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Munitions Systems 1

Munitions Systems Craftsman Block 1

1. Determine Air Crew training requirments by using ______________________. Peacetime Conventional Ammunition Requirements. GMAT AFI 11-212 WR-ALC AFI 11-212
2. To whom does GACP provide annual forecast instructions MAJCOM Munitions Staff
3. Forecast for CAT B munitions using applicable table in __________. Peacetime Conventional Ammunition Requirements GMAT AFI 11-212 WR-ALC GMAT
4. GACP provides annual requirements forecast instructions to MAJCOM munitions staffs not later than __________. 15 OCT
5. What is the primary vehicle to request and allocate air-to-ground and ground munitions required for testing, training, and operational need? Five Year Forecast
6. Who hosts the allocation conference in May of each year? GACP
7. MAJCOMs use which document recorded by GACP to prepare for the GAP conference? Initial DLAR WCDO RAFT PCAR Initial DLR
8. When may an Out Of Cycle Request be submitted? After 70% of allocation has been expended
9. Which of the following will present procurement recommendations based on forecasted requirements, inventory analysis, prior procurement actions, and industrial production capabilities? GACP
10. What information will assist the Department of Defense in determining future allocation levels and the amount of munitions to procure or purchase? Past Expenditures
What is used to support stock levels for munitions items w/o a Master Subsidiary Relationship Code (MSRC)? SAAR System
In how many days must the MASO notify customers of excess munitions requiring turn-in action by NSN, quantity, and category code? 7 duty days
13. Customers must contact Munitions Inspection within how many days of MASO notification to schedule turn-in of munitions excess to allocation? 14 calendar days
14. The MASO submits consolidated Time-Change Item requisitions __________. Semi-Annually Quarterly Annually Quarterly
15. Who performs the final quality control on stock level process to ensure that the current fiscal year allocation document has been loaded into CAS without error? AF/AQXR GACP MAJCOM MASO MASO
16. identifies the USAF War Reserve Material pre-positioning/pre-stocking requirements at designated locations worldwide to support wartime activities. The War Consumable Distribution Objective (WCDO)
17. Who is responsible for developing the Munitions Employment Plan? Squadron Commander Wing CC Munitions Flight Supervision MASO Munitions Flight Supervision
18. What does an OPLAN identify that is necessary to carry out military operations in theater? Functional Support, Resources, Special Forces
19. What plan is tailored directly for munitions? ESP OPLAN IGESP MEP MEP *Munitions Employment Plan
20. What is one of the two types of site plans used in development of the Munitions Employment Plan? IGESP In-Garrison Expeditionary Site Plan
21. Which plan is prepared in response to actual and potential contingencies? OPLAN Operation Plan
22. What document does the Master Training Plan (MTP) utilize to employ a strategy for ensuring the completion of all work center job requirements? Master Task Listing (MTL)
23. What AFI governs enlisted personnel skill-level training requirements? AFI 36-2201
24. Where are all core tasks outlined? CFETP
25. What form is created for shop specific tasks not outlined in the 623? AF Form 797
26. What is one of the trainer responsibilities? Plan, conduct, and document training
27. The trainer and supervisor may be the same individual? True
28. Trainers must plan, conduct, and evaluate training. False - •Supervisors must plan, conduct, and evaluate training.
29. Work center orientations must be conducted within 30 days of the date arrived on station. False - Conduct and document work center orientations within 60 days of assignment
30. Trainees must budget on-and off duty time to complete required training. True
31. The training manager maintains the 623 for all assigned personnel. False-•Supervisors maintain the AF Form 623 for all assigned personnel
32. Upon separation, retirement, commissioning, or promotion to master sergeant, return the 623 to the Military Personnel Flight. False-•Upon separation, retirement, commissioning, or promotion to master sergeant, return the 623 to the individual
33. The Career Field Education Training Plan is a complete history of qualifications and training completed. True
34. An individual is not required to maintain qualification on a task unless it is a part of their duty position. True
35. Transcribe within 120 days (240 days for ARC) of CFETP revision date or from date revision is posted to automated training records system True
36. Once entered into the automated system, a previously signed off task may not be deleted. False
37. AFI 36-2201V3 authorizes the use of IMDS as a method of tracking training. True
38. IMDS can only be used on a off-line terminal. *Integrated Maintenance Data System False - •Web based program accessible through the AF Portal
39. Accounts inactive for more than 15 days will be locked out. False- •Accounts inactive for more than 30 days will be locked out.
40. IMDS tracks individual users by Employee Number. True
41. The training levels for IMDS are Training Task Table, Work Center Tasks, and Unit Directed tasks. False-•Training Task Table•Work Center Task Assignment•Individual Task Assignment
42. G0-81 is also known as TBA-101. False-•Also known as Core Automated Maintenance System-For Mobility (CAMS-FM)
43. G0-81 is used primarily by AMC units for tracking individual training requirements. True
44. IMDS and G0-81 may be accessed through the AF Portal. True
45. Users request access to IMDS/G0-81 on a DD Form 1297. False-•Users request access by filling out a DD Form 2875, System Authorization Access Request
46. AMC units have been directed to utilize G0-81 as of FY 2011. False
47. Prior to handling explosive items, all personnel will be trained IAW __________. AFI 91-202
48. After developing locally written instructions, they must be approved by __________. Squadron CC or equivalent
Who is responsible for enforcing personnel/explosives limits? Supervisors
50. Clearly post personnel limits for the operations being conducted at each explosives operating location. Posted limits will distinguish between supervisors, workers, and __________. Casuals
51. The munitions Crew Chief ensures crew briefings are given before performing any operation
52. Who must establish an In Progress/End Item Inspection program IAW TO 00-20-1? MAJCOM
53. Who is responsible for compiling a list of In Progress/End Item Inspections? Operations Officer/Maintenance (MX) Superintendent
54. Which of the following is not an example of an In Progress/End Item Inspection? AIM 9L/M- Bomb body curvature -Bomb fuze settings- Trailer cotter pins Bomb body curvature
55. Which of the following individuals places their signature in the 'inspected by' block of the applicable form or automated system? IPI Inspector
56. After review, where are compiled lists of In Progress/End Item Inspections sent for approval? Maintenance Group Commander (MXG)
57. Prior to filling out an AFTO Form 244/245, individuals must reference _________. TO 00-20-1
58. When using the AFTO Form 244, identification of the system or equipment is entered in Part 1
59. Use this format when documenting the date on an AFTO Form 244/245: YYYMMDD
60. When applying this symbol, you restrict an item from use: Red X
61. After a piece of equipment has been involved in an incident significant to its history, document the incident using this form. AFTO Form 95
62. What prescribes the items and quantities of equipment required to perform the mission? Allowance Standards
63. What system is designed to account for and manage all Air Force equipment? AFEMS * Air Force Equipment Management System (AFEMS)
64. What is the minimum interval for conducting equipment inventories? 365 Days
65. What is the minimum interval for conducting equipment inventories? Both Outgoing and Incoming Custodian
66. What is a listing of equipment utilized by equipment custodians called? CA/CRL *Custodian Authorization/Custody Receipt Listing (CA/CRL)
67. What provides supervisors a list of personnel appointed to perform, evaluate, and or inspect work of a critical nature? Special Certification Roster
68. Who approves individuals listed on the SCR? MOO/MX SUPT
69. What is the lowest skill level normally approved to be on the SCR? 7-level
70. What form is used to add/remove personnel from the SCR? AF IMT 2426
71. Who submits personnel for approval to be listed on the SCR? Work Center supervisor
72. Which storage facilities require exterior and door lighting? Buildings storing Cat I and Cat II munitions
73. What is the minimum perimeter fence height required for MSAs? 6 ft.
74. Who assigns Controlled Inventory Item Codes (CIICs) to munitions items? Item manager/system manager
75. What are the sub-categories of Controlled Inventory Item Codes (CIIC)? Classified, Sensitive, Pilferable
76. Risk categories are assigned based on which of the following? Security and Protection
77. How many levels of IDS are required for Category I and II Missiles and Rockets and Category I and II ammunition and/or explosives? Two
78. What category of CIIC requires protection in the interest of national security? Classified
Which of the following do not need to be segregated from remaining stocks using ropes, tape, placards, painted lines or other highly visible means? Unserviceable assets (CC's H, J, P and V) Serviceable assets (CC's B, C and D) Serviceable assets (CC's B, C and D)
80. Which type of storage configuration is the easiest to organize? General Bulk Stack Storage
81. Which type of configuration allows for fast response to contingencies or operational changes? Complete Round Storage
82. Which type of storage configuration can dramatically increase NEW of magazines or open stacks? Buffered Storage
83. Items in which of the following risk categories will be given storage priority in facilities with IDS? I, II, and Classified
84. What height of dunnage is required if munitions are stored outside on an asphalt surface? 4”
85. If munitions are stored inside an igloo on a concrete floor, how many inches of dunnage is required? 2”
86. If munitions are stored outside on a dirt pad, how much dunnage is required? 6”
87. What are your options when the dirt on top of an igloo gets below 24 inches? Recover the igloo by adding dirt to get the 24 inches required Re-site the building
88. Provides training to individual technicians and leaders Air Education and Training Command (AETC)
89. Ensures munitions facilities sited for explosives storage are used for their intended purpose. Squadron Commander ( or Equivalent)
90. Who briefs OG and MXG on WRM posture? Munitions Supervision
91. Storage structure ventilators may be closed ____________. For Blowing sand/snow
Earth covered igloos with less than 24 inches of earth cover must be corrected within how many days or be reclassified? 90 Days
93. What types of separation should you consider when site planning? Public Traffic Route Distance Inhabited Building Distance Intermagazine Distance Intraline Distance
94. What is defined as the distance to be maintained between two AE storage locations? Intermagazine Distance
95. What is defined as the distance to be maintained between any two AE related buildings within an AE related operating line? Intraline Distance
96. What is a building, facility, or site in which operations pertaining to the manufacturing, processing, handling, or assembling of ammunition and explosives are done? Operating Location
97. What are structures, other than AE-related buildings, occupied by personnel or the General Public? Inhabited Building
98. What is the location of a quantity of AE that will create a blast, fragment, thermal, or debris hazard in the event of an accidental explosion of its contents? Potential Explosive Site
99. What report may be used in lieu of the AF Form 4331 to record re-warehousing actions? AM567A
100. Use direct input methods or which form to track all munitions movements? AF Form 4331
101. What percentage of all movements is physically verified at least weekly? 10%
102. What percentage of all movements are verified against the transaction history listing? 100%
103. After an A/C lands, reconciliation is performed by the weapons expediter per this instruction. AFI 21-201
104. True or False? The goal of AF Nuclear Surety is to incorporate maximum safety consistent with operational needs. True
105. High fences, barbed wire, 2 person concept, locks, alarms, WS3 vaults (USAFE only), and security forces are all positive measures to ensure adequate security for nuclear weapons. True
106. Each person in the Nuclear Surety program has specific responsibilities as outlined in AFI 91-201. False as outlined in AFI 91-101
107. A design feature, procedure, safety rule, or accident prevention or mitigation measure that works to reduce the likelihood, severity, or consequence of an accidental or deliberate threat involving a nuclear weapon or nuclear weapon system is called False-Positive Measure
108. Nuclear Surety training will be conducted initially upon assignment and annually thereafter (every 24 months). False-will be conducted initially upon assignment and annually thereafter (every 12 months).
109. ANY Nuclear Safety deficiency which does or could degrade nuclear safety is known as: Dull Sword
110. ANY Nuclear Safety deficiency which does or could degrade nuclear safety is known as: External
111. Malfunction, failure, or anomaly involving the command and control system which results in indications of critical function activation is considered Operational
112. Malfunctions or failures (catastrophic) to an intrusion detection system monitoring equipment are considered what type of incident? Security
113. Nuclear surety violations, where there is the opportunity to tamper with or damage the nuclear weapon, component or system are considered what type of incident? Personnel
114. What is the proper signature format used on equipment forms? Interim
115. What type of certification allows personnel to perform duties without restrictions as long as the AF Form is completed and signed? Initial
116. What is a temporary removal from PRP status referred to as? Suspension
117. What is a characteristic of a Suspension from PRP? Last a maximum of 120 days
118. What is not a characteristic of PRP Temporary Decertification? Longer than 365 days
119. What AFI requires development of an NWRM Fundamentals Course? AFI 20-110
120. What is considered a passing score on the NWRM Fundamentals Course? 80%
121. What is an Air Force approved NWRM listing? Master NWRM listing
122. What is the ability to identify and account for material anywhere in the supply chain? Positive Inventory Control
123. What are the two MIL-STDs used for marking and packaging NWRM assets? MIL-STD 129/2073
Created by: MarkN



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