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2S0X1 Volume 1

2S051 Volume 1 - Unit Review Exercises Only

Define Supply Category: Class I (1) Subsistence
Define Supply Category: Class II (2) Clothing, individual equipment, tentage, organizational tool sets and tool kits, hand tools, and adminstrative and housekeeping supplies and equipment.
Define Supply Category: Class III (3) POL. Petroleum fuels, lubricants, hydraulic and insulating oils, preservatives, liquid and compressed gasses, bulk chemical products, coolants, de-icing and antifreeze compounds, together with components and additives of such products, and coal.
Define Supply Category: Class IV (4) Construction. Construction material to include installed quipment, and all fortification/barrier material.
Define Supply Category: Class V (5) Ammunition. Ammunition of all types, (including chemical, biological, radiological and special weapons) bombs, explosives, mines, fuses, detonators, pyrotechnics, missiles, rockets, propel;lants, and other associated items.
Define Supply Category: Class VI (6) Personal demand items (nonmilitary sales items)
Define Supply Category: Class VII (7) Major end items. A final combination of end products which is ready for intended use, such as launchers, tanks, mobile machine shop, and vehicles.
Define Supply Category: Class VIII (8) Medical materiel including medical peculiar repair parts.
Define Supply Category: Class IX (9) Repair parts (less medical). All repair parts and components to include kits, assemblies, and subassemblies, reparable and nonreparable and required for maintenance support of all equipment.
Define Supply Category: Class X (10) Materiel to support nonmilitary programs; that is, agricultural and economic development (not included in clases I-IX)
17. (008) What is the largest subdivision of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual? Volume
18. (008) How are hyperlinks identified in AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual? Blue Text
19. (008) How would the document file name for volume 2, part 2, chapter 3 be identified in a search of AFMAN 23-110, USAF Supply Manual? 020203
20. (008) How many characters make up the NSN? 13
21. (008) What two entities make up the NSN? FSC and NIIN
22. (010) How many major types of inquiries are there in the Materiel Management System? 4
23. (010) Which action code on an item record inquiry in the Materiel Management System is used to obtain specific information? Record Retrieval
24. (010) Which record retrieval code in the materiel management system gives you the transaction history when processing an inquiry? One
25. (010) What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the materiel management system to provide a summary of information about a given stock number? R
26. (011) Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in a print? Short Format (Option S)
27. (011) Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which option displays a list of abbreviated histories on your terminal screen or in print? a. Abbreviated format (Option A).
28. (012) Which program in the Materiel Management System takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction? a. Reject.
29. (012) Which chapter in AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual, volume 2, part 2, identifies the action required to correct the Materiel Management System rejects created during processing? d. Seven.
30. (012) Within how many workdays should all Materiel Management System rejects normally be processed? d. One.
31. (012) Which product of the Materiel Management System is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner? a. D818.
32. (012) Management notices can be readily identified by what letters preceding the management code and phrase? b. MGT.
33. (013) Who determines who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and inform the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process? a. Individual flight chiefs and terminal security monitors.
34. (013) User identification and controlled transaction identification codes are loaded to designated terminal functions by the b. terminal security manager.
35. (014) Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listings must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23–110, USAF Supply Manual; an AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or d. an approved supplement.
36. (014) The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler by which workday? c. 15th.
37. (015) The Air Force supply management activity group is divided into how many divisions? c. Six.
38. (015) In materiel management, you will primarily deal with which divisions of the Air Force supply management activity group? b. General support division (GSD) and materiel support division (MSD).
39. (016) What is a basic ground rule for conducting a surveillance visit to a Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) function? a. Check in and out with the flight chief.
40. (016) How frequently should you schedule surveillance visit? d. Annually.
41. (016) During a surveillance visit, you should coordinate your review of management products with what activity? a. Training element.
42. (017) When the Materiel Management System does not process or update transactions as it should, what form is used to report the problem to Headquarters, Operations and Sustainment Systems Group? b. AF Form 1815.
43. (017) Who is responsible for submitting and monitoring difficulty reports? a. Procedures element.
44. (017) A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected b. in the next scheduled release.
45. (018) What analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing statistical data with standards and norms? a. Trend analysis.
46. (018) What analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem? b. Special studies.
47. (019) What transaction identification code input is created from the transaction exception 7 issue document? d. Special requisition (SPR).
48. (019) What transaction exception is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or nondirected transfer to the Defense Reutilization and Marketing Service? c. Six.
49. (020) What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file? b. Source documents with file indicator D.
50. (021) What materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database? b. Daily Document Control (D04).
51. (021) What materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction Register (D06)? c. Consolidated Transaction (M19).
52. (021) What materiel management register is prepared from transaction histories that are stored and merged on magnetic tapes? c. Consolidated Transaction (M19).
53. (021) The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two registers? b. D04 and D06.
54. (022) What is the purpose of the shipment-suspense program? c. Ensure an item has been shipped.
55. (022) All shipments and transfers processed through the Logistics Readiness Squadron produce what type of detail? c. Shipment-suspense or shipped-not-credited (SNC).
56. (022) What transaction identification code is used to update the shipment-suspense detail? a. SSC.
57. (022) What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details? c. R40.
58. (023) What code is assigned if an item record requiring reverse-post action does not contain a freeze code? b. Q.
59. (023) What is the transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post transaction? a. 1AM.
60. (023) What information is required to make an automated reverse-post input? c. Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date.
Created by: paulezk
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