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A&P II - Human Blood

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Question
Answer
what are the functions of blood (there are 4)?   1) transport nutrients, gases, and wastes, 2) regulates pH levels and temperature, 3) Restricts fluid loss, 4) Defends Body Against Toxins & Pathogens  
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blood is what kind of tissue   blood is connective tissue  
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which is 5 times more viscous (blood/water)   blood is 5 times more viscous than water  
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what are the components of blood   fluid matrix (plasma), specific cells and formed elements  
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out of all the three main elements that make up the blood, which one makes up a majority of blood volume   plasma makes up a majority of blood volume (55%)  
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name the three types of proteins in the blood that are part of fluid matrix   albumins, globulins, fibrogen  
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where are the plasma proteins mostly produced   the liver  
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out of the three plasma proteins (fibrinogen/albumin/globulin) is the most abundant   albumin is the most abundant blood protien  
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what is the main plasma protein that contributes to osmolarity and osmotic pressure in capillaries   albumin mostly contributes to osmolarity and osmotic pressure  
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what are the plasma proteins that become antibodies (Immunoglobulins, Ig)   globulin proteins  
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where is all albumin made?   albumin is made in the liver  
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why is fibrogen an important protein in blood plasma   fibrogen is important in blood clotting during bleeds  
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what is fibrogen become during the clotting process   fibrogen become fibrin during the clotting process  
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what leaves a serum during the clotting process   fibrin leaves/excretes serum during the clotting process  
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during clotting, which protein removes Ca++ from the blood plasma   fibrogen (after it becomes fibrin) removes Ca++ during the clotting process  
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plasma and serum (can be used interchangably/are different things)   plasma and serum are different  
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what is the function of a plasma expander   plasma expanders temporarily increases blood volume  
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what is an ideal time to use a plasma expander   in situations when blood volume is low, such as a hemorrhage  
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where is fibrinogen synthesized?   liver synthesizes the fibrinogen  
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how is blood protein affected when there are liver disorders   if the liver is not functioning, plasma proteins like albumin and fibrinogen are not synthesized  
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if the liver does not synthesize plasma proteins like fibrinogen what can happen?   there will be clotting disorders because necessary proteins like fibrinogen are not produces  
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if the liver does not synthesize plasma proteins like albumin what can happen?   there will be problems with osmolarity and osmotic pressure, if the liver fails to produce enough albumin  
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what is hematopoesis   the process in which formed elements (WBC's, RBC's, and platelets) are formed  
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platelets are (cell fragments/whole cells)   platelets are cell fragements  
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what is the process called that synthesizes Red Blood Cells   erythropoesis  
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what formed element in the blood contains hemoglobin   red blood cells contain hemoglobin  
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what is the name of the protein/molecule that transports respiratory gases   hemoglobin is the protein/molecule that transports respiratory gases  
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what is the most abundant formed element in blood   red blood cells (erythrocytes) are the most abundant formed element in the blood  
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a combination of plasma and formed elements is called   whole blood  
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the most abundant component of plasma is   water  
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a hematocrit provides information on (PICK ONE: sedimentation rate/blood type/plasma composition/formed elements abundance/clotting factors)   formed elements abundance  
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all the circulating red blood cells in an adult originates in the   red bone marrow  
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red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone _____________________.   erythropoietin  
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the average life span of a red blood cell is   4 months  
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if the bile ducts are blocked (PICK ONE: more hemolysis takes place/bilirubin appears in saliva/more WBC's are produced/more bilirubin appears in the plasma/more red blood cells are produced)   more bilirubin appears in the plasma  
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the function of hemoglobin is to   carry dissolved gases  
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each hemoglobin molecule contains (PICK ONE: a molecule of O2 and a molecule of CO2, four alpha chains, one alpha and one beta chain, four iron atoms, one heme group)   four iron atoms  
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blood type is primarily identified by   both ABO and R blood groups  
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the most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the   neutrophils  
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the function of platelets is to assist in the processes called   hemostasis  
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platelets are (PICK ONE: RBC's that lack a nucleus, blus cells that have a nucleus, tiny cells with a polynucleus, cytoplasmic fragments of large cells, large cells with a prominent concave nucleus)   cytoplasmic fragments of large cells  
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which vitamin is needed for the formation of clotting factors   vitamin K  
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each hemoglobin molecule is able to transport _________________ molecules of oxygen   4 (four)  
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a decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability of the blood, for any reason, is a condition known as   anemia  
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if you carry the Rh antigen, your blood type is referred to as (Rh) ____________________   positive  
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what is another term for formed elements   hematocrit  
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roughly, hematocrit makes up ______________% and plasma makes up ________________________% of blood volume   hematocrit makes up 45% and plasma makes up 55% of blood volume  
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hematocrit includes (PICK ONE: Red Blood Cells, White Blood Cells, Platelets, All the above)   all the above (RBC's, WBC's, Platelets)  
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what is hematopoesis   the process in which formed elements are developed  
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what is the process that forms Red Blood cells   erythropoeisis  
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which formed element contains hemoglobin molecules   red blood cells  
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which molecule in blood has a sole function to transport respiratory gases   hemoglobin transports respiratory gases  
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about how many RBC's are there in men (per microLiter)   4.5-6.3  
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about how many RBC's are there in women (per microLiter)   4.2-5.5  
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what is a blood draw   the process of collecting blood for analysis  
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what vein is commonly used when drawing blood for analysis? (looking from the outside of the body, where is this vessel generally located)   median cubital vein, the antecubital (anterior elbow) region of the body  
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the procedure of drawing blood from a vein is called   venipuncture  
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give three reasons why veins are the ideal location for blood draw   1) they are more superficial than arteries, 2) walls are thinner than arteries, 3) pressure is relatively low in veins and and therefore making healing easier and faster  
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what are some alternative locations for blood draws if the antecubital region is unavailable   finger prick, ear lobe (infants), feet, hand, scalp (infants), fore arm, anywhere  
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what is the purpose of an arterial puncture   to test levels of blood gases, indicates lung function  
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you have been given a vile of blood that has already been placed in the centrifuge and you have been asked to identify the layers of blood in the vile. Name the layers from top to bottom and what elements they contain.   1) plasma (yellow hue) contains plasma proteins, electrolytes, and other dissolved elements, 2) buffy coat, includes white blood cells and platelets, 3) Red blood cells only  
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how is hematocrit measured after it has been placed in the centrifuge   it is the red blood cell layer and the buffy coat layer  
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what does it mean if the buffy coat increases in size   if the buffy coat increases in size, then this is a sign of either infection or leukemia  
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how does dehydration affect the blood   hematocrit increases during dehydration and blood plasma decreases  
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how does an increase in erythropoietin affect the   hematocrit increases in response to increased erythropoietin in the blood stream  
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with internal bleeding, what happens to formed element volume   there is a decrease in hematocrit with internal bleeding  
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when there are problems with RBC formation, what happens to the volume of hematocrit   formed element volume decreases when there are problems with RBC formation  
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what would you call a decrease in the number of reticulocytes   diminished erythropoiesis  
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a hypo-mean corpuscular volume is   microcytotic  
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what is polycythemia   increased RBC/Hemoglobin/Hematocrit counts  
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what is reticulosis   too much reticulocyte count  
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what is erythrocytosis   too many red blood cells  
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what is hypochromic   too little mean corpuscular hemaglobin  
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if a person is macrocytotic it means that   they have too much mean corpuscular volume  
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if a person is hyperchromic it means that   they have too much mean corpuscular hemoglobin  
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generally speaking, what is the average pH of blood   between 7.35 and 7.45  
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what is the most specialized cell in the body   the red blood cell  
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what is the name of the protein that gives red blood cells their shape and allows them to be flexible   spectrin proteins give RBC's their shape and flexibility  
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what is the special shape that give RBC's their special features   RBC's are in a biconcaved disc  
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what protein creates a mesh work on the plasma membrane of the RBC's allow them to move flexibly   spectrin protein creates a mesh work in the plasma membrane  
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what are the three major advantages of the shape of red blood cells   1) increased surface area, 2) allows for stackability (specifically in smaller vessels), and 3) enables the cell to bend and flex  
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why is it important to have a large surface area in red blood cells   allows for increased unit/volume exchange rate and allows for quick exchange of respiratory gases  
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what is rouleaux   a stack of red blood cells  
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why is it important for RBC's to have the ability to stack in small vessels   RBC's are stackable, allowing them to stack one top of the other without affecting the cells involved  
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during RBC development, it (keeps/looses) its organelles   RBC's loose organelles during development  
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name two major organelles that are lost during RBC formation   nucleus and mitochonria  
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why do RBC's have relatively short life spans   RBC's are anucleic (without a nucleus) and do not possess the DNA to mend themselves  
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why is it important that an RBC does not have mitochondria   mitochondria require oxygen to metabolize nutrients, the lack of mitochondria ensures that the RBC does not steal the O2 molecule from the hemoglobin  
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what kind of metabolism do RBC's have? why   RBC obtain energy from anaerobic metabolism, so they do not steal O2 from Hemoglobin during transport AND because they do not have mitochondria  
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in the lungs (or other locations where the O2 concentration is high), what happens to the balance of the oxyhemoglobin chemical equation   the balance of the oxyhemoglobin chemical equation tends to favor the right  
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what is the name of the molecule the that give hemoglobin its red color   heme gives hemoglobin it's red color  
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what is the name of the protein that gives hemoglobin its shape   globin is the protein that gives hemoglobin its shape  
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what are the names of the four chains that make up the hemoglobin structure   there are two alpha chains and two beta chains  
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in hemoglobin, how many oxygen molecules fit on each chain   hemoglobin fits one oxygen molecule per chain  
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the structure of hemoglobin is close to the structure of what other structure in the body   myoglobin  
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what is the important atom that attracts and holds on to oxygen in hemoglobin   iron (specifically Fe2+)  
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oxygen attaches to (Fe2+/Fe4+)   oxygen is attracted to and attaches to Fe2+  
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what part of the hemoglobin molecule has iron included in the structure   heme contains iron in hemoglobin  
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the interaction between Iron and Oxygen is very (strong/weak)   the interaction between iron and oxygen is very WEAK  
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what is deoxyhemoglobin   hemoglobin that is not attached to oxygen  
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in peripheral tissues (where oxygen is low) which way does the oxyhemoglobin chemical equation equilibrium favor   the HbO2 equation favors the left in the peripheral tissues  
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how does fetal hemoglobin differ from adult hemoglobin   fetal hemoglobin contains two alpha chains and two gamma chains, these make fetal Hb have a stronger bond with oxygen  
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(fetal/adult) hemoglobin forms stronger bonds with oxygen   fetal hemoglobin has the stronger bond with O2  
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when does fetal hemoglobin become adult hemoglobin   shortly after birth  
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what is carboxyhemoglobin   hemoglobin that is attached to Carbon Monoxide  
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why is carbon monoxide so dangerous   the affinity between Carbon monoxide and hemoglobin is stronger than HbO2. therefore CO attaches to Hb and does not ever let go  
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how is sickle cell anemia generally treated   adults are usually given drugs that helps the body produce fetal hemoglobin  
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what is sickle cell anemia   a disease where RBC's are misshapen and inflexible inhibiting the body's ability to deliver O2  
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when there is a high CO2 concentration, what happens to the equilibrium of the HbO2 chemical equation   the HbO2 equation favors the left  
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what is the main problem with anemia   anemia interferes with the delivery of oxygen to the peripheral tissues  
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what are some signs and symptoms of anemia   weakness, lethargy, and confusion (if the brain is affected)  
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at the end of the RBC's life what happens to the memberane   RBC plasma membrane ruptures at the end of life  
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what happens to an RBC after its membrane has ruptured   phagocytic cells engulf the red blood cell  
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what is erythropoiesis   the production of RBC's  
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what are the two main stimulants for erythropoiesis   Decreased oxygen level (indirectly) and Erythropoietin (Directly)  
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in a fetus, when do red blood cells appear   red blood cells appear during 3rd week of pregnancy  
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during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, where does the formation of RBC's start   yolk sac  
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after the first 8 weeks of pregnanc, RBC formation moves out to other organs in the fetus. what organs take over the RBC formation   liver, spleen, thymus, and bone marrow  
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when do stem cells form for all formed elements in blood   after the 1st 8 weeks of pregnancy  
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between 2-5 months of pregnancy, where is the primary location for erythropoiesis   liver and spleen  
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in adults, where does erythropoiesis occure   myeloid tissue of the red bone marrow  
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what is yellow bone marrow   bone marrow that is full of fat  
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with prolonged blood loss, yellow marrow (can/cannot) turn into red marrow   yellow marrow CAN transition to red marrow  
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what is the name of stem cells for red and white blood cells   hemoblasts (or hematopoietic stem cells)  
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what are the two types of daughter cells that can be produced after hematopoietic stem cells divide   myeloid stem cells and lymphoid stem cells  
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what types of blood cells are formed from myeloid stem cells   RBC, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and monocytes  
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what types of blood cells are formed from lymphoid stem cells   lymphocytes only  
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how many stages are in RBC production   6 (six)  
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immature RBC's that still have nucleus   proerytheroblast  
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after an erythroblast looses its nucleus it becomes   reticulocyte  
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how long do recticulocytes stay in the red bone marrow prior to release   2 days  
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when reticulocytes are released in to blood stream they (are/are not) fully mature RBC's   reticulocytes ARE NOT mature RBC's when they release into blood stream  
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what happens in to the reticulocyte after it has been released from red bone marrow (three things happen)   1) synthesizes Hb, 2) synthesizes proteins, and 3) contains RNA  
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what happens when there are lots of reticulocytes and not enough RBC's   anemia, something is destroying RBC's too fast  
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erythropoietin (is/is not) a banned substance for athletes   EPO IS a banned substance  
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name two major medicinal/medical uses of EPO   doping for athletes and treatment of kidney disease  
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what are the three situations in which kidneys release EPO   1) anemia, 2) decreased blood flow to kidneys, and 3) decreased oxygen content in respiratory gases  
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what is pernicious anemia   an autoimmune disease where intrinsic factor is destroyed  
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why is intrinsic factor so important   intrinsic factor absorbs Vitamin b-12 into blood stream from digestive system (IF+B-12 = B-12 absorption)  
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what organ releases intrinsic factor   stomach  
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in pernicious anemia, Vitamin B-12 (is/is not) destroyed   Vitamin B-12 IS NOT destroyed, intrinsic factor is destroyed  
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what are the two main effects of EPO   stimulate cell division in erythroblasts and speeds up RBC maturation  
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what is the effect of long term dopping with EPO on athletes (or other healthy individuals)   can put a strain on the heart of healthy individuals because of increased blood volume  
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anemia (can/cannot) result from prolonged blood loss (like heavy menses)   anemia CAN result from prolonged blood loss  
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what are three major nutrients needed for RBC formation that cannot be made inside the body   folic acid, iron, vitamin b-12  
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what is the source of vitamin b-12   dairy and meat  
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what is the effect of gastric reduction on RBC formation   gastric reduction can hinder RBC production because the stomach does not produce as much intrinsic factor as is needed for vitamin b-12 uptake  
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what are the three things that hemoglobin is broken down to at RBC are separated into at the end of their life   1) heme, 2) iron, and 3) globulin  
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what part of hemoglobin eventually becomes bilirubin   the heme molecule eventually becomes bilirubin  
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how is bilirubin usually excreted   through the bile (from gall bladder)  
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during a liver problem what happens to bilirubin   excess bilirubin is found in the blood plasma and gives skin and eye jaundice color  
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what is the name of the molecule that gives the skin it's yellow pigment color during jaundice   bilirubin  
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what WBC assists with the hemoglobin recycling   macrophages (monocytes that have left the blood stream)  
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where does hemoglobin recycling usually occur   in the spleen  
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what is the substance from recycled hemoglobin that combines with the protein transferrin   iron  
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what happens to the alpha and beta chains of the hemoglobin after a RBC dies   they are broken down into their respective amino acids which are recycled by the body to form new proteins  
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what is hemoglobinuria   abnormally large amounts of RBC's in urine  
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what is hematouria   intact RBC's present in urine  
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when can hematouria occur   when blood vessels in kidneys have been damaged  
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what does secondary polycythemia usually occur   1) after a person has moved up to the mountains, 2) after doping, 3) chronic smoking and their body has produced more RBC  
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why can polycythemia be potentially dangerous   it can cause the heart to work harder, due to increased RBC production  
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what is polycythemia vera   a type of cancer that produces too many RBC's  
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before becoming bilirubin, heme from recycled hemoglobin becomes _____________________   biliverdin  
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what protein does bilirubin combine with prior to being excreted in bile   albumin  
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in the large intestines, bilirubin becomes what two proteins   urobilinogens (urobilins when exposed to oxygen) and stercobilinogens (stercobilins when exposed to oxygen)  
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what happens to the urobiliogen in the large intestine   it is reabsorbed by the body  
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how does the body get rid of urobilinogens   urobilinogens are excreted through the urine  
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how does the body get rid of stercobilinogens   leaves via stool  
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name the two iron-protein complexes in the blood   ferritin and hemosiderin  
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generally speaking, anemia is more of a (symptom/disease)   anemia is more of a symptom  
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a patient has walked into your office with visible pallor, dyspnea (shortness of breath) and fatigue. what is the possible cause   anemia  
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what are three main causes for anemia   1) blood loss, 2) not enough RBC's, 3) not enough reticulocytes  
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what triggers an immune response in the body   antigens  
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what are surface antigens   antigens that are located in the plasma membrane of cells that identify your body cells as "self" or "normal."  
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any cell that does not contain ____________________ are labelled as "foreign"   surface antigens  
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what type of antigen are used to help with blood typing   surface antigens help with blood typing  
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what determines a person's specific blood type   the presence (or absence) of different surface antigens  
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name the for ABO blood types   A, B, O, and AB  
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In addition to water and proteins, what else is part of plasma   electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes  
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the iron extracted from heme molecules during hemoglobin recycling is stored in the the protein-iron complexes called ____________________ and __________________   ferritin and hemosiderin  
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the process of hemostasis include five phases. what are the correct order of phases as they occur after injury?   vascular, platelet, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis)  
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how is it that liver disorders can alter the composition and functional properties of the blood   the liver is the primary source of plasma protiens  
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Hemoglobin molecules released into the bloodstream by breakdown of of RBC's by hemolysis will be excreted in the (kidneys/skin/ tears/small and large intestine)   hemoglobin molecules are excreted via the kidneys  
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on average, 1 microliter of blood contains _____________________ erythrocytes   1 microliter of blood contains 5.2 millions erythrocytes  
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If. agglutinogen B meets with agglutinin anti-A, what is the results?   no agglutination occurs  
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what is the precursor of all blood cells in the human body   hemocytoblasts  
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reticulocytes are nucleated immature cells that develop into mature ______________   erythrocytes  
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In the first pregnancy of an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive child , why are there usually NO symptoms or erythroblastosis fetalis.   blood between mother and child does not mix until birth  
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the number of eosinophils increase dramatically during _____________________________   an allergic reaction of a parasitic infection  
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Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into progenitor cells, which give rise to all white blood cells EXCEPT _______________________   lymphocytes  
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clot destruction involves a process that begins with _____________.   activation of the proenzyme plasminogen, which indicates the production of plasmin  
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the major effect of vitamin K deficiency in the body is that it leads to _______________________   a breakdown of the common pathway, inactivating the clotting system  
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a change in the amino acid sequence of DNA coding for one of the globulin chains of the hemoglobin molecule results in a condition known as _________________________   sickle cell anemia  
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Jessica has just moved to Yellowstone Country, Montana from San Diego, California. What condition is she experiencing no that is stimulating the production of erythropoietin and, consequently more red blood cells   hypoxia caused by an increase in her elevation above sea level  
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which white blood cell attacks and digests bacteria marked with its complement   neutrophils  
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which white blood cell releases histamine and heparin, when stimulated   basophil  
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which white blood cell attacks objects that are coated with antibodies   eosinophils  
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what white blood cell is responsible for cell-mediated (or humoral) immunity   lymphocytes  
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which white blood cell is the precursor to macrophages   monocytes  
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which blood type has surface antigen A and anti-B antibodies   Type A blood has surface antigen A and anti-B antibodies  
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which blood type has surface antigen B and anti-A antibodies   Type B blood has surface antigen B and anit-A antibodies  
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which blood type has surface antigens A and B and no antibodies   Type AB blood has surface antigens A and B and no antibodies  
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which blood type has no surface antigens and anti-A and anti-B andtibodies   Type O blood has no surface antigens, anti-A and anti-B antibodies  
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which blood type has Rh surface antigen, and no antibodies   Rh positive blood types have Rh surface antigens and no antibodies  
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correctly list the cells in the steps of erythropoisis in the correct order   1) hemocytoblast, 2) proerythroblast, 3) normoblast, 4) reticulocyte, 5) erythrocyte  
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which type of healthy human would typically have 4-5 liters of blood   adult female would normally have 4-5 liters of blood  
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what is the plasma protein that plays an important role in protection against foreign proteins and pathogens   immunoglobin  
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what is the plasma protein that functions in blood clotting   fibrinogen  
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which of the following is NOT a function of albumin (transporting iron/maintaining osmotic pressure/transporting fatty acids/ transporting thyroid hormones)   albumin does not transport iron  
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which blood cells are the most abundant (erythrocytes/neutrophils/platelets/monocytes)   erythrocytes are the most abundant blood cells  
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reticulocytes account for about _____________ percent of the erythrocyte population in the blood   reticulocytes account for about 1%  
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what is the range of normal hematocrit   37-54%  
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it is an illegal practice for Olympic competitors to receive doses of which hormone, which stimulates the production of red blood cells   erythropoietin  
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Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an Rh-____________ woman bears a second child with an Rh-_____________ man   Rh-negative woman, with an Rh-positive man  
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which white blood cell is also known as a polymorph   neutrophil is also known as a polymorph  
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During an infection, the white blood cell count may rise, a condition known as   leukocytosis  
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bleeding along the digestive tract and within the skin is symptomatic of _____________________   thrombocytopenia  
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which disease stat would be characterized by a concentration of upto 1 million platelets per microLiter in the plasma   thrombocytosis  
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syneresis refers to the process of ________________   clot retraction  
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what type of surface antigen does Type A have   Type A blood has A surface antigen  
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what type of surface antigen does Type B have   Type B blood has type B surface antigen  
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what type of surface antigen does Type AB have   Type AB blood has type A and B surface antigens  
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what type of surface antigen does Type O have   Type O blood has no surface antigen  
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what type of surface antigen does Rh positive have   Type Rh positive blood has Rh surface antigen (Rh factor)  
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what type of surface antigen does the Rh negative have   Rh negative blood does NOT have ANY Rh factor  
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what are agglutiongens   agglutinogens are the surface antigens on Red Blood Cells  
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(agglutinogens/agglutinins) are ignored by the immune system and help identify red blood cells as "self"   agglutinogens are ignored by the immune system and help identify read blood cells as "self"  
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what are agglutinins   agglutinins are antibodies in blood plasma  
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what attacks antigens on "foreign" RBCs causing the blood to clot   agglutinins (antibodies) attack antigens on "foreign" RBC's  
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what does it mean to agglutinate   agglutination is the process of clotting blood  
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If you have Type A blood, what type of antibodies do you have   type A blood has anti-B antibodies  
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if you have Type B blood, what type of antibodies do you have   type B blood has anti-A antibodies  
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if you have Type O blood, what type of antibodies do you have   type o blood has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies  
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if you have type AB blood, what type of antibodies do you have   type AB blood does not have any antibodies  
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what type of antibodies does Rh positive blood   Rh positive blood have no Rh antibodies  
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what type of antibodies does Rh negative blood have   Rh negative blood does not have any Rh antibodies unless they become exposed to Rh positive blood. then the body starts producing Rh antibodies  
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(red/white) blood cells have nuclei and other organells   white bloods cells have nuclei and other organells  
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what cell type in the blood helps to defend against invaders   white blood cells help defend against invaders  
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WBCs can be found in locations other than be blood stream, where can they be found?   lymphatic system and connective tissue proper  
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what is diapedesis   diapedesis is the ability that a WBC has to pass through the intact walls of the capillaries  
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what are 3 major functions of white blood cells   1) ability to migrate in and out of bloodstream, 2) all are capable of amoeboid movement, and 3) all are attracted to specific chemical stimuli  
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what is leukocytosis   a greater than average/normal number of blood cells in the body  
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what is margination   margination is the WBC's ability to contact and adhere to a vessel wall  
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what can cause a WBC to migrate out of a blood stream   during activation, WBCs can migrate out of the bloodstream  
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what is another term for emigration   diapedesis is another term for emigration  
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what is amobiod movement   a gliding motion that is similar to the movement of an ameobiod  
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what is positive chemotaxis   the attractions that white blood cells have to specific chemical stimuli  
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what formed element in the blood has positive chemotaxis properties   white blood cells have positive chemotaxis properties  
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what helps guide white blood cells to invading pathogens, damaged tissue, and other active white blood cells   positive chemotaxis attracts inactive WBCs to pathogens, damaged tissue, and other active WBCs  
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name the two groups of white blood cells   the two groups of blood cells are granular blood cells (granulocytes) and agranular blood cells (agranulocytes)  
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what are the three types of granulocytes   neutrophils, eosinophils , and basophils  
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what give the granulocyte group of white blood cells their name   under a microscope, granulocytes have many granulations in the the cytoplasm  
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what group of white blood cells have lobed nuclei   granulocytes have lobed nuclei  
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which white blood cell contains granulocytes in its cytoplasm, has a nucleus with 4 to 5 lobes, and appears colorless under a microscope   neutrophils are granulocytes with nuclei that have multiple lobes  
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name all the types of agranulocytes in blood   monocytes and lymphocytes  
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what group of white blood cells are classified by having little to no granules in its cytoplasm   agranulocytes have little to no granules in the cytoplasm  
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which white blood cells, contribute to nonspecific defenses   neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes  
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which white blood cells are also called microphages   neutrophils and eosinophils  
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macrophages are _____________________ that have moved out of the blood stream and are actively phagocytic   monocytes that have moved out of the blood stream  
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which white blood cells are part of specific defenses   lymphocytes (B and T cells) are part of specifi  
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which white blood cells will mount a counterattack against specific pathogens and foreign proteins   lymphocytes  
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which white blood cell makes up 70% of the bodies WBC population   neutrophils  
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which WBC is the first to arrive and mount a counterattack against bacterial marked with antibodies   neutrophils are the first to arrive and attack  
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what chemicals doe neutrophils release that increase capillary permeability and help contribute to inflammation   neutrophils release prostaglandins and leukotrienes that help with capillary permeability ant contribute to inflammations  
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what chemical released by neutrophils helps attract phagocytes and coordinate immune response   leukotrienes help attract phagocytes and coordinated immune response  
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about how long is the lifespan of a neutrophil   10 hours (30 minutes when engulfing pathogens)  
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how much bacteria does the neutrophil engulf prior to its death (when active)   12 - 24 bacteria  
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what is included in pus   dead neutrophils, cellular debris, and other wastes  
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what is a three letter word for a substance that includes cellular debris, wastes, and dead WBC's   pus  
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which white blood cells have bilobed nucleus, attack objects that are covered with antibodies   eosinophils have bilobed nucleus and attack object that are covered in antibodies  
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what is the primary mode of attack for eosinophils   eosinophils uses exocytosis of toxic compounds as their mode of attack  
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eosinophils are especially effective against what type of invaders   eosinophils are especially effective against multicellular organisms (like parasites-fluke worms and roundworms)  
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which type of white blood cell is sensitive to circulating allergens   eosinophils are sensitive to circulating allergens  
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at an injury site, which white blood cell releases enzymes that reduce inflammation and helps control the spread of inflammation to adjacent tissues   eosinophils help reduce inflammation and control the spread of inflammation to adjacent tissues  
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the rarest white blood cell found in the body is _________________   basophil are the rarest white blood cells  
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____________________________ migrate to an injury site by crossing the capillary endothelium   basophils migrate to an injury site  
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which white blood cell discharges granules containing histamine and heparin into interstitial fluids   basophils release heparin and histamine into interstitial fluids  
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what is the function of histamine   histamine dilates blood vessels  
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what is the function of heparin   heparin helps prevent clotting  
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basophils release chemicals into the interstitial fluid that help with ___________________ and ___________________   basophils help with dilation of blood vessels and help prevent blood clotting  
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the chemicals released by basophils attract which other white blood cells   basophils help attract eosinophils and other basophils  
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what white blood cell spends a relatively short life in circulation then migrates to the peripheral tissue where it becomes a macrophage   monocytes have a short life in circulation and become macrophages in peripheral tissue  
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which white blood cell has the capability to engulf foreign objects that are larger than themselves   monocytes/macrophages can engulf pathogens that are larger than themselves  
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activated monocytes release chemical that attract and stimulate what other cells   monocyte chemicals activate and attract neutrophils, other monocytes, other phagocytic cells, and fibroblasts  
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what is the function of fibroblasts   fibroblasts begin producing scar tissue and begin to wall of the injured area  
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most lymphocytes are located in ___________________________ than in the blood stream   most lymphocytes are located in CONNECTIVE TISSUE and LYMPHATIC SYSTEM than in the blood stream  
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name the three types of lymphocytes   1) T cells (T Lymphocytes), 2) B Cells (B Lymphocytes), 3) Natural Killer Cells  
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what type of immunity are T Cells responsible for   T cells are responsible for Cellular-mediated immunity  
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what type of lymphocyte is responsible for adaptive (specific) immunity   the T lymphocytes are responsible for specific immunity  
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(T Cells/B Cells/ Natural Killer Cells) control the activities of other lymphocytes   T Cells control the activities of other Lymphocytes  
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