug will not be beneficial and may do harm |
| dependence | a state in which a person's body has adapted physiologically and psychologically to a drug and cannot function without it |
| distribution | the process by which a drug moves from the blood into other body fluids and tissues and ultimately to its sites of action |
| dose | the quantity of a drug administered at one time |
| duration of action | the length of time a drug gives the desired response or is at the therapeutic level |
| elimination | removal of a drug or its metabolites from the body by excretion |
| first-order | depending directly on the concentration of the drug; elimination of most drugs is a first-order process in which a constant fraction of the drug is eliminated per unit of time |
| first-pass effect | the extent to which a drug is metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation |
| half-life | the time necessary for the body to eliminate half of the drug in the body at any time; written as T1/2 |
| homeostasis | stability of the organism |
| idiosyncratic reaction | an unusual or unexpected response to a drug that is unrelated to the dose given |
| indication | a disease, symptom, or condition for which a drug is known to be of benefit |
| induction | the process whereby a drug increases the concentration of certain enzymes that affect the pharmacologic response to another drug |
| inhibition | the process whereby a drug blocks enzyme activity and impairs the metabolism of another drug |
| interaction | a change in the action of a drug caused by another drug, a food, or another substance such as alcohol or nicotine |
| lipid | a fatty molecule, an important constituent of cell membranes |
| local effect | an action of a drug that is confined to a specific part of the body |
| loading dose | amount of a drug that will bring the blood concentration rapidly to a therapeutic level |
| maintenance dose | amount of a drug administered at regular intervals to keep the blood concentration at a therapeutic level |
| metabolic pathway | the sequence of chemical steps that convert a drug into a metabolite |
| metabolism | the process by which drugs are chemically converted to other compounds |
| metabolite | a substance into which a drug is chemically converted in the body |
| peak | the top or upper limit of a drug's concentration in the blood |
| pharmacokinetic modeling | a method of describing the process of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination of a drug within the body mathematically |
| pharmacokinetics | the activity of a drug within the body over a period of time; includes absorption, distribution, metabolism, and elimination |
| prophylaxis | effect of a drug in preventing infection or disease |
| pruritus | itching sensation |
| receptor | a protein molecule on the surface of or within a cell that recognizes and binds with specific molecules, thereby producing some effect within the cell |
| side effect | a secondary response to a drug other than the primary therapeutic effect for which the drug was intended |
| solubility | a drug's ability to dissolve in body fluids |
| specificity | the property of a receptor site that enables it to bind only with a specific chemical messenger; to bind with a specific cell type, the messenger must have a chemical structure that is complementary to the structure of that cell's receptors |
| systemic effect | an action of a drug that has a generalized, all-inclusive effect on the body |
| therapeutic effect | the desired action of a drug in the treatment of a particular disease state or symptom |
| therapeutic level | the amount of drug in a patient's blood at which beneficial effects occur |
| therapeutic range | the optimum dosage, providing the best chance for successful therapy; dosing below this range has little effect on the healing process, while overdosing can lead to toxicity and death |
| tolerance | a decrease in response to the effects of a drug as it continues to be administered |
| trough | the lowest level of a drug in the blood |
| urticaria | hives, itching sensation |
| volume of distribution | mathematical relationship between the blood concentration attained and the amount of drug administered |
| wheals | slightly elevated, red areas on the body surface |
| zero-order | not depending on the concentration of the drug in the body; elimination of alcohol is a zero-order process in which a constant quantity of the drug is removed per unit of time |
| active immunity | protection against disease that occurs as a result of coming into contact with an infectious agent or an inactivated part of such an agent administered by a vaccine |
| adverse drug reaction | reaction to a drug that is harmful to the well-being of the patient |
| allergic disease | a disease caused by an allergic reaction |
| allergy | a state of heightened sensitivity as a result of exposure to a particular substance |
| antigen | the molecule that an antibody recognizes |
| Beers List | a list of drugs for which monitoring is especially important in elderly patients |
| buccal | to be placed between the cheek and the gums |
| compliance | a patient's adherence to the dose schedule and other particular requirements of the specified regimen |
| E-prescribing | the process which allows a prescriber's computer system to talk to the pharmacy's computer system and the medication order/prescription is transmitted to the pharmacy |
| histamine | a chemical produced by the body that evokes the symptoms of an allergic reaction and is blocked by antihistamines |
| immunization | the process by which the immune system is stimulated to acquire protection against a specific disease; usually achieved by use of a vaccine |
| inhalation | administration of a medication through the respiratory system |
| inscription | part of a prescription that identifies the name of the drug, the dose, and the quantities of the ingredients |
| instillation | administration of a medication drop by drop |
| intradermal | to be injected into the skin |
| intramuscular | to be injected into a muscle; abbreviated IM |
| intraspinal | to be injected into the spinal column |
| intrathecal | see intraspinal |
| intravenous | administration of a medication through a vein, thereby avoiding the first-pass effect; abbreviated IV |
| local infection | an infection restricted to or pertaining to one area of the body |
| medication reconciliation | the providing of a complete and accurate drug profile to each health care provider who cares for a patient |
| morbidity | rate of occurrence of a diseased state or condition |
| mortality | death rate from a particular disease |
| noncompliance | failure to adhere to an appropriate drug regimen |
| nonpathologic | not related to disease |
| ophthalmic | to be administered through the eye |
| oral | see peroral (PO) |
| order | a prescription issued in an institutional setting |
| otic | administered in the ear |
| parenteral | administered by injection rather than by way of the alimentary canal |
| passive immunity | protection against a disease as the result of receiving antibodies that were formed by another person or animal who developed them in response to being infected with the disease |
| peptide | a string of amino acid molecules bound together, usually a fragment of a larger protein molecule |
| peroral (PO) | administration of a medication by mouth in either solid form, as a tablet or capsule, or in liquid form, as a solution or syrup; often referred to as oral |
| polypharmacy | the concurrent use of multiple medications |
| prescription | a direction for medication to be dispensed to a patient, written by a physician or a qualified licensed practitioner and filled by a pharmacist; referred to as an order when the medication is requested in a hospital setting |
| signa | part of a prescription that provides directions to be included on the label for the patient to follow in taking the medication |
| subcutaneous | to be injected into the tissue just beneath the skin |
| sublingual | to be placed under the tongue |
| systemic | pertaining to or affecting the body as a whole |
| titer | concentration of an antibody in the bloodstream |
| topical | applied to the surface of the skin or mucous membranes |
| vaccine | a suspension of disease-causing organisms or fragments of them, administered to induce active immunity to the disease |
| aerobic | needing oxygen to survive |
| aminoglycoside | a class of antibiotics that inhibit bacterial protein synthesis by binding to ribosomal subunits; commonly used to treat serious infections |
| anaerobic | capable of surviving in the absence of oxygen |
| antibiotic | a chemical substance with the ability to kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria by interfering with bacteria life processes |
| antiseptic | a substance that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms on the outside of the body |
| arrthythmia | variation in heartbeat, irregular heartbeat |
| bacteria | small, single-celled microorganisms that exist in three main forms: spherical (i.e., cocci), rod shaped (i.e., bacilli), and spiral (i.e., spirilla) |
| bactericidal agent | a drug that kills bacteria |
| bacteriostatic agent | a drug that inhibits the growth or multiplication of bacteria |
| broad-spectrum antibiotic | an antibiotic that is effective against multiple organisms |
| cephalosporin | a class of antibiotics with a mechanism of action similar to that of penicillins, but with a different antibacterial spectrum, resistance to beta-lactamase, and pharmacokinetics; divided into first-, second-, third-, and fourth-generation agents |
| chelation | combination of an organic molecule such as a drug with a metal in complexes in which the metal ion is part of a ring |
| community-acquired | contracted outside of the hospital |
| cyclic lipopeptide | a new class of antibiotics that bind to bacterial membranes and cause the cell membrane to depolarize, thus leading to an inhibition of DNA and RNA synthesis |
| disinfectant | an agent that frees inanimate objects from infection |
| D5W | dextrose 5% in water |
| empirical treatment | treatment begun before a definite diagnosis can be obtained |
| Gram staining | a staining technique that divides bacteria into gram-positive (purple) or gram-negative (red) based on the properties of their cell walls |
| hypotension | low blood pressure |
| infection | a condition in which bacteria grow in body tissues and cause tissue damage to the host either by their presence or by toxins they produce |
| ketolide | a class of antibiotics that block protein synthesis by binding to ribosomal subunits and may also inhibit the formation of new ribosomes; used primarily to treat bacterial infections in the lungs and sinuses |
| macrolide | a class of bacteriostatic antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis by combining with ribosomes; used primarily to treat pulmonary infections caused by Legionella and gram-positive organisms |
| nephrotoxicity | ability to damage the kidneys |
| nosocomial | acquired by patients in the hospital |
| NS | normal saline |
| ophthalmic | to be used in the eye |
| otic | to be used in the ear |
| ototoxicity | ability to damage the organs of hearing |
| penicillin | a class of antibiotics obtained from Penicillium chrysogenum; kill bacteria by preventing them from forming a rigid cell wall, thereby allowing an excessive amount of water to enter through osmosis and cause lysis of the bacterium cell |
| pH | a measurement of acidity or alkalinity. pH 7 is neutral; a solution with a pH above 7 is alkaline; a solution with a pH below 7 is acidic |
| quinolone | a class of antibiotics with rapid bactericidal action against most gram-negative and many gram-positive bacteria; work by causing DNA breakage and cell death; cross the blood-brain barrier |
| sepsis | a systemic inflammatory response to infection resulting from blood-borne infections |
| Stevens-Johnson syndrome | a sometimes fatal form of erythema multiforme (an allergic reaction marked by red blotches on the skin) |
| streptogramin | one of a class of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis within the bacterial ribosomes; useful in the treatment of vancomycin- and methicillin-resistant infections |
| sulfonamides | sulfa drugs; a class of bacteriostatic antibiotics that work by blocking a specific step in the biosynthetic pathway of folic acid in bacteria |
| superinfection | a new infection complicating the course of therapy of an existing infection |
| tetracyclines | a class of broad-spectrum bacteriostatic antibiotics that are produced by soil organisms and inhibit protein synthesis by binding to bacterial ribosomes |
| acute viral infection | an infection that quickly resolves with no latent infection |
| antiretroviral | a drug that limits the progression of HIV or other retrovirus infections |
| antiviral | an agent that prevents virus replication in a host cell without interfering with the host's normal function |
| boost | one drug given to increase the serum concentration of another drug |
| capsid | a protein shell that surrounds and protects the nucleic acid within a virus particle |
| chemokine coreceptor | a drug that prevents a strain of HIV from attaching to an immune system cell |
| cholesterol | a eukaryotic sterol that in higher animals is the precursor of bile acids and steroid hormones and is a key constituent of cell membranes |
| chronic viral infection | an infection that has a protracted course with long periods of remission interspersed with recurrence |
| envelope | membrane surrounding the capsid in some viruses and carrying surface proteins that attach to cell surface receptors |
| ergosterol | a form of lipid found in the cell membrane of fungi where higher animals have cholesterol |
| eukaryotic | having a defined nucleus, such as an animal or fungal cell |
| flu | influenza, a common viral infection |
| fungus | a single-cell eukaryotic organism (similar to a human cell rather than to bacteria); marked by a rigid cell wall, the absence of chlorophyll, and reproduction by spores |
| fusion inhibitor | a drug that prevents HIV from entering the immune cells |
| generalized viral infection | an infection that has spread to other tissues by way of the bloodstream or the central nervous system |
| hepatitis | viral inflammation of the liver |
| human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) | a retrovirus transmitted in body fluids that causes acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) by attacking T lymphocytes |
| immunocompromised | having a deficiency in the immune response system |
| immunoglobulin | an antibody that reacts to a specific foreign substance or organism and may prevent its antigen from attaching to a cell receptor or may destroy the organism |
| interferon | a substance that exerts virus-nonspecific but host-specific antiviral activity by inducing genes coding for antiviral proteins that inhibit the synthesis of viral RNA |
| integrase inhibitor | a drug that prevents DNA produced by the reverse transcriptase of HIV from becoming incorporated into the patient's DNA |
| latency | the ability of a virus to lie dormant and then, under certain conditions, reproduce and again behave like an infective agent, causing cell damage |
| local viral infection | a viral infection affecting tissues of a single system such as the respiratory tract, eye, or skin |
| naked virus | a virus without an envelope covering the capsid |
| non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI) | a drug that inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase by preventing the enzyme from working mechanically |
| nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) | a drug that inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase by competing with natural nucleic acid building block substrates, causing termination of the DNA chain |
| nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NtRTI) | a drug that inhibits HIV reverse transcriptase by competing with natural nucleic acid building block substrates, causing termination of chain formation, and is more nearly in the form used by the body than an NRTI |
| permeability | the ability of a material to allow molecules or ions to pass through it |
| post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) | the administration of antiretrovirals after exposure to HIV |
| prodrug | a compound that, on administration and chemical conversion by metabolic processes, becomes an active pharmacological agent |
| prokaryotic | not having a defined nucleus, like bacteria |
| protease inhibitor (PI) | a drug that prevents the cleavage of certain HIV protein precursors needed for the replication of new infectious virions |
| pulse dosing | a regimen of dosing one week per month; commonly used for treating fungal nail infections |
| retrovirus | a virus that can copy its RNA genetic information into the host's DNA |
| reverse transcriptase | a retroviral enzyme that makes a DNA copy from an RNA original |
| slow viral infection | an infection that maintains a progressive course over months or years with cumulative damage to body tissues, ultimately ending in the host's death |
| troche | a small lozenge |
| vaccination | the introduction of a vaccine, a component of an infectious agent, into the body to produce immunity to the actual agent |
| virion | an individual viral particle capable of infecting a living cell; consists of nucleic acid surrounded by a capsid (protein shell) |
| virus | a minute infectious agent that does not have all the components of a cell and thus can replicate only within a living host cell |
| addiction | a compulsive disorder that leads to continued use of a drug despite harm to the user |
| afferent system | the nerves and sense organs that bring information to the CNS; part of the peripheral nervous system |
| alpha receptors (alpha-adrenergic receptors) | nerve receptors that control vasoconstriction, pupil dilation, and relaxation of the GI smooth muscle in response to epinephrine |
| amide | a compound containing a -CONH- group; a longer-acting local anesthetic that is metabolized by liver enzymes |
| analgesic | a drug that alleviates pain |
| analgesic ladder | a guideline for selecting pain-relieving medications according to the severity of the pain and whether agents lower on the ladder have been able to control the pain |
| anesthesiologist | a physician who oversees administration of anesthesia during surgery |
| antagonists | drugs used to reverse the effects of other drugs, such as in treatment of benzodiazepine or narcotic overdoses |
| anticholinesterase | a drug that potentiates the action of acetylcholine by inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, which breaks acetylcholine down |
| aura | a subjective sensation or motor phenomenon that precedes and marks the onset of amigraine headache |
| autonomic nervous system (ANS) | the part of the efferent system of the PNS that regulates activities of body structures not under voluntary control |
| beta-1 receptors | nerve receptors on the heart that control the rate and strength of the heartbeat in response to epinephrine |
| beta-2 receptors | nerve receptors that control vasodilation and relaxation of the smooth muscle of the airways in response to epinephrine |
| central nervous system (CNS) | the brain and spinal cord |
| dependence | a physical and emotional reliance on a drug |
| efferent system | the nerves that dispatch information out from the CNS; part of the peripheral nervous system |
| endotracheal intubation | insertion of a tube into the trachea to keep it open |
| ester | a compound containing a -COO- group; a short-acting local anesthetic, metabolized by pseudocholinesterase of the plasma and tissue fluids |
| general anesthesia | a condition characterized by reversible unconsciousness, analgesia, skeletal muscle relaxation, and amnesia on recovery |
| local anesthesia | the production of transient and reversible loss of sensation in a defined area of the body |
| malignant hyperthermia | a rare, but serious, side effect of anesthesia associated with an increase in intracellular calcium and a rapid rise in body temperature |
| migraine headache | a severe, throbbing, unilateral headache, usually accompanied by nausea, photophobia, phonophobia, and hyperesthesia |
| narcotic analgesic | pain medication containing an opioid |
| neuromuscular blocking | skeletal muscle paralysis |
| neuron | a nerve cell that transmits information |
| neurotransmitter | a chemical substance that is selectively released from a neuron and stimulates or inhibits activity in the neuron's target cell |
| nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) | a drug such as aspirin or ibuprofen that reduces pain and inflammation |
| opiate | a narcotic that is either derived from opium or synthetically produced to resemble opium derivatives chemically |
| opioid | a substance, whether a drug or a chemical naturally produced by the body, that acts on opioid receptors to reduce the sensation of pain |
| pain | the electrical activity in afferent neurons with sensory endings in peripheral tissue with a higher threshold than those of temperature or touch; a signal to warn of damage or presence of disease; the fifth vital sign; classified as acute, chronic nonmali |
| patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump | a means of pain control whereby the patient can regulate, within certain limits, the administration of pain medication |
| peripheral nervous system (PNS) | the nerves and sense organs outside the CNS |
| somatic nervous system | the part of the efferent system of the PNS that regulates the skeletal muscles |
| vascular theory | a theory that proposes that migraine headaches are caused by vasodilation and the concomitant mechanical stimulation of sensory nerve endings |
| anorexia | loss of appetite for food |
| antipsychotics | drugs that are used to treat schizophrenia; reduce symptoms of hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders; also called neuroleptics |
| anxiety | a state of uneasiness characterized by apprehension and worry about possible events |
| autism | a disorder that first appears in childhood, characterized by repetitive behavior and impairment in social interaction and communication; it can be expressed through mood swings, irritability, tantrums, aggression, and self-injury |
| bipolar disorder | a condition in which a patient presents with mood swings that alternate between periods of major depression and periods of mild to severe chronic agitation |
| cataplexy | short periods of muscle weakness and loss of muscle tone associated with sudden emotions such as joy, fear, or anger; a symptom of narcolepsy |
| delirium tremens (DTs) | a condition caused by cessation of alcohol consumption in which coarse, irregular tremors are accompanied by vivid hallucinations |
| depression | a condition characterized by the feeling that life has no meaning, pessimism, intense sadness, loss of concentration, and problems with eating and sleeping |
| endogenous anxiety | anxiety caused by factors within the organism |
| exogenous anxiety | anxiety caused by factors outside the organism |
| extrapyramidal symptoms | disorders of muscle movement control caused by blocking dopamine receptors in the basal ganglia |
| ghost | empty shell of an OROS tablet, excreted in the stool after the drug has dissolved |
| hypnotic | a drug that induces sleep |
| insomnia | difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep or not feeling refreshed on awakening |
| mania | a mood of extreme excitement, excessive elation, hyperactivity, agitation, and increased psychomotor activity |
| monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOIs) | an antidepressant drug that inhibits the activity of the enzymes that break down catecholamines (such as norepinephrine) and serotonin |
| narcolepsy | a sleep disorder in which inappropriate attacks of sleep occur during the daytime hours |
| neuroleptics | drugs that are used to treat schizophrenia; reduce symptoms of hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders |
| neurotransmitter | a chemical produced by a nerve cell and involved in transmitting information in the body |
| obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) | a mental disorder characterized by recurrent, persistent urges to perform repetitive acts such as hand washing |
| osmotic-controlled release oral delivery system (OROS) | a drug delivery system that allows the drug to dissolve through pores in the tablet shell; the empty shell, called a ghost, is passed in the stool |
| panic | intense, overwhelming, and uncontrollable anxiety |
| priapism | bnormal penile erection |
| posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) | a disorder characterized by persistent agitation or persistent, recurrent fear after the end of a traumatic event and lasting for over a month or impairing work or relationships |
| QT interval | the time between depolarization and repolarization of the ventricles of the heart during a heartbeat, as shown on the electrocardiogram |
| seasonal affective disorder (SAD) | a form of depression that recurs in the fall and winter and remits in the spring and summer |
| schizophrenia | a chronic psychotic disorder manifested by retreat from reality, delusions, hallucinations, ambivalence, withdrawal, and bizarre or regressive behavior |
| selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) | an antidepressant drug that blocksthe reuptake of serotonin, with little effect on norepinephrine and fewer side effects than other antidepressant drugs |
| serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) | an antidepressant drug that blocks the reabsorption of both serotonin and norepinephrine, increasing the levels of both neurotransmitters |
| serotonin syndrome | a possibly fatal condition caused by combining antidepressants that increase serotonin levels with other medications that also stimulate serotonin receptors |
| tardive dyskinesia | involuntary movements of the mouth, lips, and tongue |
| tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) | one of a class of antidepressant drug, developed earlier than the SSRIs and SNRIs, that also prevent neuron reuptake of norepinephrine and/or serotonin |
| unipolar depression | major depression with no mania |
| absence seizure | a type of generalized seizure characterized by a sudden, momentary break in consciousness; formerly often called petit mal seizure |
| adjunct | a drug used with another drug |
| Alzheimer disease | a degenerative disorder of the brain that leads to progressive dementia and changes in personality and behavior |
| amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) | a degenerative disease of the motor nerves; also called Lou Gehrig's disease |
| anticonvulsant | a drug to control seizures |
| ataxia | irregular muscle movements |
| atonic seizure | a type of generalized seizure characterized by sudden loss of both muscle tone and consciousness |
| attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) | a neurologic disorder characterized by hyperactivity, impulsivity, and distractibility |
| area under the curve (AUC) | a measure of drug concentration in the blood |
| basal nuclei | symmetric, subcortical masses of gray matter embedded in the lower portions of the cerebral hemisphere; part of the extrapyramidal system; also called basal ganglia |
| catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) | an enzyme that metabolizes levodopa in the body; inhibited by certain anti-Parkinson agents |
| convulsion | involuntary contraction or series of contractions of the voluntary muscles |
| diplopia | the perception of two images of a single object |
| dysarthria | imperfect articulation of speech |
| dyskinesia | impairment of the power of voluntary movement |
| dysphagia | difficulty in swallowing |
| epilepsy | a neurologic disorder involving sudden and recurring seizures |
| generalized seizure | a seizure that involves both hemispheres of the brain simultaneously and has no local origin; can be a tonicclonic (grand mal), absence (petit mal), myoclonic, or atonic seizure |
| grand mal seizure | a type of generalized seizure characterized by body rigidity followed by muscle jerks |
| isomer | one of two or more compounds that contain the same number and type of atoms but have different molecular structures |
| Lou Gehrig disease | see amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) |
| motor end plate | the neuromuscular junction, where the nervous system and muscular system meet to produce or stop movement |
| multiple sclerosis (MS) | an autoimmune disease in which the myelin sheaths around nerves degenerate |
| muscle fasciculation | a small, local, involuntary muscular contraction visible under the skin |
| myasthenia gravis | an autoimmune disorder of the neuromuscular junction in which the ACh receptors are destroyed at the motor end plate, preventing muscles from responding to nerve signals to move them |
| myoclonic seizure | a type of generalized seizure characterized by sudden muscle contractions with no loss of consciousness |
| on-off phenomenon | a wide fluctuation between abnormally increased and abnormally diminished motor function, present in many Parkinson patients after about 5 years of levodopa therapy |
| Parkinson disease | a neurologic disorder characterized by akinesia, resting tremor, and muscular rigidity |
| partial seizure | an abnormal electrical discharge centered in a specific area of the brain; usually caused by a trauma |
| petit mal seizure | a type of generalized seizure characterized by a sudden, momentary break in consciousness |
| ptosis | paralytic drooping of the upper eyelid |
| restless leg syndrome | an overpowering urge to move the legs, especially at rest |
| seizure | abnormal electrical discharges in the cerebral cortex caused by sudden, excessive firing of neurons; result in a change in behavior of which the patient is not aware |
| status epilepticus | a serious disorder involving tonic-clonic convulsions that last at least 30 minutes |
| substance P | a potent neurotransmitter mediating sensations of pain, touch, and temperature |
| substantia nigra | a layer of gray substance separating parts of the brain |
| tonic-clonic seizure | a type of generalized seizure characterized by body rigidity followed by muscle jerks; formerly called a grand mal seizure |
| antihistamines | common term for drugs that block the H1 receptors |
| antitussives | drugs that block or suppress the act of coughing |
| aspiration | inhalation of fluids from the mouth and throat |
| asthma | a reversible lung disease with intermittent attacks in which inspiration is obstructed; provoked by airborne allergens |
| bronchitis | a condition in which the inner lining of the bronchial airways becomes inflamed, causing the expiration of air from the lungs to be obstructed |
| bronchodilator | an agent that relaxes smooth-muscle cells of the bronchioles, thereby increasing airway diameter and improving the movement of gases into and out of the lungs |
| bronchospasm | spasmodic contraction of the smooth muscles of the bronchiole |
| corticosteroid | a drug that chemically resembles substances produced by the adrenal gland and acts as an anti-inflammatory agent to suppress the immune response by stimulating adenylate cyclase |
| cotinine | a major metabolite of nicotine |
| cough reflex | a coordinated series of events, initiated by stimulation of receptors in the lungs and airways, that results in a cough |
| cystic fibrosis (CF) | a hereditary disorder of infants, children, and young adults that involves widespread dysfunction of the gastrointestinal and pulmonary systems |
| decongestant | an agent that causes the mucous membranes to shrink, thereby allowing the sinus cavities to drain |
| emphysema | an irreversible lung disease characterized by destruction of the alveoli in the lungs, which allows air to accumulate in tissues and organs |
| expectorant | an agent that decreases the thickness and stickiness of mucus, enabling the patient to rid the lungs and airway of mucus when coughing |
| histoplasmosis | a respiratory tract infection caused by a fungus, most often found in accumulated droppings from birds and bats; often called the summer flu |
| irritant receptor | a nerve cell in the lungs and airways that responds to coarse particles and chemicals to trigger a cough |
| leukotriene inhibitor | an agent that blocks the body's inflammatory responses to the leukotrienes or blocks their synthesis |
| mast cell stabilizer | an agent that stabilizes mast cell membranes against rupture caused by antigenic substances and thereby reduces the amount of histamine and other inflammatory substances released in airway tissues |
| metered dose inhaler (MDI) | a device that delivers a specific amount of medication (as for asthma) in a fine enough spray to reach the innermost parts of the lungs using a puff of compressed gas |
| monoclonal antibody | an antibody produced in a laboratory from an isolated specific lymphocyte that produces a pure antibody against a known, specific antigen |
| mucolytic | an agent that destroys or dissolves mucus |
| nebulizer | a device used in the administration of inhaled medications, using air flowing past a liquid to create a mist |
| nicotine | the addictive component of tobacco |
| peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) | the maximum flow rate generated during a forced expiration, measured in liters per minute |
| peak flow meter | a device used to measure the PEFR as an indication of respiratory status; usually used twice a day by asthma patients |
| percussion | a therapy used for cystic fibrosis (CF) patients involving a tapping movement to induce cough and expectoration of sputum from the lungs; usually preceded by nebulizer therapy during which nebulized sterile water or normal saline is breathed to liquefy pu |
| pneumonia | a common lung infection, caused by microorganisms that gain access to the lower respiratory tract |
| respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) | a syndrome occurring in newborns that is characterized by acute asphyxia with hypoxia and acidosis |
| rhinitis medicamentosa | a condition of decreased response that results when nasal decongestants are used over prolonged periods |
| spacer | a device used with a metered dose inhaler (MDI) to decrease the amount of spray deposited on the back of the throat and swallowed |
| status asthmaticus | a medical emergency that begins as an asthma attack but does not respond to normal management; can result in loss of consciousness and death |
| stretch receptor | a nerve cell in the lungs and airways that responds to elongation of muscle to trigger a cough |
| surfactant | a fluid that reduces surface tension between the air in the alveoli and the inner surfaces of the alveoli, allowing gas to be exchanged between the lung and the air |
| tachypnea | very rapid respiration causing a flushed appearance; a characteristic ofemphysema |
| tuberculosis (TB) | a disease of the lungs and other body tissues and organs caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis |
| xanthine derivative | a drug that causes relaxation of airway smooth muscle, thus causing airway dilation and better air movement |
| antiemetic | a drug that inhibits impulses that cause vomiting from going to the stomach |
| body mass index (BMI) | a guide to use in determining whether to initiate pharmacologic treatment for obesity; calculated by dividing the patient's weight (in kilograms) by the patient's height (in meters) squared (kg/m2) |
| bowel evacuant | an agent used to empty the colon prior to GI examination or after toxic ingestion |
| chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ) | an area below the floor of the fourth ventricle of the brain that can trigger nausea and vomiting when certain signals are received |
| Crohn disease | an inflammatory bowel disease affecting the entire GI tract from mouth to anus |
| diverticular disease | formation and inflammation of an outpocketing from the colon wall |
| duodenal ulcer | a peptic lesion situated in the duodenum |
| emesis | vomiting |
| empty stomach | 2 hours before or after eating |
| fiber | the undigested residue of fruits, vegetables, and other foods of plant origin that remains after digestion by the human GI enzymes; characterized by fermentability and may be either water soluble or insoluble |
| gastric stasis | lack of stomach motility |
| gastric ulcer | a local excavation in the gastric mucosa |
| gastritis | irritation and superficial erosion of the stomach lining |
| gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) | a GI disease characterized by radiating burning or pain in the chest and an acid taste, caused by backflow of acidic stomach contents across an incompetent lower esophageal sphincter; also referred to as heartburn |
| gastrointestinal (GI) tract | a continuous tube that begins in the mouth and extends through the pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine to end at the anus |
| GI transit time | the time it takes for material to pass from one end of the GI tract to the other; the slower the GI transit time, the greater the amounts of nutrients and water absorbed |
| H2 histamine receptor antagonist | an agent that blocks acid and pepsin secretion in response to histamine, gastrin, foods, distention, caffeine, or cholinergic stimulation; used to treat GERD and H. pylori |
| Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) | a bacterium that contributes to the development of many gastric ulcers |
| hemorrhoids | engorgements of the vascular cushions situated within the sphincter muscles; result from pressure exerted on anal veins while straining to pass a stool |
| hepatitis | a disease of the liver that causes inflammation, can be acute or chronic, and has several forms A through G |
| hepatitis A | a viral form of hepatitis that is usually mild and transient and can be spread from one person to another |
| hepatitis B | the most dangerous form of hepatitis, accompanied by jaundice and easily spread from one person to another |
| hepatitis C | an infection of the liver that cannot be spread from one person to another by contact; most commonly transmitted by blood transfusions or illicit drug use |
| hiatal hernia | a protrusion through the esophageal hiatus of the diaphragm |
| host | the animal on which a parasite feeds |
| irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) | a functional disorder in which the lower GI tract does not have appropriate tone or spasticity to regulate bowel activity |
| IVIG | the notation for immune globulin that is given intravenously |
| malabsorption syndrome | impaired intestinal absorption of nutrients |
| malaria | an infectious febrile disease caused by the protozoan Plasmodium and transmitted by the Anopheles mosquito |
| morbid obesity | a state in which an individual's weight is two or more times the ideal body weight (IBW) |
| obesity | a state in which an individual's total body weight includes greater quantities of fat than is considered normal (25% of total body weight for men and 35% for women) |
| osmotic laxative | an organic substance that draws water into the colon and thereby stimulates evacuation |
| parasite | an organism that lives on or in another organism (known as the host), surviving by drawing nourishment from the food or the tissues of the host; the parasite lives within the intermediate host during the larval stage and within the definitive host at matu |
| peptic disease | disorders of the upper GI tract caused by the action of acid and pepsin; includes mucosal injury, erythema, erosions, and frank ulceration |
| peptic ulcer | an ulcer formed at any part of the GI tract exposed to acid and the enzyme pepsin |
| phenothiazine | a drug, related to the typical antipsychotics, that controls vomiting by inhibiting the CTZ |
| proton pump inhibitor | a drug that blocks gastric acid secretion by inhibiting the enzyme that pumps hydrogen ions into the stomach |
| protozoan | single-celled animal |
| reflux | backflow; specifically in GERD, the backflow of acidic stomach contents across an incompetent lower esophageal sphincter |
| saline laxative | an inorganic salt that attracts water into the hollow portion (lumen) of the colon, increasing intraluminal pressure to cause evacuation |
| stimulant laxative | a laxative that increases gut activity by irritating the mucosa |
| stress ulcer | a peptic ulcer, usually gastric, that occurs in a clinical setting; caused by a breakdown of natural mucosal resistance |
| surfactant laxative | a stool softener that has a detergent activity that facilitates mixing of fat and water, making the stool soft and mushy |
| traveler's diarrhea | diarrhea caused by ingesting contaminated food or water; so called because it is often contracted by travelers in countries where the water supply is contaminated |
| ulcer | a local defect or excavation of the surface of an organ or tissue |
| ulcerative colitis | irritation and inflammation of the large bowel, causing it to look scraped; characterized by bloody mucus leading to watery diarrhea containing blood, mucus, and pus |
| vector | an animal that transfers a parasite to a host |
| vertigo | the sensation of the room spinning when one gets up or changes positions; can be treated with anticholinergic agents |
| acute renal failure | rapid reduction in kidney function resulting in accumulation of nitrogen and other wastes |
| benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) | abnormal enlargement of the prostate gland, usually associated with aging |
| carbonic anhydrase inhibitor | a diuretic that acts in the proximal tubule to increase urine volume and change the pH to alkaline |
| diuretic | a substance that rids the body of excess fluid and electrolytes by increasing the urine output |
| filtration | the removal of substances from the blood as part of the formation of urine by the renal tubules |
| hematocrit | the proportion of volume of red blood cells to the total volume of blood |
| loop diuretic | a drug that inhibits reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the loop of Henle, thereby causing increased urinary output |
| nephron | glomerulotubular units that are the working units of the kidney |
| nocturia | urinary frequency at night |
| osmotic diuretic | a drug that increases the osmotic pressure of glomerular filtrate, thereby inhibiting tubular reabsorption of water and electrolytes and increasing urinary output |
| potassium-sparing diuretic | a drug that promotes excretion of water and sodium but inhibits the exchange of sodium for potassium |
| reabsorption | the process by which substances are pulled back into the blood after waste products have been removed during the formation of urine |
| reticulocytes | immature red blood cells |
| secretion | the release of cell products, including hydrogen and potassium ions and acids and bases, into urine being formed |
| stress incontinence | urine leakage during physical movements |
| thiazide diuretic | a drug based on benzothiadiazine that blocks a pump that removes sodium and chloride together from the distal tubule |
| uremia | the clinical syndrome resulting from renal dysfunction in which excessive products of protein metabolism are retained in the blood |
| urinary tract | the group of organs that include the kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra, and that is involved in the production and transportation of urine |
| urinary tract infection (UTI) | an infection caused by bacteria, usually E. coli, that enter via the urethra and progress up the urinary tract; characterized by the presence of bacteria in the urine with localized symptoms |
| action potential | the electrical signal that causes a muscle to contract |
| afterload | arterial impedance, or the force against which cardiac muscle shortens; along with preload and contractility, determines cardiac output |
| angina pectoris | spasmodic or suffocating chest pain caused by an imbalance between oxygen supply and oxygen demand |
| anticoagulant | a drug that prevents clot formation by affecting clotting factors |
| antiplatelet | a drug that reduces the risk of clot formation by inhibiting platelet aggregation |
| arrhythmia | any variation from the normal heartbeat |
| ascites | the accumulation of fluids in the abdominal organs and the lower extremities |
| atherosclerosis | accumulation of lipoproteins and fats on the inner surfaces of arteries, eventually clogging the arteries and leading to MI, stroke, or gangrene |
| atrioventricular (AV) node | part of the conduction system of the heart that carries the action potential from the atria to the ventricles with a delay |
| beta blocker | a Class II antiarrhythmic drug that competitively blocks response to beta adrenergic stimulation and therefore lowers heart rate, myocardial contractility, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen demand; used to treat arrhythmias, MIs, and angina |
| blood pressure (BP) | the result of the heart forcing the blood through the capillaries; measured in millimeters of mercury, both when the heart is contracting and forcing the blood (systolic) and when the heart is relaxed and filling with blood (diastolic) |
| bradycardia | abnormally slow heart rate (below 60 beats per minute) |
| calcium channel blocker | a Class IV antiarrhythmic drug that prevents the movement of calcium ions through slow channels; used for most supraventricular tachyarrhythmias and in angina |
| cardiomegaly | enlargement of the heart due to overwork from overstimulation |
| cardiovascular (CV) | pertaining to the heart and blood vessels |
| cholesterol | an odorless, white, waxlike, powdery substance that is present in all foods of animal origin but not in foods of plant origin; circulates continuously in the blood for use by all body cells |
| clotting cascade | a series of events that initiate blood clotting, or coagulation |
| congestive heart failure (CHF) | a condition in which the heart can no longer pump adequate blood to the body's tissues; results in engorgement of the pulmonary vessels |
| contractility | the cardiac muscle's capacity for becoming shorter in response to a stimulus; along with preload and afterload, determines cardiac output |
| depolarization | reversal of the negative voltage across a heart or nerve cell membrane, caused by an inflow of positive ions |
| diastolic blood pressure | the blood pressure measurement that measures the pressure during the dilation of the heart |
| ectopic pacemaker | a pacemaker other than the SA node |
| fibrinolytic | an agent that dissolves clots |
| glycoprotein antagonist | an antiplatelet agent that binds to receptors on platelets, preventing platelet aggregation as well as the binding of fibrinogen and other adhesive molecules |
| hematocrit | the proportion of a blood sample that is red blood cells |
| high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) | lipoproteins containing 5% triglyceride, 25% cholesterol, and 50% protein; "good cholesterol" |
| hypercholesterolemia | excessive cholesterol in the blood |
| hyperlipidemia | elevation of the levels of one or more of the lipoproteins in the blood |
| hypertension | elevated blood pressure, where systolic blood pressure is greater than 140 mm Hg and diastolic pressure is greater than 90 mm Hg |
| International Normalized Ratio (INR) | a method of standardizing the prothrombin time (PT) by comparing it to a standard index |
| ischemic stroke | a cerebral infarction, in which a region of the brain is damaged by being deprived of oxygen |
| lipoprotein | a spherical particle containing a core of triglycerides and cholesterol, in varying proportions, surrounded by a surface coat of phospholipids that enables it to remain in solution |
| low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) | lipoproteins containing 6% triglycerides and 65% cholesterol; "bad cholesterol" |
| membrane stabilizing agent | a Class I antiarrhythmic drug that slows the movement of ions into cardiac cells, thus reducing the action potential and dampening abnormal rhythms and heartbeats |
| myocardial hypertrophy | thickening of the heart muscle in response to overstimulation |
| myocardial infarction (MI) | a heart attack; occurs when a region of the heart muscle is deprived of oxygen |
| partial thromboplastin time (PTT) | a test that measures the function of the intrinsic and common pathways in blood clotting; affected by heparin |
| preload | the mechanical state of the heart at the end of diastole; along with afterload and contractility, determines cardiac output |
| prothrombin time (PT) | a test that assesses the function of the extrinsic pathways of the coagulation system; affected by warfarin |
| pulmonary embolism (PE) | sudden blocking of the pulmonary artery by a blood clot |
| repolarization | restoration of the negative voltage across a heart or nerve cell membrane, caused by an outflow of positive ions |
| reversible ischemic neurologic deficit (RIND) | a neurologic change, caused by a temporary shortage of oxygen, that reverses spontaneously but less rapidly than a TIA |
| sinoatrial (SA) node | the normal pacemaker area of the heart |
| stable angina | a type of angina characterized by effort-induced chest pain from physical activity or emotional stress; usually predictable and reproducible |
| statin | an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor, a drug that inhibits the rate-limiting step in cholesterol formation |
| stroke | the result of an event (finite, ongoing, or protracted occurrences) that interrupts oxygen supply to an area of the brain; usually caused by cerebral infarction or cerebral hemorrhage |
| systolic blood pressure | a blood pressure measurement that measures the pressure during contraction of the heart |
| tachycardia | excessively fast heart rate |
| thrombus | blood clot |
| thrombocytopenia | a decrease in the bone marrow production of blood platelets |
| transient ischemic attack (TIA) | temporary neurologic change that occurs when part of the brain lacks sufficient blood supply over a brief period of time; may be a warning sign and predictor of imminent stroke |
| triglycerides | Neutral fats synthesized from carbohydrates for storage in adipose cells |
| unstable angina | a type of angina characterized by chest pain that occurs with increasing frequency, diminishes the patient's ability to work, and has a decreasing response to treatment; may signal an oncoming MI |
| variant angina | a type of angina characterized by chest pain due to coronary artery spasm; usually not stress induced |
| very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs) | lipoproteins containing 60% triglycerides and 12% cholesterol |
| acetylcholine (ACh) | a neurotransmitter that binds to ACh receptors on the membranes of muscle cells, beginning a process that ultimately results in muscle contraction |
| analgesic | pain relieving |
| antipyretic | fever reducing |
| arthritis | joint inflammation; persistent pain due to functional problems of the joints |
| autoimmune disease | illness in which the immune system attacks and destroys healthy tissue within the body |
| bursitis | inflammation of a bursa |
| cyclooxygenase-1 (COX-1) | an enzyme that is present in most body tissues and produces protective prostaglandins to regulate physiological processes such as GI mucosal integrity |
| cyclooxygenase-2 (COX-2) | an enzyme that is present in the synovial fluid of arthritis patients and is associated with the pain and inflammation of arthritis |
| disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs) | agents that can modify the progression of rheumatoid arthritis |
| gouty arthritis | a disease resulting from the improper excretion of uric acid; also called gout |
| muscle relaxant | a drug that reduces or prevents skeletal muscle contraction |
| muscle spasticity | a condition whereby muscle fibers are in a state of involuntary, continuous contraction that causes pain |
| nonnarcotic analgesic | a drug used for pain, inflammation, and fever that is not a controlled substance |
| nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) | anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic drugs that are not controlled substances or steroids; used to treat arthritis and for other indications such as pain and inflammation |
| osteoarthritis | a degenerative joint disease resulting in loss of cartilage, elasticity, and thickness |
| Reye syndrome | a condition that can develop in children who have been exposed to chicken pox or other viral infections and are given aspirin; characterized by amnesia, lethargy, disorientation, and agitation that can culminate in coma and respiratory failure |
| rheumatoid arthritis (RA) | an autoimmune disease in which the body's immune system attacks its own connective tissue; characterized by inflammation of the synovial membrane of the joints |
| salicylates | a class of nonnarcotic analgesics that have both pain-relieving and antipyretic (fever-reducing) properties |
| salicylism | mild salicylate intoxication, characterized by ringing in the ears, dizziness, headache, and mental confusion |
| somatic pain | dull, throbbing pain from skin, muscle, and bone |
| tophus | a deposit of sodium urate around a joint |
| visceral pain | sharp, stabbing pain from the organs |
| AB rated | of a generic drug, rated as bioequivalent to the branded drug by the FDA as shown by an experimental study |
| Addison disease | a life-threatening deficiency of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids that is treated with the daily administration of corticosteroid |
| alopecia | hair loss |
| anabolic treatment | muscle building |
| androgen | hormone that promotes development and maintenance of male characteristics |
| blastocyst | the stage in development at which a fertilized egg has divided into 70-100 cells and is ready to implant, consisting of the inner embryoblast and an outer layer that will become the placenta |
| chancre | small, usually painless, highly infectious ulcer; the primary lesion of syphilis |
| circadian | regularly recurring on a cycles of 24 hours |
| climacteric | the syndrome of endocrine, somatic, and psychic changes occurring at the end of the reproductive period in females |
| corticosteroid | steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex |
| Cushing disease | a disease caused by overproduction of steroids or by excessive administration of corticosteroids over an extended period |
| Dispense As Written (DAW) | instruction in a prescription to prevent substitution of generic drugs for the branded drug |
| dyspareunia | a condition of the female in which normal intercourse is painful |
| endocrine system | glands and other structures that elaborate internal secretions, called hormones, that are released directly into the circulatory system |
| endometrium | the lining of the uterus, which grows in the early part of the menstrual cycle to be ready to receive a fertilized egg and breaks down at the end of the cycle, leading to menstruation |
| estrogen | one of the group of hormones that stimulate the growth of reproductive tissue in females |
| feedback mechanism | the return of some of the output of a system as input so as to exert some control on the process |
| gestational diabetes | diabetes that occurs during pregnancy when insufficient insulin is produced |
| glucocorticoid | corticosteroid involved in metabolism and immune system regulation |
| gluconeogenesis | the process of forming new glucose, in which protein and fatty acids are converted into immediate energy sources |
| growth hormone (GH) | a fundamental hormone that affects metabolism, skeletal growth, and somatic growth; deficiency causes growth retardation |
| growth hormone releasing factor (GHRF) | a neuropeptide secreted by the hypothalamus that stimulates the secretion of growth hormone by the pituitary |
| gynecomastia | excessive development of the male mammary glands, with or without tenderness |
| HbA1C glycosylated hemoglobin | an "average" of the sugar measured in blood glucose over a period of time |
| hirsutism | abnormal hairiness, especially in women |
| hormone therapy (HT) | replacement of deficient hormones such as estrogen |
| hyperglycemia | elevated blood sugar level |
| hyperthyroidism | a condition caused by excessive thyroid hormone and marked by increased metabolic rate; also called thyrotoxicosis |
| hypoglycemia | low blood glucose level (less than 70 mg/dL) |
| hypogonadism | a deficiency of hormone production and secretion |
| hypothyroidism | a deficiency of thyroid activity that results in a decreased metabolic rate, tiredness, and lethargy in adults and causes cretinism in children |
| impotence | failure of the male to initiate or to maintain an erection until ejaculation |
| mineralocorticoid | corticosteroid involved in electrolyte and water balance |
| oral contraceptive (OCs) | a combination of one or more hormonal compounds taken orally to prevent the occurrence of pregnancy |
| osteoblast | a cell that forms bone |
| osteoclast | a cell that resorbs bone |
| osteoporosis | the condition of reduced bone mineral density, disrupted microarchitecture of bone structure, and increased likelihood of fracture |
| oxytocic agent | a drug that promotes contraction of uterine muscle at term of pregnancy |
| priapism | frequent or prolonged, painful penile erections |
| progestin | a synthetic hormone that emulates the effects of progesterone |
| progesterone | the hormone that prepares the uterus for the reception and development of the fertilized ovum |
| secondary diabetes | diabetes caused by drugs |
| target | a cell, tissue, or organ that is affected by a particular hormone |
| testosterone | a hormone that is responsible for sperm production, sexual potency, and the maintenance of muscle mass and strength, among other functions |
| thyroid gland | a gland that produces hormones that stimulate various body tissues to increase their activity level |
| thyroid storm | a life-threatening medical emergency with the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis, but more exaggerated |
| tocolytic agent | a drug that slows labor in pregnancy, used to treat premature labor |
| type I diabetes | insulin-dependent diabetes, in which the pancreas has no ability to produce insulin |
| type II diabetes | a type of diabetes characterized by insulin insufficiency or by the resistance of the target tissues to the insulin produced |
| vasomotor | affecting constriction and dilation of blood vessels |
| virilization | the development of male characteristics |
| acne vulgaris | an inflammation of the skin, usually on the face and neck, that is caused by increased activity of the sebaceous glands at puberty |
| actinic keratosis | a scaly skin lesion that is caused by too much sun and can lead to skin cancer |
| aqueous humor | the liquid in the front portion of the eye |
| atopic eczema | a chronic pruritic eruption of unknown etiology, although allergic, hereditary, and psychogenic factors may be involved; also called atopic dermatitis |
| basal cell carcinoma | a slow-growing skin cancer that usually forms polyps and rarely metastasizes |
| beyond-use date | the date after which a drug should not be used once it has been removed from the intact container |
| candidiasis | a fungal infection (Candida albicans) most commonly involving the oral and vaginal mucosa |
| carbuncle | a coalescent mass of infected hair follicles that are deeper than furuncles |
| conjunctivitis | pink eye; inflammation of the membrane covering the inside of the eyelid and the outside of the eyeball |
| contact dermatitis | an inflammatory reaction produced by contact with an irritating agent |
| dermatome | area of the skin associated with one pair of nerves emerging horizontally from the spinal cord |
| dermis | layer of skin below the epidermis |
| eczema | a hot, itchy, red, oozing skin inflammation; also called dermatitis |
| emulsify | to break a liquid that does not dissolve in water into small globules that can be suspended in water |
| epidermis | the top layer of the skin |
| erysipelas | a skin infection characterized by redness and warmth, local pain, edematous plaque with sharply established borders, chills, malaise, and fever; a form of cellulitis |
| folliculitis | an inflammation of a hair follicle by a minute, red, pustulated nodule without involvement of the surrounding tissue |
| furuncle | a boil; caused by a staphylococcal infection of a sebaceous gland and the associated hair follicle |
| glaucoma | a chronic eye disorder characterized by abnormally high internal eye pressure that destroys the optic nerve and causes partial or complete loss of vision |
| impetigo | a superficial, highly contagious skin infection; characterized by small red spots that evolve into vesicles, break, become encrusted, and are surrounded by a zone of erythema |
| keratoacanthoma | an epithelial skin tumor that first grows rapidly and then regresses and heals |
| melanoma | a highly malignant skin cancer formed from pigmented skin cells |
| otalgia | earache |
| pediculosis | an infestation of lice |
| petechiae | minute red spots on the skin due to the escape of a small amount of blood |
| phototoxicity | a property of a chemical that becomes toxic on exposure to light |
| photosensitivity | an abnormal response of the skin or eye to sunlight |
| psoriasis | a skin disorder characterized by patches of red, scaly skin that are slightly raised with defined margins; usually occurs on the elbows and knees but can affect any part of the body |
| retinoid | a compound related to vitamin A that helps to regulate skin cell growth |
| ringworm | a fungus that infects the horny (scaly) layer of skin or the nails; also called tinea |
| rosacea | chronic dermatologic disorder involving inflammation of the skin of the face; also called acne rosacea |
| seborrhea | a skin condition caused by excessive secretion by the sebaceous glands; gives the skin an oily appearance |
| squamous cell carcinoma | a skin cancer that grows more rapidly than basal cell carcinoma but in which metastasis is uncommon |
| suppuration | formation or discharge of pus |
| teratogenic | causing birth defects |
| wart | a virally caused epidermal tumor |
| amino acid | the basic unit of a protein molecule; there are 20 different amino acids used in proteins, each having a specific set of shape, electrical charge, and water or fat affinity characteristics |
| antirejection drug | a medication that prevents the body from rejecting foreign solid organ transplants |
| B cell | antibody-producing lymphocyte involved in humoral immunity |
| biologic-response modifiers | agents that alter the expression and response to surface antigens and enhance immune cell activities in ways that promote destruction of human malignancies |
| biotechnology | the application of biologic systems and organisms for agricultural, industrial, and medical purposes |
| cellular (cell-mediated) immunity | a specific response to antigens that is mediated primarily by T lymphocytes and macrophages |
| cloning | reproducing identical copies of a gene by DNA technology |
| colony-stimulating factor (CSF) | a chemical that stimulates the bone marrow to produce blood cells |
| complement | lipoproteins and globulins in blood plasma that react with the antigenantibody complex |
| complementary | of a nucleic acid strand, having each nucleotide base paired up with its counterpart in the other strand |
| cytoprotective agent | an agent administered to reduce the side effects and toxicity of chemotherapy agents |
| denatured | disruption of the structure |
| diffuse tumor | a cancerous growth that is widely distributed and are not localized |
| DNA sequence | order of nucleotide bases in the DNA molecule; a group of three nucleotides translates into one amino acid |
| extravasation | the escape of IV fluids into the surrounding tissue |
| granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) | an agent that stimulates the bone marrow to produce specific white cells, such as the granulocytes |
| hematologic agent | a replacement plasma protein that is necessary for blood coagulation and is not produced in a person with hemophilia |
| humoral immunity | an immune response in which secreted antibodies are transported by bodily fluids |
| immune response | the immune system's way of providing resistance to disease and malignancy through the production of antibodies and phagocytes |
| immunoglobulin (Ig) | a protein that responds to a specific antigen; also known as an antibody |
| lymphatic system | a network of vessels that carry lymph, the lymph nodes, and the lymphoid organs including the tonsils, spleen, and thymus; a system for filtering body fluids by nodes, vessels, and lymphocytes before the fluid returns to general circulation |
| MAb (monoclonal antibody) | an antibody produced in the laboratory by a culture derived from a single B cell |
| macrophage | a large white blood cell that engulfs antigens, toxins, and cellular debris, and digests it, and displays peptides complexed with MHC for recognition by T cells |
| neoplastic disease | a disorder that occurs when normal cellular control mechanisms become altered; characterized by uncontrolled cellular growth and the development of abnormal cells; also referred to as cancer |
| nucleotide | the basic unit of a DNA molecule, containing one of four possible bases |
| opsonization | labeling antigenic material so that it is more readily identified and destroyed by macrophages |
| oral complications | tissue injury to the oral cavity associated with chemotherapy and radiation |
| plasma cell | a B cell that produces freely circulating antibody in very large quantities |
| plasmid | a small circular ring of DNA that can insert itself into bacterial genes and can carry genes from one bacterial cell to another |
| primary site | the original site where a cancer tumor develops |
| promoter | the part of plasmid DNA where protein production starts |
| recombinant DNA | artificial DNA produced in a laboratory by inserting strands of DNA from one organism into that of another organism |
| remission | the condition in which a tumor is inactive with no cell division or growth; typically, a goal of chemotherapy |
| replication | the process of copying the DNA of a cell into a new set of DNA molecules to produce a new cell |
| resistance | lack of responsiveness of cancer cells to chemotherapy |
| secondary site | a new cancer tumor site to which malignant cells have spread from the original site |
| small lymphocyte | T and B memory cells, which carry and preserve information for the recognition of specific antigens |
| solid tumor | a tumor that forms a solid mass and can be palpated |
| T cell | lymphocyte that responds to antigens presented on the surface of other cells; involved in cellular immunity |
| terminator | the portion of plasmid DNA where protein production stops |
| transcription | the copying of information from a DNA strand onto an RNA strand, which then serves as a messenger to the molecular systems that use it to assemble a protein |
| acidosis | a blood pH below 7.35; a metabolic condition due to excessive loss of bicarbonate or sodium |
| alkalosis | a blood pH above 7.45; a metabolic condition due to excessive loss of potassium or chloride |
| antidote | a drug that counters the harmful effects of a poison |
| antivenin | a material used in treatment of poisoning by animal venom |
| botulin toxin | a neurotoxin that blocks the release of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction, resulting in muscular paralysis |
| chelating agent | a drug that bonds to a metal ion to prevent it from reacting with biological compounds |
| Code Blue | a system to communicate that a patient is in a life-threatening situation |
| coenzyme | a chemical other than a protein that is needed to assist an enzyme in performing a metabolic function |
| cracking | separation of lipid from a parenteral nutrition solution |
| electrolyte | a substance that dissociates into ions in solution and is thus capable of conducting electricity |
| enteral | by way of, or pertaining to, the intestine |
| enteral nutrition | feeding a patient liquid food through a tube that leads to the gastrointestinal system |
| fat-soluble vitamins | vitamins that are absorbed along with dietary fat and are maintained in large stores by the body; vitamins A, D, E, and K |
| gastric lavage | a procedure to wash out or irrigate the patient's stomach, commonly known as a stomach pump |
| herbs | plants or plant parts extracted and valued for their savory, aromatic, or medicinal qualities |
| hypertonic solution | a solution with a higher concentration of particles than body fluids contain |
| hypotonic solution | a solution with a lower concentration of particles than body fluids contain |
| isotonic solution | a solution with the same level of particles, and thus the same tonicity, as body fluids |
| malnutrition | any disorder of nutrition |
| medical food | a preparation taken orally consisting of nutrients specifically required to treat some disease or condition |
| osteomalacia | demineralization and weakening of the skeleton, caused by a deficiency of vitamin D in adults |
| parenteral nutrition | feeding a patient by supplying a nutrient solution through a vein |
| phytonadione | vitamin K1 |
| pooling | a time-saving process used when preparing a three-in-one TPN, in which all electrolytes except phosphate are put into a small-volume parenteral bag and then transferred into each batch |
| probiotic | a product to restore or promote the growth of normal bacterial flora in the body |
| propagate | reproduce |
| ricin | a toxin derived from the castor bean that acts by disabling the molecular machinery for protein synthesis |
| supportive therapy | therapy for poisoning that consists of establishing the airway and providing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR); maintaining body temperature, nutritional status, and fluid and electrolyte balance; and preventing circulatory collapse, hypoglycemia, uremi |
| three-in-one | see total nutrient admixture |
| tocopherol | one of the alcohols that constitute vitamin E |
| tonicity | the relationship of a solution to the body's own fluids; measured by determining the number of dissolved particles in solution |
| total nutrient admixture (TNA) | an amino acid-dextrose-lipid formulation used for parenteral nutrition; often called three-in-one |
| total parenteral nutrition (TPN) | feeding a patient through the veins only |
| two-in-one | a formulation for parenteral nutrition that contains only amino acids and dextrose |
| vitamin | an organic substance that is necessary for the normal metabolic functioning of the body but that the body does not synthesize, so it must be obtained from food |
| water-soluble vitamins | vitamins that are excreted in the urine and are not stored in the body; vitamin C and the B vitamins |
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