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CDC's 7 lvl
WAPS testing
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Who is the principle assistant to the president for military matters? | the Secretary of Defense (SecDef) |
| What does the term “combatant command” mean? | a unified or specified command |
| Described a unified command. | A unified combatant command has a broad continuing mission under a single commander composed of forces from two or more services. It is established by the president through the SecDef with the advice and assistance of the CJCS. |
| Described a specific command. | has a broad, continuing mission, normally composed of forces from a single military department. It is established by the president through the SecDef with the advice and assistance of the CJCS. Currently, there are no specified commands. |
| What is OPCON? command authority that may be exercised by commanders at any level at or below the level of combatant command and may be delegated within the command. | The authority to assign tasks, to designate objectives and the authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission. It also includes authority to direct joint training. |
| What is TACON? is the command authority over assigned or attached forces or commands, | or military capability or forces made available for tasking, that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned. |
| What term is defined as applying to organizations, plans and operations of two or more nations? | combined |
| What commands are bi-national or multinational? | The North American Aerospace Defense Command, Combined Forces Command Korea, and Allied Command Operations are examples of multinational commands. |
| What two distinct chains of command will forces have participating in a multinational operation? | a national chain of command and a multinational chain of command |
| Who has the authority to terminate US participation in multinational operations at any time? | The President |
| The basic structures for multinational operations fall into what three types of command? | integrated, lead nation, or parallel command. |
| What are the key factors in an integrated combined command? The key factors in an integrated combined command are a designated single commander, the staff is composed of representatives from all member nations and | subordinate commands and staffs are integrated into the lowest echelon necessary to accomplish the mission. |
| How can a lead nation command be distinguished? | by a dominant lead nation command and staff arrangement with subordinate elements retaining strict national integrity. |
| Why should a parallel command structure be avoided if at all possible? | because of the absence of a single commander |
| What does a national component provide? a means to administer and support the national forces, coordinate communication to the parent nation, tender national military views and | recommendations directly to the multinational commander, and facilitate the assignment and reassignment of national forces to subordinate operational multinational organizations. |
| What is an alliance? | is an agreement or friendship between two or more parties, made in order to advance common goals and to secure common interests |
| How can an alliance save costs and multiply benefits? | through the division of responsibilities, the sharing of common assets, or simply the protection provided by having a stronger country as an ally. |
| What are the twelve original NATO countries that signed the North Atlantic Treaty on April 4th, 1949? | Belgium, Canada, Denmark, France, Iceland, Italy, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Portugal, Great Britain, and the United States. |
| Which article in the North Atlantic Treaty states that an armed attack on one or more of them in Europe or North America shall be considered an attack against them all? | The heart of NATO is expressed in Article 5 |
| What other area does NATO act in apart from peacekeeping between countries and deterring war? | also acts in the area of crisis management. |
| What is a coalition? | a pact or treaty among individuals or groups, during which they cooperate in joint action, each in their own self interests, joining forces together for a common cause. |
| What two basic structures are coalitions characterized? | lead nation or parallel |
| What two key structural enhancements should improve the coordination of multinational forces? | a liaison network and coordination centers. |
| Why is it important to create a multinational coordination center in the early stages of any coalition effort, especially one that is operating under a parallel command structure? | It is a proven means of integrating the participating nations military forces into the coalition planning and operations processes, enhancing coordination and cooperation, and supporting an open and full interaction within the coalition structure. |
| Who are HNS agreements normally established between? | in diplomatic channels between a nation or a multinational task force MNTF and a receiving nation. |
| Why is HNS so important? HNS will often be critical to the success of a multinational operation. In general, centralized | coordination of HNS planning and execution will help ensure that HNS resources are allocated most effectively to support the multinational task force (MNTF’s) priorities. |
| What helps assist MNFCs in HNS coordination activities? | a host-nation support coordination cell (HNSCC) may be established. |
| Briefly describe what the (NIMS) provides. a nationwide template that enables federal, state, local, and tribal governments and private-sector and nongovernmental organizations to work together effectively | and efficiently to prevent, prepare for, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents regardless of cause, size, or complexity. also provide the Nation’s first responders and authorities with the same foundation for incident management. |
| What war had shown a need for close cooperation between Red Cross Societies?founded in 1919 in Paris in the aftermath of World War I, the war had shown a need for | close cooperation between Red Cross Societies, which, through their humanitarian activities on behalf of prisoners of war and combatants, had attracted millions of volunteers and built a large body of expertise. |
| Who was the president of the American Red Cross War Committee, who proposed forming a federation of these National Societies? | Henry Davison |
| What event initiated by Henry Davison resulted in the birth of the League of Red Cross Societies? | An international medical conference |
| In what year did the League of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies become the international Federation of Red Cross (IFRC) and Red Crescent Societies? | November 1991 to become the IFRC and Red Crescent Societies. |
| How many National Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies are there around the world? | There are 186 National Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies around the world |
| What enables National Societies to get the right kind of help where it’s needed fast? | Their local knowledge and expertise, access to communities, and infrastructure |
| What organization is used in place of the Red Cross in many Islamic countries? | The Red Crescent is used in place of the Red Cross in many Islamic countries. |
| What is the IFRC vision? The IFRC vision is to inspire, encourage, facilitate and promote at all times all forms of humanitarian activities by National Societies, | with a view to preventing and alleviating human suffering, andthereby contributing to the maintenance and promotion of human dignity and peace in the world. |
| Name the four core areas that the IFRC’s work focuses on. | promoting humanitarian values, disaster response, disaster preparedness, and health and community care. |
| What is the IFRC’s principal strength? | The unique network of National Societies, which cover almost every country in the world |
| Name the different Installation Notification and Warning System (INWS) communication modes. include sirens, horns, radio tone alerting, mass notification system (MNS), unaided voice systems, public and broadcast address systems, | local area network messaging, telephone alert onferencing, pagers, television, radio, flags, signs, and other electronic or mechanical methods. |
| What four things must be considered for the INWS? | redundant, hardened, or splinter protected, and operate using both commercial and emergency power. |
| What must the INWS comply with in home station locations? with the Department of Homeland Security (DHS), Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA), and National Weather Service’s Emergency Managers | Weather Information Network and the Emergency Alerting System alerting methods, requirements, and capabilities. |
| What kind of warning systems and signals must deployed locations use? | that are compatible with local, host nation, or theater systems. |
| Warning systems in foreign countries should broadcast what type voice messages? | voice messages in English and the predominant language of the local personnel working on base. |
| Who is responsible for testing and maintaining individual building mass notification systems when they are designated as real property installed equipment (RPIE)? | the CE Operations Flight |
| Who will test the INWS daily and weekly? | command post controller |
| Who is responsible for coordinating new INWS requirements and tracking maintenance requirements on existing INWS components? | The Communications Squadron |
| What agency is responsible for identifying, reporting, and tracking INWS outages? | The command post |
| When was the US Northern Command established? | The Department of Defense established US Northern Command in 2002 |
| What is NORTHCOM’s mission? homeland defense and civil support, specifically: “Conduct operations to deter, prevent, and defeat threats and aggression aimed at the United States, its territories, and | interests within the assigned area of responsibility; and as directed by the President or Secretary of Defense, provide military assistance to civil authorities including consequence management operations. |
| How is the commander of USNORTHCOM dual-hatted? not only does he have responsibility for USNORTHCOM, he also commands the North American Aerospace Defense Command (NORAD), a bi-national | command responsible for aerospace warning and aerospace control for Canada, Alaska, and the continental United States. |
| Who is the principle assistant to the president for military matters? | Secretary of Defense. |
| What are defense agencies designated as that are assigned wartime support missions? | Combat support agencies. |
| What three roles does the chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff (CJCS) have in the chain of command? | Communications, oversight and spokesman. |
| What are the traditional roles and missions often referred to as of each branch of service? | Functions. |
| What does the term “combatant command” mean? | Unified or specified command. |
| What command has a broad continuing mission under a single commander composed of forces from two or more services? | Unified combatant command. |
| What command has a broad, continuing mission, normally composed of forces from a single military department? | Specified combatant command. |
| What command authority is over assigned forces vested in the commanders of combatant commands by US Law and is not transferable? | Combatant command. |
| During what time is the combatant commander’s logistic and administrative authority limited by legislation, DOD regulation, budget, local conditions and other factors? | Peacetime. |
| What command authority may be exercised by commanders at any level at or below the level of combatant command and may be delegated within the command? | Operational control. |
| What command authority is over assigned or attached forces or commands, or military capability or forces made available for tasking,cont... | that is limited to the detailed direction and control of movements or maneuvers within the operational area necessary to accomplish missions or tasks assigned? a. Tactical control. |
| A multinational operation is one conducted by forces of how many nations? | Two or more. |
| Under what command can the president never relinquish authority over US forces? | National. |
| What three types of basic structures fall into multinational operations? | Integrated, lead nation, or parallel command. |
| What is an agreement or friendship called between two or more parties made in order to advance common goals and to secure common interests? | Alliance. |
| What is a pact or treaty among individuals or groups, during which they cooperate in joint action, each in their own self interests, joining forces together for a common cause? | Coalition. |
| What is vital to any multinational force? | A liaison. |
| During what type of operation do nations typically negotiate their own host-nation support agreements? | US-led multinational operations. |
| What system was adopted by all federal agencies to use in their individual domestic incident management and emergency prevention, preparedness, response, recovery and mitigation programs and activities? | National Incident Management System. |
| The International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies (IFRC) were founded in what year? | 1919. |
| What is the world’s largest humanitarian organization, providing assistance without discrimination as to nationality, race, religious beliefs, class or political opinions? | International Federation of Red Cross and Red Crescent Societies. |
| Which mass notification system is a combination of methods using audible and visual signals, verbal messages, and electronic communication? | Installation notification and warning system. |
| What is one tool that helps Airmen maintain performance standards | The Air Force performance feedback |
| During emergency situations who is responsible for warning systems that are off-base | City or county emergency management office. |
| In deployed locations warning systems and signals must be compatible with | local, host nation or theater systems. |
| Name one way to determine the importance of a task | by its deadline (e.g. suspense.) |
| What is the next logical step after work priorities have been decided | set work performance standards for how the work needs to be done. |
| Name the three standards that are related to work performance | quality, timeliness, and quantity. |
| Once you have developed standards for tasks within your section, what must you do next to help your subordinates reach them | set goals |
| What three main points should you keep in mind to help your subordinates establish realistic goals | Make the goals challenging, consider each person’s grade and experience and make the goals attainable. |
| When you delegate a task to someone, what have you given them | you have delegated not only the responsibility to accomplish the task, but also the authority to make decisions on how to complete it. |
| Which base agencies are responsible for the design of warning systems for operation throughout disaster conditions | Civil Engineering and Communications Squadrons. |
| What are you doing as a supervisor every time you praise or provide suggestions on improvement? | you are providing feedback |
| When sub-standard performance is exhibited by a subordinate, how should the problem be dealt with? quickly and decisively. | Depending on the severity of the problem, your response can range anywhere from a verbal correction on the spot (preferably in private) to legal proceedings. The ultimate goal is to return your subordinate to meeting or exceeding the standard. |
| What three related documents are used for manpower requirements? | the unit manpower document, the unit personnel management roster, and the authorization change request. |
| Who controls manpower levels? | Congress controls manpower levels |
| What is a UMD? | is a statement of the unit’s manpower requirements. |
| Who decides end strengths for each major command, field operating agency (FOA) and DRU)? | Headquarters Air Force |
| During the manpower determination process what is the major focus? | the analysis of Air Force functions with a goal of increasing efficiency without negatively affecting readiness |
| What does the Air Force Manpower Agency do? | analyzes an Air Force specialty codes (AFSC) services and products, customers – internal and external, suppliers, processes, metrics and resources to develop an Air Force Manpower Standard(AFMS). |
| How often is the UMD generated? | is generated quarterly |
| Who are the primary users of the UMD? | manpower personnel, major command (MAJCOM) functional managers (MFM) and CP managers. |
| The budget process is broken down into centers of control. What are they? | The lowest level, the cost center (CC), responsibility center (RC) level, financial management(FM) office, The MAJCOM, and the Air Staff What term is given to a flight or work center of an organization? |
| How often is the manning report submitted? | The manning report is submitted monthly based on MAJCOM guidance and will be unclassified. |
| What term is given to a flight or work center of an organization? | the cost center (CC) |
| What document does the resource advisor submit to the FM office? | financial plan (FINPLAN) |
| Identify the three areas of the budgeting process. | planning, funding, and managing. |
| Why do you prepare a precise operating budget?this is the amount your office is allotted to obligate purchases, training, and TDY travel to accomplish the mission. If it is insufficient, | you must take steps to increase your funding and improve your chance of mission accomplishment. The money you spend affects the entire Air Force mission. |
| How often should you review your financial plan? | Review the plan monthly and then more frequently as the FY winds down and the budget “closes out.” |
| Who should be involved in the planning process? | Everyone in the office should be involved in the planning phase. |
| What should the CP office be ready for at the end of the fiscal year? | Always be ready in the event your unit may have unused funds at the end of the fiscal year. |
| What do checklists outline? | Checklists outline actions to be taken in response to emergencies, abnormal or recurring circumstances, to implement LERTCON actions (i.e., EAMs), or to implement an operational order (OPORD) or OPLAN requirements. |
| Who is responsible for making sure checklists are developed, maintained and reviewed semiannually or immediately after a procedural change is made to the checklist? | The CP chief/superintendent must ensure checklists are developed, maintained and reviewed semi-annually or immediately after a procedural change is made to the checklist. |
| How will quick reaction checklists (QRC) be structured? | QRCs will be structured to save life, protect resources, and rapidly disseminate time sensitive information. |
| What two things should a QRC include? | Each QRC should include phone numbers of individuals or agencies to notify and should provide an OI reference, when applicable. |
| When might an OI not be required? | If QRCs can prescribe complete actions, an OI covering that action is not required. |
| How are QRCs useful? | QRCs must be brief and not merely a summary of OIs. |
| How many sets of identical QRCs must be maintained and where? | A minimum of three complete, identical sets of QRCs will be maintained. One at each controller position and one for the alternate command post (ACP)/ alternate command center. |
| How often must QRCs be reviewed? The CP chief/superintendent must ensure checklists are developed, maintained and reviewed semi-annually or immediately after a procedural change is made to the checklist. | QRCs relating to nuclear surety will be reviewed by Unit Weapons Safety personnel annually IAW AFI 91–101. Changes to QRCs relating to nuclear surety must also be reviewed by unit weapon safety personnel prior to posting. |
| What type of checklists address routine subjects that are not time sensitive in nature? | Controller basic checklist (CBC) |
| Name two types of controller basic checklists (CBCs). | Shift changeover checklists and Controller shift checklists |
| As a minimum what will a shift changeover checklist include? | 1. Controller information file (CIF) items. 2. Events logs. 3. AF Form 1109, Visitor Register Log. 4. Review incoming and outgoing messages. 5. Controller weapons transfer if applicable. 6. COMSEC material inventory. |
| As a minimum what will a controller shift checklist include? 1. Secure Voice Equipment Tests. 2. Installation Warning/Base Notification Systems Tests. | 3. Periodic Security Checks. 4. Emergency Lighting Test. 5. Time Standardization. 6. Required Reports. 7. Housekeeping Tasks. 8. CP duress alarm tests if applicable. 9. End of Month COMSEC Checklist. |
| Which checklists are maintained IAW applicable emergency action procedures (EAP) and MAJCOM procedures for the receipt, validation, verification and dissemination of emergency action message (EAM) directives? | Emergency action checklist (EAC) |
| How will controllers be advised of checklist changes? | by CIF |
| What publication will be developed when the situation cannot be completely covered by QRCs? | Operation Instructions (OI's) |
| What must OIs contain? | OIs must contain complete information to accomplish the specific task involved and reference all applicable publications and background materials (policy directives, instructions, operator’s manuals, etc) |
| What are MOAs/MOUs used for? | Memorandum of agreements and memorandums of understanding are used to define areas of broad agreement between two or more parties. |
| Why must all MOAs/MOUs be forwarded to all concerned MAJCOMS prior to being finalized? | This ensures the MOAs/MOUs are accurate and represent all parties. CP managers must review all MOAs/MOUs annually, and it must be documented with the date and signature/initials of the individual that reviewed the MOA/MOU. |
| What is the self-inspection program designed to do? | The inspection system provides commanders with an independent assessment of how well their forces are accomplishing their missions. Through these inspections commanders are made aware of strengths and weaknesses of their units. |
| How often must self-inspections be conducted? | Semi-annually |
| Who must you report all findings to after completion of the self-inspection checklist? | Report all findings to the CP management |
| List the minimum self-inspection continuity binder requirements. 1. Self-inspection checklists, providing comprehensive, semi-annual inspections of all aspects of CP functions and procedures. | 2. A current copy of the most recent IG, SAV, and C2 review (C2R) reports 3. Documentation and results of semi-annual self-inspection reviews.4. Track findings or problems until they are resolved or either waivers or assistance are obtained. |
| Work priorities are normally established by supervisors and are based on | mission requirements and critical tasks. |
| The three standards related to work performance are | quality, timeliness and quantity. |
| Who controls manpower levels in the Air Force? | Congress. |
| Manning levels for Air Force units are primarily determined by | enlisted skill level. |
| Which agency develops manpower requirements in the Air Force? | Air Force Manpower Agency. |
| The unit manpower document is a statement of the unit’s manpower | requirements. |
| By only showing funded authorizations, what product aids resource advisors, functional managers, and commanders in keeping the correct number of people assigned to the unit? | Unit personnel manning roster. |
| What tool is used to request a change in manning levels? | Authorization change request. |
| How often is the command post (CP) manning report submitted to the MAJCOM? | Monthly. |
| In the budget process what term is given to a flight or work center of an organization? | Cost center. |
| Who coordinates the overall budgets of several cost centers and the use of resources in dayto-day operations? | Resource advisors. |
| Which publication will be structured to save life, protect resources, and rapidly disseminate time sensitive information? | Quick reaction checklists. |
| Which checklist addresses routine recurring subjects that are not time sensitive in nature, including, but not limited to, shift checklists and changeover checklists? | Controller basic. |
| How many complete, identical sets of emergency action checklists will be maintained? | 3. |
| What type of publication will be developed when the situation cannot be completely covered by quick reaction checklists? | Operating instruction. |
| What product does command post management use to define areas of broad agreement between two or more parties? | Memorandums of agreement/understanding. |
| How often are memorandums of agreement and understanding reviewed by command post (CP) managers? | Annually. |
| 44. (009) What inspection program provides commanders with an independent assessment of how well their forces are accomplishing their missions? | Self-inspection program. |
| What is the CP UTP? | The UTP is the Air Force (AF) and major command (MAJCOM) master training plan (MTP) tailored to meet each unit’s needs. |
| How is the MTP tailored to meet unit needs? | adding unique subtasks to the MTL and JQS, In addition you will have to modify the annual training plan (ATP) to include these new tasks, create a plan of instruction (POI) for each new task, and then update the performance standards. |
| How many phases make up the MTL/JQS and what are the phases? The MTL and JQS consists of 5 phases with each phase broken down into blocks | which contains the tasks. Phase 1 (console operations) and Phase 2 emergency actions (EA) are the two areas required to become a certified on-duty controller. Phase 3 (Reports) and Phase 4 (Training), Phase 5 (Just-In-Time) |
| What is the first step in defining what tasks are specific to your unit? | review the list of tasks your work center performs. |
| What is the purpose of an objective? | The purpose of an objective is to establish clear, concise student goals. |
| What are the three parts to an objective? | condition, behavior, and standard |
| What is the purpose of the ATP? | The ATP in conjunction with the Air Force Job Qualification Standard (AFJQS) is a tool used by the NCOIC of Training to help create the support documents to conduct the annual training. |
| Where are unit tasks and subtasks added on the ATP? | Unit tasks and subtasks will be added to the ATP under the same phase or task that it was added to in the JQS. |
| What should you keep in mind during the development stage of scenario training scripts? | controllers should be evaluated on a combination of EA procedures, reports, QRCs, or any situation that a controller is required to understand. |
| What will the scenario training scripts based upon? | the requirements which were developed within the ATP. |
| . What is the minimum amount of situations that will be included within the scenario scripts? | A minimum of five (5) situations |
| Who creates the monthly self-study letter? | the NCOIC of training |
| What is the self-study letter based on? | the ATP |
| When should the self-study letter be published? | NLT the first day of each month and will be signed by the CP chief or superintendent. |
| What is the minimum passing score for monthly written examinations? | A 90 percent score (critiqued to 100 percent) |
| How soon must personnel failing to achieve a passing score on written examinations be retested? | retested within five duty days (ARC forces prior to the next monthly examination). This training will be documented in the individual’s training records to include the AF Form 623a. |
| How many questions must the general knowledge examination administer? | This examination will consist of at least 30 questions with a minimum passing score of 90 percent. |
| What is the purpose of scenario training? | keeps controllers proficient in their duties and helps prepare them for any possible situation that can occur. |
| How is performance evaluations graded? | All performance evaluations will be graded either “SAT” or “UNSAT.” |
| Personnel can be decertified for several reasons, what are they?These reasons include extended periods of absence, failure to maintain regulatory and locally established certification standards, failure to maintain proficiency standards | (e.g. failing 3 EA exams within a six-month period), or a security clearance withdrawal. |
| Who may delegate decertifying and recertifying authority to the CP Chief, or designee as a result of the controller not performing CP duties within their respective command for 60 days or more? | The MAJCOM/installation certification official |
| How does documentation help management? | Documentation helps management assess mission capability, readiness, individual and collective weaknesses, and resources needed to support the mission. |
| What AF Form is used for a controller certification? | on an AF Form 4374 |
| What AF Form is used for decertification and recertification? | An AF Form 4375, Command Post/Center Controller De/Recertification Record |
| What AF Form is used for documenting recurring training? | The AF Form 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training |
| What is the purpose of an AF Form 623? | used as a training record. |
| What is documented on the AF Form 797? | continuation of the CFETP, Part II, or AFJQS. Any duty position-required training items not listed in the CFETP Part II are entered on the AF Form 797. |
| Which training plan is the Air Force and MAJCOM master training plan tailored to meet unit needs? | Unit training plan. |
| How many phases consist in the command post (CP) master task list/job qualification standard? | 5. |
| What tool is used by both the command post (CP) training manager as well as CP leadership to identify the areas required for either certification or appointment to a CP staff position | Master task list/job qualification standard. |
| Command post (CP) units are not authorized to delete or modify tasks from the Air Force master task list/job qualification standard, however CP managers may submit requests to modify subtasks to their | major command (MAJCOM). |
| Command post performance evaluation and scenario training scripts will be based upon the requirements in the | annual training plan. |
| What is the minimum amount of situations that will be included in each performance evaluation and scenario training script? | 5. |
| What is the first step in the command post (CP) training and evaluation process? | Create a schedule of events. |
| When must the self-study training letter be published? | No later than the first day of each month. |
| What is the minimum passing grade on all written training exams? | 90 percent. |
| General knowledge “open-book” training examinations will consist of at least how many questions? | 30. |
| Emergency action “closed-book” training examinations will consist of at least how many questions? | 30. |
| Certification training examinations will consist of at least how many questions? | 30. |
| How often are all certified controllers required to complete scenario training? | Monthly. |
| What two months will semi-annual performance evaluation training scenarios be administered? | March and September. |
| All training performance evaluations will be graded either | SAT or UNSAT. |
| All training certification actions will be documented on an AF Form | 4374, Command Post/Center Controller Certification Record. |
| The AF Form 4375, Command Post/Center Controller De/Recertification Record training document will be used to document a controller | decertification and recertification. |
| Which AF Form is used to document recurring training? | 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training. |
| Which AF Form records training performance evaluation results? | 4372, Record of Controller Recurring Training. |
| Which AF Form is used to document, monitor, and maintain a comprehensive record of an individual’s training? | 623, On-the-Job Training Record. |
| Which AF Form is used to document the trainee’s progress while on the job? | 623a, On-the-Job Training Record Continuation Sheet. |
| Any duty position-required training items not listed in the CFETP Part II are entered on the AF Form | 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS. |
| Who is responsible for developing and updating a unit’s security operating instruction? | Security manager. |
| When developing the security operating instruction for your unit what aspects of security should be addressed? | all aspects of security programs to include physical, personnel, industrial, computer, emissions, communications and operations programs as applicable. |
| What are some of the deciding factors used to determine the degree of security applied to an installation? | type of weapons systems supported and lastly, the type of materials, equipment, and information maintained on the installation |
| What could happen if appropriate security safeguards are not developed and integrated, particularly if they relate to a system susceptible to counter-attack? | these vulnerabilities can have disastrous consequences, including loss of life and reduced war-fighting capability. |
| Who has overall responsibility for the base security programs? | An installation’s security forces squadron |
| Who are the primary personnel involved when it comes to assessing and managing the units security needs? | the Information Security Program Managers (ISPMs) and the security manager |
| Who actually implements and performs day-to-day management of a unit’s security program? | The security manager |
| Who manages the JPAS within your organization? | security managers |
| What is the key to an effective security program? | Training |
| How soon must security managers receive training through the ISPM after they have been assigned as the organization’s security manger? | within 90 days of their assignment |
| Who provides initial training to all cleared and uncleared personnel before they access classified information or within 90 days of assignment? | Supervisors |
| How often must you receive security refresher training? | All personnel will receive refresher training annually |
| What is unclassified controlled information with a designation that is exempt from automatic release to the public under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)? | For official use only (FOUO). |
| What is an installation security program review (ISPR)? | an assistance-oriented oversight visit for the information security programs performed by an ISPM, or designated representative(s) of a subordinate ISPM or security manager. |
| Who appoints CROs in writing? | the unit commander |
| Who keeps an accurate list of persons with authorized access to COMSEC holdings? | COMSEC responsible officer (CRO) |
| Where does the ultimate success or failure with COMSEC material rest? | the individual user. |
| Who picks up new COMSEC material when it arrives to the base COMSEC manager? | command post CRO |
| What does the CRO do with the COMSEC material if there are any documents received? | Hands the new materials over to the on-duty controllers who will page check all documents being received |
| What form is used when adding new COMSEC material to the inventory? | to the AFCOMSEC Form 16, COMSEC Account Daily Shift Inventory |
| What is the purpose of the PRP program? to ensure that each person selected and retained for performing duties associated with nuclear weapons or nuclear command and control systems and | equipment is emotionally stable, physically capable, and has demonstrated reliability and professional competence. |
| To whom does PRP apply?The program applies to all active duty Air Force people who are presently assigned or selected for assignment to duties involving the control | handling, or access to nuclear weapons, nuclear weapons systems, or critical components. |
| Explain critical and controlled PRP positions. A critical position designates a person who performs maintenance on nuclear weapons and hasworking knowledge and authorized | access to nuclear weapons and the launch or release systems for the performance of internal maintenance. A controlled position designates personnel who store, transport, or provide security to a nuclear weapon and launch or release systems. |
| What are the investigative requirements for a person being considered for a critical position? For a controlled position? A person in a critical position must have a single scope background investigation (SSBI) completed before final certification. | A person assigned to a controlled PRP position must have a favorable National Agency Check with Local Agency and Credit Check (NACLC) completed. |
| Who is the formal certifying authority for PRP? | unit commander or immediate commander |
| Occurs upon arrival at a new assignment but before performing PRP duties | Initial |
| Subject to restrictions pending completing a security investigation | Interim. |
| Results from a PRP certified individual moving from one unit to another, changing position number and certifying official | Personnel transfer. |
| Consists of a statement from the losing commander | Administrative. |
| What are four things in a person’s past performance that may indicate future reliability? (1) Dependability in accepting responsibility. | (2) Carrying out duties effectively and in the approved manner. (3) Flexibility in adjusting to changes in the working environment. (4) Ability to use good judgment in meeting adverse or emergency situations. |
| List at least five sources from which you can receive information on an individual’s reliability. Medical notification of illness, injury, or treatment that could affect duty performance. | Being a suspect or subject in an Office of Special Investigation (OSI) or security forces report. • Observations of co-workers. • Comments of the individual or dependents. • Community agencies (e.g, Red Cross or crisis action center). |
| What is the best method for continuous evaluation? | measure present performance and behavior against past performance and to look for any changes in behavior or performance patterns. |
| When would the commander use suspension for PRP removal? | Suspension is used when the problem is temporary or while researching the facts to determine if a person’s reliability is impaired. |
| Temporary decertification normally does not exceed 270 days. How are extensions to the 270 day requirement processed? | The commander can extend the process in 30-day increments, not to exceed a total of 365 days. |
| What does permanent decertification indicate? | the person has questionable reliability or long-term impaired capability. |
| Give three examples of behavior that will result in permanent decertification. | confirmed drug abuse, diagnosed as an alcohol abuser or alcohol dependent, or involuntarily discharged or removed for cause. |
| If an installation’s mission requires the handling of classified information, specific security requirements need to be imposed to prevent | unauthorized access to the information. |
| Who has overall responsibility for the base security programs? | Security forces squadron. |
| Who updates and reminds personnel of security policies and procedures, as well as oversees the unit or staff agency information security self-inspection program? | Security managers |
| Who manages the joint personnel adjudication system (JPAS) within their organization, inprocess and out-process all unit personnel, and monitor/ act on system notifications? | Security managers. |
| What is a cornerstone of the Air Force information security program? | Effective security training. |
| Security managers receive training through the Information Security Program Managers (ISPM) within how many days of their assignment? | 90. |
| What designation is applied to unclassified information that is exempt from automatic release to the public under the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)? | For official use only (FOUO). |
| What inspection method evaluates the effectiveness of a unit’s security practices? | Regular security self-inspections. |
| Computer security (COMSEC) users must have their own adequate storage facilities and take responsibility for storing and accounting for material not later than 1 duty day before the COMSEC aids | effective date. |
| When new computer security (COMSEC) material arrives for the command post account the base COMSEC manager notifies the command post | COMSEC responsible officer (CRO). |
| The computer security (COMSEC) responsible officer (CRO) and alternates are authorized to transport COMSEC materials from the COMSEC account to their duty location? What approval authority allows this action? | Appointment letter. |
| What AF Form is used to add computer security (COMSEC) to the inventory? | AF Form 16. |
| Which position designates personnel who store, transport, or provide security to a nuclear weapon and launch or release systems? | Controlled. |
| Which two positions are only used in the personnel reliability program (PRP)? | Critical or controlled. |
| In the personnel reliability program (PRP) a person in a critical position must have a/an | single scope background investigation (SSBI) completed before final certification. |
| A person selected for the personnel reliability program (PRP) must meet which of the following criteria? | US citizen or US national. |
| What are the four types of certification that the commander can use under the personnel reliability program (PRP) program? | Administrative, initial, interim and personnel transfer. |
| Each individual certified under the personnel reliability program (PRP) has the responsibility to inform their commander of all | medical and dental treatment. |
| What is the purpose of the SORTS program? Threefold: provides data critical to crisis planning, provides for the deliberate or peacetime planning process, | and is used by the Chief of Staff United States Air Force (CSAF) and subordinate commanders in assessing their effectiveness in meeting Title 10, “United States Code,”responsibilities to organize, train, and equip forces for combatant commands. |
| SORTS is not designed for two purposes. What are the two purposes? | SORTS is not designed to be an information management system to identify all conceivable variables regarding personnel, training and logistics. Additionally, SORTS is not designed to be a commander’s report card. |
| In order for the management of unit resources to be effective, what does it require? | accurate information at all levels. |
| What is the purpose of DOC statement? | to provide units with a single source document of the information necessary and the location of the references specifying resources to measure and report in SORTS. |
| How often are DOC statements reviewed by MAJCOM staff and unit commanders? | annually |
| Which DOC statement do most units have and what must it reflect? | a single DOC statement called the primary DOC; must reflect the unit’s full wartime mission set |
| What do C-levels reflect? | the degree to which unit resources meet prescribed readiness levels of personnel, equipment, and training. |
| Who is authorized to assign an overall C-level for a measured unit? | Only the commander, or officially designated representative of the measured unit |
| What does the commander use to determine a unit’s overall C-level? | the measured resource area information and a subjective assessment |
| How are products classified that contain data from two or more measured units? | SECRET NOFORN. |
| Who is eligible to receive data from authorized holders of AF SORTS? | military components, or assigned or apportioned units, with a valid need-to-know and appropriate clearance. |
| What are the four major elements of the AEF structure? | readily available force, enabler force, in-place support, and institutional force. |
| How does the Air Force fulfill the rotational Global Force Management Allocation Plan (GFMAP) rotational requirements? | The readily available force is the primary pool |
| Which bands are organized to support an increasing deploy-to-dwell ratio? | The alternative Tempo Bands |
| What assets are normally postured as enabler forces? | Most high demand/low supply (HD/LS) assets, National Air Mobility System, and Theater Air Control System (TACS) elements are postured as enabler forces and will rotate as operational requirements dictate. |
| What are the two types of in-place support? | those forces that almost exclusively employ in direct support of a combatant commander mission, and those that represent the minimum number of requirements to support critical home station operations. |
| What kind of schedule does the AEF operate? | The AEF schedule operates on a 24-month life cycle that aligns with two global force management (GFM) cycles and coincides with fiscal years. |
| What is an UTC? | a JCS-assigned code consisting of five characters that uniquely identify a “type unit.” |
| What is an UTC designed to do? | to reduce the amount of detailed planning and coordination needed during a combatant commander’s course of action development. |
| What kind of system is DCAPES and what does it provide to the JOPES? | DCAPES is the Air Force‘s war planning system which also provides an Air Force feed to the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES). |
| In conjunction with the UTC what do line remarks do? | Air Force standard line remarks are used in conjunction with the UTC to further identify unique requirements. |
| Who manages the creation and publication of standard line remarks and is the final approval authority for additions, changes, and deletions? | The aerospace expeditionary force center (AEFC) |
| What do unit commanders report using ART? | the status of each UTC |
| How does ART allow AEF-allocated units the ability to report UTC level readiness data?It provides one central location to archive reported data. It allows immediate updates and ready access to an | aggregate UTC status for all levels of command with sufficient depth of information to make informed decisions on the employment of forces for AEF operations. It further provides a means for identifying and analyzing actionable indicators of change. |
| What does TPFDD contain? | contains critical information to include the time phasing of forces by C-dates to specific destinations which is called routing data. |
| Which system is used for monitoring measured units and resources? | Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS). |
| Measured unit Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) reporting begins as soon as possible after a unit activates and continues until the unit’s designed operational capability DOC) statement is | rescinded. |
| The MAJCOM staff and the measured unit commander reviews the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statements | annually. |
| Most units have a single Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) designed operational capability (DOC) statement. What is that DOC statement called? | Primary designed operational capability (DOC). |
| Which C-level in the Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) program shows that the unit possesses the required resources and is trained to undertake many, but not all, portions of the wartime mission(s) for which it is organized or designed? | C–3. |
| The Joint Staff Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) database, where all the SORTS reports are maintained, is classified | SECRET. |
| Authorized holders of AF Staff Status of Resources and Training System (SORTS) data can release the data to only military components, or assigned or apportioned units, with a a. military identification card and appropriate clearance. | need-to-know and appropriate clearance. |
| What are the four major elements of the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) structure? | Readily available force, enabler force, in-place support, and institutional force. |
| In the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) structure, which force is the primary pool from which the Air Force fulfills global force management allocation plan (GFMAP) rotational requirements? | Readily available force. |
| In the air and space expeditionary force (AEF) structure, most high demand/low supply (HD/LS) assets, National Air Mobility System, and Theater Air Control System (TACS) elements are postured to be a/an | enabler force. |
| The air and space expeditionary force (AEF) schedule operates on which life cycle length? | 24-month. |
| Which system is the Air Force’s war planning system that provides an Air Force feed to the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES)? | Deliberate and crisis action planning and execution segments (DCAPES). |
| What is used in conjunction with the unit type codes (UTC) to further identify unique requirements? | Air Force standard line remarks. |
| The responsibility to manage the creation and publication of standard line remarks and is the final approval authority for additions, changes, and deletions rests with the | Aerospace expeditionary force center (AEFC). |
| Which system or database is best defined as a web-based, non-intrusive, html-environment system with associated databases to support collection, collation, and report generation of unit and aggregate unit type code (UTC) readiness data? | Air and space expeditionary force (AEF) reporting tool (ART). |
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