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Navy Damage Control

Damage Controlman Study Guide

QUESTIONSANSWERS
Organization and teamwork are considered the key factors for successful damage control operations True
The basic objectives of shipboard damage control are as follows: take measures to prevent damage, minimize and localize damage as it occurs, accomplish repairs as soon as possible, restore equipment to operation, and care for injured personnel True
What person is normally responsible for requesting quotas to send a repair party to school for training?What document provides several repair locker inventory lists for various types of ships. Damage control assistant
What publication contains information (tailored to your ship) on damage control systems, ventilation systems, piping systems, electrical systems, and compartmentation? Damage control books
What eight-volume series of books can help you familiarize yourself with your ship’s characteristics? Ship information book
What person is responsible for damage control? Damage control is an all-hands responsibility
What officer is also known as the damage control officer? Engineer officer
When logging fittings in the damage control closure log, you may log a fitting open for what maximum amount of time? 24 hours
What assistant to the engineer officer assists the damage control assistant in providing damage control training for the ship’s company? Fire marshal
The purpose of the Rescue and Assistance Bill is to organize qualified personnel to provide assistance outside the command. True
What person is responsible for the Toxic Gas Bill? Damage control assistant
What report is submitted after an equipment repair that was reported as a CASREP is completed? CASCOR
What officer monitors the Heat Stress Program for compliance? Safety officer
The two elements of the damage control organization are the damage control administrative organization and the damage control battle organization. True
The three objectives of damage control are? (1) Maintain the established material conditions of readiness; (2) train all personnel in all aspects of shipboard damage control; (3) maintain damage control systems and equipment in the best condition possible to ensure survivability.
What damage control station receives reports from all others and coordinates their actions? Damage control central
The three responsibilities of the at-sea fire party are? (1Respond immediatelyto fire alarms when the ship’s repair parties are not manned(2extinguish small fireswithout disrupting other ship operations3control fires until ongoing sensitivecritical evolutions can be secured and GQ stations can be manned and rea
What person is in charge of the fire party at the emergency scene and directs the efforts of the fire party to combat the emergency situation? The on-scene leader
Investigators normally operate in pairs, travel assigned routes, and report conditions to the repair locker. True
By monitoring the reports of other repair stations, each repair party will be able to assume the duties of DCC if DCC becomes a battle casualty. True
The five types of sound-powered battle telephone systems include primary, auxiliary, telemetric, kinetic, and miscellaneous False
Message blanks are the standardized method of written communication used to relay damage control information? True
What types of drawings does a Damage Controlman use most often? Blueprints and isometric damage control diagrams
Damage control central and the various repair lockers are locations that may use isometric damage control diagrams during a casualty. True
On an isometric damage control diagram, what types of information are indicated by dotted lines and cross-hatchings? Hidden boundaries, piping, and valves
The keel is the backbone of the ship True
What is the forward edge of the stem called? Cutwater
The vertical distance from the keel to the waterline of a ship is known by what term? Draft
The first level above the main deck is called the 01 level. The first level above the main deck is called the 01 level
Compartmentation is the design factor on a ship that allows for more effective control of fires and floods. True
Each compartment has a four-part number separated by hyphens. True
Compartments completely to starboard are given odd numbers. True
The last part of the compartment number is the letter that identifies the? primary use of the compartment
What type of door provides access to a compartment that is not often used? Individually dogged watertight door
The watertight integrity of a naval ship is established when the ship is built. True
What types of watertight closures are installed in interior and exterior areas where rapid access or egress is required? Raised watertight hatch with scuttle
A successful chalk test does not guarantee a closure is watertight, but it does provide a reasonable assurance of watertight integrity. True
What material condition of readiness provides the least amount of protection? XRAY
The three material conditions of readiness are XRAY, YOKE, and ZEBRA. True
What material condition is set to isolate and control fires and flooding when the ship is not at general quarters stations? ZEBRA
Fittings having what classification are kept open during all material conditions? WILLIAM
What classification of fitting may be opened without special authorization when proceeding to battle stations or as required in routine inspection checks? CIRCLE XRAY
All compartments must have a compartment checkoff list permanently posted within them in clear view of the space access. True
When a compartment has more than one entrance, duplicate compartment checkoff lists must be posted at each entrance. True
What person prescribes the limit to which the DCA or OOD may approve the modification of a material condition of readiness? Commanding officer
The closure log is maintained at all times, whether the ship is in port or underway. True
The maximum time a closure or fitting may be logged open is 24 hours. True
When conducting a compartment test and inspection, you should follow the specific details provided in which of the following references? Planned Maintenance System (PMS)
A successful chalk test does not guarantee a closure is watertight, but it does provide a reasonable assurance of watertight integrity. True
What material condition of readiness provides the least amount of protection? XRAY
The three material conditions of readiness are XRAY, YOKE, and ZEBRA. True
What material condition is set to isolate and control fires and flooding when the ship is not at general quarters stations? ZEBRA
Fittings having what classification are kept open during all material conditions? WILLIAM
What classification of fitting may be opened without special authorization when proceeding to battle stations or as required in routine inspection checks? CIRCLE XRAY
All compartments must have a compartment checkoff list permanently posted within them in clear view of the space access. True
When a compartment has more than one entrance, duplicate compartment checkoff lists must be posted at each entrance. True
What person prescribes the limit to which the DCA or OOD may approve the modification of a material condition of readiness? Commanding officer
The closure log is maintained at all times, whether the ship is in port or underway. True
The maximum time a closure or fitting may be logged open is 24 hours. True
When conducting a compartment test and inspection, you should follow the specific details provided in which of the following references? Planned Maintenance System (PMS)
The ship’s schedule of watertight integrity tests and inspections is issued by NAVSEA. True
The information contained in the ship’s schedule of watertight integrity tests and inspections must be strictly adhered to when you are conducting compartment air tests. True
A rapid chemical reaction that releases energy in the form of light and noticeable heat is known as combustion. True
The lowest temperature at which a flammable substance gives off vapors that will burn when a flame or spark is applied is known by what term? Flash point
The temperature at which a fuel will continue to burn after it has been ignited is known by what term? Fire point
What class of fire occurs in combustible metals, such as magnesium, titanium, and sodium? DELTA
A fire produces carbon monoxide (CO) when there is not enough oxygen present for the complete combustion of all of the carbon in the burning material. True
A fire produces carbon dioxide (CO2) when there is complete combustion of all of the carbon in the burning material? True
Under normal conditions, oxygen accounts for what percentage of the chemical composition of air? 20.8%
Which of the following processes is NOT a method of transferring heat? Glaciation
Heat, fuel, and oxygen are the three components of the fire triangle. True
Water is a cooling agent and the sea provides a ship an inexhaustible supply. True
AFFF can be used alone or in combination with PKP. True
Halon 1301 is a dense colorless and odorless gas that does not conduct electricity or leave a residue. True
The portable submersible pump is rated to deliver 180 gallons per minute, against a maximum head of 50 feet. True
The firemain or a P-100 pump supplies the power for the Ramfan™ through a 1 1/2-inch hose connection. True
The firemain system is used primarily to supply seawater to what other systems? Fireplug and sprinkling systems
What type of firemain system is separated both vertically and athwartship? Vertical offset loop
There is a total of how many basic types of firemain systems designed for use on large Navy ships? 3
Sprinkler systems are used for emergency cooling of, and fire fighting in, magazines, ready-service rooms, ammunition, and missile handling areas True
What are the two basic types of hydraulically controlled sprinkler systems used on naval ships? The firemain-operated dry type and the firemain-operated wet type.
What type of pump for the installed AFFF system is provided in capacities of 12, 27, and 60 gpm? Single-speed injection pump
AFFF is stored in storage/transfer tanks having a capacity of up to 3,500 gallons and in service tanks that vary in capacity from 50 gallons to what maximum size? 2,000 gallons
What type of seawater pressure-operated control valve allows the flow of AFFF/seawater solution through the distribution system or controls seawater flow on flight deck AFFF injection systems? Powertrol
What type of seawater pressure-operated control valve allows the flow of seawater from the firemain system to be mixed with AFFF concentrate? Hycheck
What type of valve automatically proportions the correct amount of AFFF concentrate with seawater? Balancing valve
The full discharge of the gas from a Halon 1301 system into a protected space is completed in how many seconds? 10 seconds
What type of system normally supplements Halon 1301 systems in machinery spaces and pump rooms? AFFF. An AFFF sprinkling system normally supplements Halon 1301 systems in machinery spaces and pump rooms.
Each APC system includes one or two cylinders filled with a solution of potassium carbonate in water pressurized with what type of compressed gas? Nitrogen
The APC system has a total of how many manual modes of operation? Three manual backup modes of operation are provided at the cylinder assembly, the pressure release control box, and the remote manual control box.
What chemical action is defined as a chemical decomposition due to the application of heat? Pyrolysis
The lowest temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapor to form an ignitable mixture is known by what term? Flashpoint
The formation of burning gases in the overhead of a compartment is known by what term? Rollover
The lower explosive limit (LEL) for a gas is the lowest percentage of that particular gas in an air-gas mixture that forms an ignitable mixture. True
There are a total of how many distinct stages in the growth of a fire within a compartment? Four
During the initial stages of a fire, what person proceeds directly to the scene to direct efforts of the rapid response team. Fire marshal
The new EEBD provides a maximum of how many minutes of oxygen for escape purposes? 10 Seconds
What percentage of oxygen must be present when conducting post-fire atmospheric testing of a compartment? Between 19.5 to 22 percent
Halon 1301 was discharged into the compartment to extinguish a fire. This requires a test be conducted for which of the following types of gas? Hydrogen fluoride
The sympthoms of heat stroke are as follows No sweating—skin is hot and dry,Pupils of the eyes may become constricted,Strong rapid pulse,Possible unconsciousness
The symptoms of heat stress are as follows: The skin appears ashy gray; the skin is moist and clammy,The pupils of the eyes may be dilated (enlarged),Vital signs are normal; but the victim may have a weak pulse and rapid shallow breathing,Heavy sweating
After a class BRAVO fire, the compartment should be tested for the following gases • Hydrocarbons • Carbon dioxide • Carbon monoxide • Hydrogen chloride • Hydrogen cyanide
What document provides several repair locker inventory lists for various types of ships. The Allowance Equipage List
On a Navy ship, what personnel are responsible for damage control? All hands
Plugs made of softwood, such as yellow pine or fir, are quite effective for plugging holes up to what size? 3 inches by 3 inches
Which of the following woods are best to use for the construction of shores? Douglas fir and yellow pine
What type of patches are effective for use over holes that have jagged edges projecting inboard? Box
A shore is a portable beam, a wedge is a block, triangular on the sides and rectangular on the butt end, and a shole is a flat block that may be placed under the end of a shore to distribute pressure. True
A strongback is a bar or beam of wood or metal that is used to distribute pressure or to serve as an anchor for a patch. The strongback is often shorter than a shore. True
What is the fully extended load for the model 6-11 steel adjustable shore? 6,000 pounds
A steel wedge is considered more valuable as a prying tool than for actual shoring. True
The most rapid and accurate way to measure a shore for cutting is to use an adjustable shoring batten. True
Which of the following types of equipment are available on the ship in case a space is inaccessible due to damaged doors, hatches, and/or scuttles? The Portable Hydraulic Access and Rescue System (PHARS) and the Portable Exothermic Cutting Unit (PECU)
What is the maximum pounds of pressure a jubilee patch can resist? 100
What is the maximum pounds of pressure a soft patch can resist? 150
When casualty power cables are rigged, the connections must always be made from the load to the supply to avoid handling energized cables. TRUE
The faces of the casualty power terminals of an ac system are marked A, B, and C, and the ends of the cables are colored black, white, and red, respectively. When connecting the cables to the terminals, connect the black lead to A, the white lead to B, and the red lead to C.
EWARP Two sizes 2X5 AND 4X15, 150 psi, 300 degrees Fahrenheit,syntho-glass patch hardens in 30 min
Between the upper deck and the poop deck. AFTER WELL DECK
A partial deck above the main deck located all the way aft. POOP DECK
Compartmentation serves the following functions: • Allows for more effective control of fires and floods. • Strengthens the ship’s structure. • Helps defend against a chemical,biological, and radiological (CBR) attack. • Segregates various ongoing activities. • Provides underwater protection by the use
Compartments have a four-part number separated by hyphens; the four parts indicate the following: 1. The deck upon which the compartment is located. 2. Location of the compartment by frame. 3. The position of the compartment relative to the ship’s centerline. 4. The compartment use
The MCU-2/P protective mask comes in a total of how many sizes? True: small, med, large
What is the minimum number of C2 canisters issued with a MCU2/P protective mask? Two. A third C2 canister is issued by the ship.
What is the maximum life expectancy of a C2 canister when opened in a noncontaminated area? 60 days
What is the maximum life expectancy of a C2 canister in a contaminated environment? 30 days
There are a total of how many sheets of M-8 detector paper in an unopened booklet? 25
What color does M-9 turn when a nerve or blister agent is detected? Red
The M256A1 detector kit is used to test for what form of chemical agent? Vapor
What is the primary function of the AN/KAS-1? To provide U.S. Navy ships with the capability to detect and identify a chemical warfare (CW) agent attack
Which of the following life forms is an example of a disease vector? Arachnid
There is always an incubation period between the time an organism enters a body and the first signs of the symptoms of an illness. True
An indication of biological warfare is when the number of casualties reaches epidemic proportions within days, with most occurring within 24 hours. True
What type of decontamination does the countermeasure washdown system provide? Active
What type of decontamination is performed outside CCA? Gross
What are the three steps of decontamination when the M291 Kit is used? Physical removal, absorption, and neutralization
The collective protection system (CPS) is a ventilation system that prevents the entry of airborne chemical, biological, and radiological contamination into the interior of the ship. True
Electrons, protons, and neutrons are the three subatomic particles that make up an atom. True
The electron has what type of electrical charge? Negative
The nucleus of an atom is composed of what two particles of matter? Neutrons and Protons
The proton has what type of an electrical charge? Positive
An airburst is a nuclear burst where the point of detonation is below what altitude? 100,000 feet
A nuclear surface burst is a burst where the point of detonation is on or above the surface of the earth and the fireball touches the surface of the earth. True
An underwater burst produces underwater shock and a water plume that then causes a base surge. True
Four basic types of nuclear radiation are given off during a nuclear explosion: alpha particles, beta particles, gamma rays, and neutrons. True
Underwater shock produces injury among topside and below-deck personnel by the rapid upward movement of the deck. True
What type of blast causes bodily displacement casualties for personnel in the open? Airblast
Thermal radiation can cause burn injuries when the skin directly absorbs radiant energy. True
A nuclear burst produces an electromagnetic pulse (EMP) that contains frequency components in the range from a few to several hundred kilocycles per second. True
“Initial nuclear radiation” is defined as the radiation that is emitted by the fireball and the cloud during the first minute after detonation. True
Which of the following factors is not considered in determining if greater damage to a ship will be caused by the direct wave or the reflected wave from an underwater nuclear burst? Height of wave action at time of burst
Nuclear radiation cannot be detected by any of the five senses. True
Which of the following is NOT a performance function of a radiac device. Detect neutron and X-ray radiation
The AN/PDR-43 unit has three-meter scales. True
What is the maximum amount of time the AN/PDR-65 will operate on fully charged batteries? True
The AN/PDR-43 unit has three-meter scales True
Which of the following is NOT a performance function of a radiac device? Nuclear radiation cannot be detected by any of the five senses.
Which of the following terms best describes a type of survey that is recommended for any area in which measured radiation dosages exceed predicted levels by more than 25 percent? Detailed survey
A “half-thickness” is defined as the amount of material necessary to cut down the amount of radiation to one-half of its original value. True
The objective of exposure control is to limit the total dose received by individuals from both internal and external sources and to minimize the transfer of contamination into the interior of the ship. True
Exposure rate to gamma radiation is significantly lower in deep shelter locations because of distances and the structural material between compartments. True
Radiological decontamination is the physical removal of the contamination that results from a nuclear weapon detonation. True
Detailed information on the laws of mathematics and physics used to determine the buoyancy and stability of a ship are provided in Naval Ships’ Technical Manual (NSTM), chapter 079, volume 1, and in NSTM, chapter 096. True
Which of the following trigonometric functions is NOT used for making calculations to determine a ship’s stability? Cotangent
Which of the following terms best defines force multiplied by the distance from an axis about which you want to find its effect? Moment of force
The volume of water that is moved by the hull of a ship is known as “displacement.” True
What measurement is known by the term freeboard? Distance from the waterline to the weather deck edge
Which of the following information is NOT contained in the “booklet of inclining experiment data?” Reserve buoyancy
The ship’s center of gravity, is the point at which all weights of the ship may be considered to be concentrated. The force of gravity is considered as acting straight downward, through the center of gravity, at right angles to the waterline. True
Detailed informationconcerning changes in the center of gravity of a ship can be obtained from which of the following NSTMs? NSTM, chapter 096
The ship’s center of gravity, is the point at which all weights of the ship may be considered to be concentrated. The force of gravity is considered as acting straight downward, through the center of gravity, at right angles to the waterline. True
What person is responsible for the training teams? Team leader
One of the responsibilities of the training team is to assess the readiness and effectiveness of watchteam performance of watchstation specific tasks True
What person is designated chairman of the planning board for training and is also the team leader for the Damage control training team (DCTT)? Executive officer
What person serves as overall manager of the training event briefs, performance, and debriefs? DCTT team coordinator
What person is responsible to complete a safety walk-thru and pre-event check prior to drill? All team members
Which of the following is NOT an objective of damage control training? Developing training reports for the engineer officer
Specific training for the damage control repair parties includes developing the ability to set material conditions. True
Which one of the following is NOT an objective of the in-port damage control training team? Provide training in crash and salvage drills
Which of the following training requirements is provided by the damage control training team for the ship’s damage control petty officers? Training on setting requirements for material condition yoke
What type of training discusses the basic parts, the functions of each part, and the operation of equipment with limiting parameters? Lecture
Created by: cookt0802