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RMA Practice Exam
Review for RMA
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The largest bone in the body is the | femur |
| An example of a "ball and socket" joint is the | hip |
| Muscles are attached to bones by | tendons |
| When a muscle contracts, it becomes | shorter and thicker |
| Growth hormone is produced in the | pituitary |
| The function of insulin is to | assist glucose into the cells |
| The cavity within the kidney that collects urine is | renal pelvis |
| The kidneys are located behind the | peritoneum |
| The site of fertilization is usually the | fallopian tubes |
| Sperm and egg cell maturity begin at | puberty |
| The three sections of the small intestine are | duodenum, jejunum, ileum |
| The internal folds of the stomach are known as | rugae |
| The vitamin produced by the normal flora of the colon in amounts sufficient to meet a person's daily need, is | K |
| A nerve impulse is carried across a synapse by | a neurotransmitter |
| The gray matter on the surface of the cerebral hemispheres is called | cerebral cortex |
| During swallowing, the larynx is covered by the | epiglottis |
| The part of the pharynx that is a passageway for air only is the | nasopharnyx |
| The left ventricle of the heart sends blood out through which artery | aorta |
| The outermost of the pericardial membranes is the | fibrous pericardium |
| The protein in epidermal cells that makes the skin relatively waterproof is | keratin |
| The outer layer of the skin is the | epidermis |
| The receptors of hearing and equilibrium are located in the | inner ear |
| The thin membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the white of the eye is the | conjunctiva |
| The abnormal lateral curvature of the spine that is often congenital in origin is | scoliosis |
| A type of bone fracture producing many bone fragments is | a comminuted fracture |
| An abnormal scar formation is | keloid |
| Bilirubin specimens require what special preparation | protection from light |
| A genetic disorder characterized by the inability of the blood to clot properly is | hemophilia |
| Night blindness may be caused by a deficiency of | vitamin A |
| A deficiency of vitamin B12 leads to which type of anemia | Pernicious |
| Most common eye condition associated with aging? | Presbyopia |
| The combining form that means red is | erythro |
| The combining form hist/o means | tissue |
| The suffix meaning "inflammation" is | itis |
| Encephalomegaly is defined as | swelling of the brain |
| The medical term for inflammation of the liver is | hepatitis |
| The term "myotomy" means incision into | a muscle |
| A water-soluble vitamin | C |
| The abbreviation "QID" means | four times per day |
| The abbreviation for "prescription" is | Rx |
| Correct spelling of the term meaning inflammation of the tonsils | Tonsillitis |
| A patient's implied consent usually covers which one of the following procedures? | Blood test |
| HIPPA requires covered entities to submit Medicare claims | through electronic data exchange |
| The law requires that which one of the following be reported to the appropriate authorities? | suspected child abuse |
| The purpose of HIPPA security standards is to set national standards for safeguarding the confidentiality of | electronic exchange of patient information |
| The purpose of the Good Samaritan Act is to protect healthcare providers rendering First Aid from | civil and criminal liability |
| If a physician accepts payment from another physician for the referral of a patient, both are guilty of | fee splitting |
| Medical Practice Acts are laws enacted to | define what is included in the practice of medicine |
| The technique used to let a patient know how you interpreted the message he or she is communicating is called | restating |
| Positioning or sitting behind a desk communicates the message of | acknowledge |
| The term "total permanent impairment" means the patient | is unable to perform previous occupational duties |
| An insurance claim processing error? | Using "rule out" diagnosis |
| A "non-duplication of benefits" is also called | coordination of benefits |
| Claims for Medicaid patients enrolled in a managed care plan are paid according to what fee schedule | Capitated |
| The policy describing a period of non-coverage for conditions diagnosed prior to the issuance of an insurance benefit plan is called | a pre-existing conditions waiver |
| Medicare patients treated by a non-participating physician | are responsible for a portion of the fee |
| Medicare part B covers | prescription medical equipment |
| Worker's Compensation insurance provides benefits for | occupational injuries |
| Accepting assignment on a Medicare claim means that the physician is compensated | 80% of the approved amount |
| An example of Medicare HCPCS code number is | J0540 |
| A range of usual fees in the same community is the | customary fee |
| The routine waiving of co-payments | is against federal guidelines |
| Claims with a signed assignment of benefits are paid to the | Physician |
| The notice sent to the patient showing the amount owed to the physician is called the | itemized statement |
| The cost to a physician for the services of a collection agency is usually | a percentage of each amount collected |
| Once a delinquent account has been turned over to a collection agency, the physician's office should | refer all inquiries to the collection agency |
| The final statement for services renders to a deceased patient should be addressed to | estate of the deceased |
| When a patient fails to keep an appointment, the medical assistant should | document the failed appointment in the patient's chart |
| The method used to accommodate appointments for minor emergencies in the physicians office is to | leave unassigned slots in the appointment book |
| Which one of the following represents a successful "trial balance" | all transactions balance with the end of the day journal |
| The petty cash fund may be used | for small incidental items |
| When reconciling a bank account the "outstanding checks" are those | that have not cleared the bank |
| An acceptable patient check? | Certified |
| Which of the following entries are recorded in the adjustment column? | insurance write-offs |
| Summaries identifying which patient accounts are 30, 60, and 120 days overdue include | age analysis |
| Banking fees will appear on a monthly statement in the form of a | service charge |
| If the total income for one month is $17,500 and the total expenses for the month are $15,500, the profit and loss statements would show a | net profit of $2,000 |
| To properly void a check write "VOID" across the front and | retain it with cancelled checks, in numeric order |
| "For deposit only" is an example of what type of endorsement? | restrictive |
| When a bankruptcy notice is received in the office it is beneficial to | submit a form to the court trustee |
| The name that follows the word "Pay to the order of" on a check is the | payee |
| What regulatory body is responsible for monitoring the observance of Standard Precautions guidelines? | OSHA |
| When performing medical aseptic hand washing, the hands should be positioned | below the elbows |
| Microorganisms may be transmitted by each of the following EXCEPT | asepsis |
| According to Standard Precautions guidelines, personal protective equipment MUST be worn whenever there is contact with | blood |
| Sterilization is the | destruction of all microbial life |
| The most effective method of sterilization is | autoclaving |
| The autoclaving door is slightly open at the end of the autoclave cycle to | allow the items to dry |
| Cold sterilization is achieved through the use of | chemicals |
| A hemostat is used to | control bleeding |
| Forceps are used to | hold tissue |
| When obtaining a patient's blood pressure, the patients arm should be | at level of the heart |
| The tympanic thermometer is inserted into the | ear |
| The average pulse for an adult at rest is in the range of | 60-80 beats per minute |
| The most common arterial site for obtaining an adult pulse is | radial |
| To obtain the most accurate rate, respirations should be counted for | 60 seconds |
| The knee-chest position is used for examination of the | rectum |
| The method used to perform a breast examination is | palpation |
| The "Snellen Chart" is used to test | sight |
| The angle for a subcutaneous injection is | 45 degrees |
| The correct site for an adult IM injection is the | gluteus medius |
| The physician orders 1 Gram of a medication for injection. On hand is 0.5 Grams per mL on hand. How many mL will be administered? | 2.0 mL |
| A drug used to relieve pain is an | analgesic |
| Instruments required by the physician for a basic suture set-up include | needle holder and scissors |
| For minor surgical procedures, acceptable skin cleansing agents include all of the following EXCEPT | acetone |
| NOT a physical therapy modality? | immobilization |
| Test that identifies the organism associated with urinary tract infection (UTI)? | Culture and sensitivity |
| Staphylococci are the primary causative pathogen for which disease | Acne/boils |
| A urine pregnancy test checks for the presence of | HCG |
| The "universal donor" has blood type | O- |
| A highly specific host defense mechanism? | Immune response |
| A urine specimen collected over a specific period of time for quantitative analysis is | timed |
| The major components of a routine urinalysis are | physical, chemical, and microscopic |
| When performing a sedimentation rate, the Wintrobe or Westergren tube is filled to the level marked | 10 mm |
| Excessive squeezing around a capillary puncture site will cause | dilution of the sample with tissue fluid |
| Most appropriate patient position for a venipuncture? | sitting in a chair |
| In electrocardiography, the electrode used as a ground is | RL |
| Fire extinguishers must be inspected and recharged, if necessary, | once a year |
| A marked drop in blood pressure is found with | shock |
| The first step in controlling bleeding is | direct pressure |
| The appropriate first response to a syncope episode is to | place the patient supine with legs elevated |