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2W1 A set CDCs book2
URE questions from Volume 2
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| (201) Personal protective equipment greatly | decreases accidents |
| (201) What should you refer to when checklists do not cover local variations | Maintenance operating instructions |
| (202) How many inches wide should walkways be to permit free movement of workers, equipment, and supplies | 36 |
| (202) When may first-aid kits be kept in a maintenance shop | When authorized by the base surgeon |
| (202) Rubber gloves and face shields are necessary in a maintenance shop to | protect the skin and eyes from cleaning agents |
| (202) What governs the size, style, and design of the shadow boards and toolboxes | The needs of your section and the materials it has at its disposal |
| (202) What type of accident prevention sign has yellow lettering on a black background | Caution |
| (202) What type of accident prevention sign will generally have black letters on a white background on the lower panel | Directional |
| (203) What information is contained on a material safety data sheet (MSDS) | All hazards involved with handling the material and safety measures to follow while handling the material |
| (203) Which of the following is not a goal of the Hazard Communication Standard | Ensuring Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) approved methods of disposal for hazardous materials |
| (203) Who is responsible for adding new information to the MSDS on the hazards of a chemical and appropriate control measures within three months after becoming aware of such information | The chemicals manufacturer or importer |
| (204) What agency should you contact if you suspect your lighting is inadequate in a work area | Base bioenvironmental engineering office |
| (204) Dust, gas, vapor, fumes, and mist are examples of what type of contaminants | Atmospheric |
| (204) Which type of atmospheric contaminates produce a narcotic or drug-like effect | Anesthetics |
| (204) What term defines a measure of how severe symptoms a given chemical produces or how long the persist | Toxicity |
| (204) Where can information on the hazards of chemicals be found | Material Safety Data Sheet |
| (204) Particles of wood and metal are classified as what type of skin contaminants | Mechanical |
| (205) A face shield usually replaces goggles when | vision is critical |
| (205) What type of equipment is required to protect the feet when working around heavy, rolling, or falling objects | Safety-toe shows |
| (205) What type of arm and hand protection is needed when working around jagged objects, rough wood, or similar hazards | Leather gloves |
| (206) A flammable liquid is any liquid with a flash point below | 100 degrees F |
| (206) The flash point of a liquid can be most easily avoided by | good ventilation or elimination of spark devices |
| (207) What does the numerical rating of fire extinguishers serve as a guide for | Amount of fire the extinguisher can extinguish |
| (207) What fire classification can be effectively extinguished by water | Class A |
| (207) Which fire classification covers flammable liquids | Class B |
| (207) What type of extinguishing agent needs to be used on class D fires | Dry powder |
| (207) Which class of fire extinguishers is never assigned numerical ratings, nor are they given a multi-purpose rating | Class D |
| (207) What hazard does carbon dioxide present to the user when used as a fire fighting agent in concentrations sufficient to extinguish a fire | Will displace oxygen and make the area incapable of supporting life |
| (207) Which of the following fire fighting agents may clog filters in air handling systems and leave a residue | Dry powder |
| (208) What is the primary factor to be considered when dealing with the potential harm caused by an electrical shock | Current flow or amperage |
| (208) What amount of current flow causes a shock strong enough to be felt, but is normally harmless | .001 amp |
| (208) What amount of current flow usually results in a disturbed heart rhythm that the victim cannot normally recover without medical attention | Between 25 and 50 milliampere |
| (208) What effect do burns have on current flow through the skin | Greatly reduce the skins resistance to current flow |
| (209) The most common hazard associated with electricity is probably | electrical shocks |
| (210) As a general rule, electrical items should | have maintenance performed with power off |
| (210) When voltage is applied to equipment being repaired, | nonessential tools should be removed |
| (210) When cleaning electrical equipment, you should use | only approved cleaning solvents |
| (210) when do you use compressed air for cleaning electrical equipment | Only as a last resort |
| (210) What do you do before testing and following repair actions of electrical equipment | Visually check equipment |
| (210) Why do you inspect equipment before testing and following repair actions | Check for obvious defects |
| (210) Wearing jewelry is prohibited around electrical equipment because metal jewelry can | be an excellent low-resistance contact because of its large skin contact area |
| (211) Bonding is simply the placement of a | low-resistance wire between two metal objects |
| (211) What are the preferred metal clamps used for grounding and bonding | Copper |
| Bonding wires are attached to what type of metal surfaces | Bare |
| (211) What effect does bonding have on static electrical charges | Equalizes them |
| (211) The most important point to remember about grounding paths is they must | be continuous |
| (211) When handholding a meter while checking electrical circuits, you must always | use gloves or some other type of protective equipment |
| (212) What is considered the secondary hazard involved with working around fiber optics | Needle like structures that can easily be embedded into the skin or eyes |
| (212) What is the recommended method to control broken fiber optic particles | Placing broken pieces on adhesive tape |
| (213) The ruptured metal case of an explosive or munitions presents what type of hazard | Fragmentation |
| (213) Munitions items such as guns, rockets, missiles, and flare dispensers pose which of the primary hazards of explosives | Forward-firing munitions |
| (214) Never store explosives in | damn places |
| (214) Which of the following cannot be permitted in a storage magazine containing explosives | Open containers of explosives |
| (214) What type of clothing should be worn when working around explosives | Cotton or cotton synthetic blend |
| (214) During explosive operations, personnel who need to remove outer garments | must step out of the immediate area, remove the garment, ground themselves, then reenter |
| (215) Where are personnel limits for any explosive operation normally found | Maintenance operating instructions |
| (215) On what are explosive limits based | Quantity of explosives sufficient for the operation and quantity-distance separation criteria |
| (216) The Department of Defense (DOD) hazard classification system is based on the system recommended for international use by what organization | United Nations (UN) |
| (216) What hazard class and division contain nuclear weapons | Class 1, division 1 |
| (216) Items in which hazard class division produce fires that burn vigorously and are difficult to put out | Class 1, division 3 |
| (216) Which hazard class division would include items such as pistol and rifle ammunition or impulse cartridges | Class 1, division 4 |
| (217) Four different fire symbols are needed to | represent the hazards explosives present |
| (217) What symbols are used to identify operating buildings and storage facilities containing pyrotechnic and chemical munitions or agents and other hazardous materials | Chemical hazard symbols |
| (217) Who has the responsibility to post or change warning and hazard symbols in storage areas | Person in charge |
| (218) What precaution must be taken by personnel who work with toxic chemicals before smoking | They must wash their hands |
| (218) Stocks of flammable liquid used for cleaning in an explosive are must not exceed a | 1-day supply |
| (218) Parking areas for government vehicles may not be any closer than how many feet to an explosive are | 25 feet |
| (218) How many feet away must you remove support equipment from explosives before refueling | 100 |
| (218) What is the minimum withdrawal distance for all non-essential personnel if munitions posted with a fire symbol 2 are involved in a fire | 2500 feet |
| (219) For whom are the nuclear safety standards the go/no-go gauges | Designers, manufacturers, and users |
| (220) Personnel who come under the control of DODR 5210.42-Regulation AFMAN 10-3902 are those with duties involving the | control of nuclear weapons systems |
| (220) The personnel reliability program (PRP) applies to personnel during | times of hostilities as well as peacetime |
| (220) Normally, units having a nuclear role in terms of contingency, mobility, or emergency tasking will have a | full-time personnel reliability program (PRP) |
| (221) Critical personnel reliability program (PRP) positions are positions where | close proximity to a nuclear weapon or critical component is required |
| (221) What type of personnel reliability program (PRP) positions does not require a person to have entry into area or technical knowledge pertaining to a nuclear weapon system | Controlled |
| (222) The two-person concept is covered by what regulation | AFI 91-104, Nuclear Surety Tamper Control and Detection Program |
| (222) An area containing one of more critical components where a single individual must be denied access to is | a no-lone zone |
| (222) What concept is designed to ensure that a lone individual is denied access to nuclear weapons, nuclear weapons systems, or critical components and does not allow the opportunity for tampering, damage, or an unauthorized act to go undetected | Two person |
| (223) What concept must be enforced in a no-lone zone area | Two-person concept |
| (223) The no-lone zone requires strict adherence to the requirements of the | two-person concept |
| (224) A good seal on a nuclear component provides immediate evidence of | activation or tampering |
| (224) A good seal on a nuclear component depends directly upon | a good sealing program |
| (224) A good sealing program will | not interfere with the accomplishment of the mission |
| (225) What codes name covers when a nuclear weapon is lost, stolen, seized, or destroyed | Empty Quiver |
| (225) What is the code name given to the damage of a nuclear warhead that requires major rework, replacement, or examination or re-certification by the Department of Energy (DOE) | Bent Spear |
| (226) Unless the director of aerospace safety or the director of nuclear surety assumes responsibility, what major command is responsible for ensuring nuclear mishaps are investigated | The MAJCOM with command responsibility for the unit having the mishap |
| (226) A nuclear mishap formal report must be submitted within what time frame after the investigation | 30 days |
| (227) Commanders emphasize OPSEC application to make sure it is considered | at all levels and in all operations |
| (227) Who must ensure sound OPSEC practices during all operational phases | Supervisors |
| (228) During normal conversations, you should avoid using what type of worse to ensure maximum operational security | Flag words |
| (228) Under OPSEC, you should be looking for what communications intelligence indicator | Use of changing or infrequently changing call signs or radio frequencies |
| (229) Damage and destruction to Air Force resources is described as | any willful act that renders Air Force equipment useless |
| (229) What threat to resources is described as willful or malicious destruction of property | Vandalism |
| (230) Normally, as a 2W1X1, the secure are you will work in is the | flight line |
| (230) What resources are most vulnerable to terrorist threat | Facilities |
| (230) How are military materials demilitarized | Method of demilitarization is tailored to the material being demilitarized and its intended method of disposal |
| (231) How are the values of resources described | Monetary and military |
| (213) Which of the following is an example of a risk category I munitions item | Man-portable missiles and rockets in a ready to fire configuration |
| (231) In what risk category might bomb fuzes be assigned | IV |
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Vanessa.Pappas
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