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Human Blood

A&P II - Human Blood

QuestionAnswer
what are the functions of blood (there are 4)? 1) transport nutrients, gases, and wastes, 2) regulates pH levels and temperature, 3) Restricts fluid loss, 4) Defends Body Against Toxins & Pathogens
blood is what kind of tissue blood is connective tissue
which is 5 times more viscous (blood/water) blood is 5 times more viscous than water
what are the components of blood fluid matrix (plasma), specific cells and formed elements
out of all the three main elements that make up the blood, which one makes up a majority of blood volume plasma makes up a majority of blood volume (55%)
name the three types of proteins in the blood that are part of fluid matrix albumins, globulins, fibrogen
where are the plasma proteins mostly produced the liver
out of the three plasma proteins (fibrinogen/albumin/globulin) is the most abundant albumin is the most abundant blood protien
what is the main plasma protein that contributes to osmolarity and osmotic pressure in capillaries albumin mostly contributes to osmolarity and osmotic pressure
what are the plasma proteins that become antibodies (Immunoglobulins, Ig) globulin proteins
where is all albumin made? albumin is made in the liver
why is fibrogen an important protein in blood plasma fibrogen is important in blood clotting during bleeds
what is fibrogen become during the clotting process fibrogen become fibrin during the clotting process
what leaves a serum during the clotting process fibrin leaves/excretes serum during the clotting process
during clotting, which protein removes Ca++ from the blood plasma fibrogen (after it becomes fibrin) removes Ca++ during the clotting process
plasma and serum (can be used interchangably/are different things) plasma and serum are different
what is the function of a plasma expander plasma expanders temporarily increases blood volume
what is an ideal time to use a plasma expander in situations when blood volume is low, such as a hemorrhage
where is fibrinogen synthesized? liver synthesizes the fibrinogen
how is blood protein affected when there are liver disorders if the liver is not functioning, plasma proteins like albumin and fibrinogen are not synthesized
if the liver does not synthesize plasma proteins like fibrinogen what can happen? there will be clotting disorders because necessary proteins like fibrinogen are not produces
if the liver does not synthesize plasma proteins like albumin what can happen? there will be problems with osmolarity and osmotic pressure, if the liver fails to produce enough albumin
what is hematopoesis the process in which formed elements (WBC's, RBC's, and platelets) are formed
platelets are (cell fragments/whole cells) platelets are cell fragements
what is the process called that synthesizes Red Blood Cells erythropoesis
what formed element in the blood contains hemoglobin red blood cells contain hemoglobin
what is the name of the protein/molecule that transports respiratory gases hemoglobin is the protein/molecule that transports respiratory gases
what is the most abundant formed element in blood red blood cells (erythrocytes) are the most abundant formed element in the blood
a combination of plasma and formed elements is called whole blood
the most abundant component of plasma is water
a hematocrit provides information on (PICK ONE: sedimentation rate/blood type/plasma composition/formed elements abundance/clotting factors) formed elements abundance
all the circulating red blood cells in an adult originates in the red bone marrow
red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone _____________________. erythropoietin
the average life span of a red blood cell is 4 months
if the bile ducts are blocked (PICK ONE: more hemolysis takes place/bilirubin appears in saliva/more WBC's are produced/more bilirubin appears in the plasma/more red blood cells are produced) more bilirubin appears in the plasma
the function of hemoglobin is to carry dissolved gases
each hemoglobin molecule contains (PICK ONE: a molecule of O2 and a molecule of CO2, four alpha chains, one alpha and one beta chain, four iron atoms, one heme group) four iron atoms
blood type is primarily identified by both ABO and R blood groups
the most numerous white blood cells in peripheral circulation are the neutrophils
the function of platelets is to assist in the processes called hemostasis
platelets are (PICK ONE: RBC's that lack a nucleus, blus cells that have a nucleus, tiny cells with a polynucleus, cytoplasmic fragments of large cells, large cells with a prominent concave nucleus) cytoplasmic fragments of large cells
which vitamin is needed for the formation of clotting factors vitamin K
each hemoglobin molecule is able to transport _________________ molecules of oxygen 4 (four)
a decrease in the oxygen-carrying ability of the blood, for any reason, is a condition known as anemia
if you carry the Rh antigen, your blood type is referred to as (Rh) ____________________ positive
what is another term for formed elements hematocrit
roughly, hematocrit makes up ______________% and plasma makes up ________________________% of blood volume hematocrit makes up 45% and plasma makes up 55% of blood volume
hematocrit includes (PICK ONE: Red Blood Cells, White Blood Cells, Platelets, All the above) all the above (RBC's, WBC's, Platelets)
what is hematopoesis the process in which formed elements are developed
what is the process that forms Red Blood cells erythropoeisis
which formed element contains hemoglobin molecules red blood cells
which molecule in blood has a sole function to transport respiratory gases hemoglobin transports respiratory gases
about how many RBC's are there in men (per microLiter) 4.5-6.3
about how many RBC's are there in women (per microLiter) 4.2-5.5
what is a blood draw the process of collecting blood for analysis
what vein is commonly used when drawing blood for analysis? (looking from the outside of the body, where is this vessel generally located) median cubital vein, the antecubital (anterior elbow) region of the body
the procedure of drawing blood from a vein is called venipuncture
give three reasons why veins are the ideal location for blood draw 1) they are more superficial than arteries, 2) walls are thinner than arteries, 3) pressure is relatively low in veins and and therefore making healing easier and faster
what are some alternative locations for blood draws if the antecubital region is unavailable finger prick, ear lobe (infants), feet, hand, scalp (infants), fore arm, anywhere
what is the purpose of an arterial puncture to test levels of blood gases, indicates lung function
you have been given a vile of blood that has already been placed in the centrifuge and you have been asked to identify the layers of blood in the vile. Name the layers from top to bottom and what elements they contain. 1) plasma (yellow hue) contains plasma proteins, electrolytes, and other dissolved elements, 2) buffy coat, includes white blood cells and platelets, 3) Red blood cells only
how is hematocrit measured after it has been placed in the centrifuge it is the red blood cell layer and the buffy coat layer
what does it mean if the buffy coat increases in size if the buffy coat increases in size, then this is a sign of either infection or leukemia
how does dehydration affect the blood hematocrit increases during dehydration and blood plasma decreases
how does an increase in erythropoietin affect the hematocrit increases in response to increased erythropoietin in the blood stream
with internal bleeding, what happens to formed element volume there is a decrease in hematocrit with internal bleeding
when there are problems with RBC formation, what happens to the volume of hematocrit formed element volume decreases when there are problems with RBC formation
what would you call a decrease in the number of reticulocytes diminished erythropoiesis
a hypo-mean corpuscular volume is microcytotic
what is polycythemia increased RBC/Hemoglobin/Hematocrit counts
what is reticulosis too much reticulocyte count
what is erythrocytosis too many red blood cells
what is hypochromic too little mean corpuscular hemaglobin
if a person is macrocytotic it means that they have too much mean corpuscular volume
if a person is hyperchromic it means that they have too much mean corpuscular hemoglobin
generally speaking, what is the average pH of blood between 7.35 and 7.45
what is the most specialized cell in the body the red blood cell
what is the name of the protein that gives red blood cells their shape and allows them to be flexible spectrin proteins give RBC's their shape and flexibility
what is the special shape that give RBC's their special features RBC's are in a biconcaved disc
what protein creates a mesh work on the plasma membrane of the RBC's allow them to move flexibly spectrin protein creates a mesh work in the plasma membrane
what are the three major advantages of the shape of red blood cells 1) increased surface area, 2) allows for stackability (specifically in smaller vessels), and 3) enables the cell to bend and flex
why is it important to have a large surface area in red blood cells allows for increased unit/volume exchange rate and allows for quick exchange of respiratory gases
what is rouleaux a stack of red blood cells
why is it important for RBC's to have the ability to stack in small vessels RBC's are stackable, allowing them to stack one top of the other without affecting the cells involved
during RBC development, it (keeps/looses) its organelles RBC's loose organelles during development
name two major organelles that are lost during RBC formation nucleus and mitochonria
why do RBC's have relatively short life spans RBC's are anucleic (without a nucleus) and do not possess the DNA to mend themselves
why is it important that an RBC does not have mitochondria mitochondria require oxygen to metabolize nutrients, the lack of mitochondria ensures that the RBC does not steal the O2 molecule from the hemoglobin
what kind of metabolism do RBC's have? why RBC obtain energy from anaerobic metabolism, so they do not steal O2 from Hemoglobin during transport AND because they do not have mitochondria
in the lungs (or other locations where the O2 concentration is high), what happens to the balance of the oxyhemoglobin chemical equation the balance of the oxyhemoglobin chemical equation tends to favor the right
what is the name of the molecule the that give hemoglobin its red color heme gives hemoglobin it's red color
what is the name of the protein that gives hemoglobin its shape globin is the protein that gives hemoglobin its shape
what are the names of the four chains that make up the hemoglobin structure there are two alpha chains and two beta chains
in hemoglobin, how many oxygen molecules fit on each chain hemoglobin fits one oxygen molecule per chain
the structure of hemoglobin is close to the structure of what other structure in the body myoglobin
what is the important atom that attracts and holds on to oxygen in hemoglobin iron (specifically Fe2+)
oxygen attaches to (Fe2+/Fe4+) oxygen is attracted to and attaches to Fe2+
what part of the hemoglobin molecule has iron included in the structure heme contains iron in hemoglobin
the interaction between Iron and Oxygen is very (strong/weak) the interaction between iron and oxygen is very WEAK
what is deoxyhemoglobin hemoglobin that is not attached to oxygen
in peripheral tissues (where oxygen is low) which way does the oxyhemoglobin chemical equation equilibrium favor the HbO2 equation favors the left in the peripheral tissues
how does fetal hemoglobin differ from adult hemoglobin fetal hemoglobin contains two alpha chains and two gamma chains, these make fetal Hb have a stronger bond with oxygen
(fetal/adult) hemoglobin forms stronger bonds with oxygen fetal hemoglobin has the stronger bond with O2
when does fetal hemoglobin become adult hemoglobin shortly after birth
what is carboxyhemoglobin hemoglobin that is attached to Carbon Monoxide
why is carbon monoxide so dangerous the affinity between Carbon monoxide and hemoglobin is stronger than HbO2. therefore CO attaches to Hb and does not ever let go
how is sickle cell anemia generally treated adults are usually given drugs that helps the body produce fetal hemoglobin
what is sickle cell anemia a disease where RBC's are misshapen and inflexible inhibiting the body's ability to deliver O2
when there is a high CO2 concentration, what happens to the equilibrium of the HbO2 chemical equation the HbO2 equation favors the left
what is the main problem with anemia anemia interferes with the delivery of oxygen to the peripheral tissues
what are some signs and symptoms of anemia weakness, lethargy, and confusion (if the brain is affected)
at the end of the RBC's life what happens to the memberane RBC plasma membrane ruptures at the end of life
what happens to an RBC after its membrane has ruptured phagocytic cells engulf the red blood cell
what is erythropoiesis the production of RBC's
what are the two main stimulants for erythropoiesis Decreased oxygen level (indirectly) and Erythropoietin (Directly)
in a fetus, when do red blood cells appear red blood cells appear during 3rd week of pregnancy
during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy, where does the formation of RBC's start yolk sac
after the first 8 weeks of pregnanc, RBC formation moves out to other organs in the fetus. what organs take over the RBC formation liver, spleen, thymus, and bone marrow
when do stem cells form for all formed elements in blood after the 1st 8 weeks of pregnancy
between 2-5 months of pregnancy, where is the primary location for erythropoiesis liver and spleen
in adults, where does erythropoiesis occure myeloid tissue of the red bone marrow
what is yellow bone marrow bone marrow that is full of fat
with prolonged blood loss, yellow marrow (can/cannot) turn into red marrow yellow marrow CAN transition to red marrow
what is the name of stem cells for red and white blood cells hemoblasts (or hematopoietic stem cells)
what are the two types of daughter cells that can be produced after hematopoietic stem cells divide myeloid stem cells and lymphoid stem cells
what types of blood cells are formed from myeloid stem cells RBC, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and monocytes
what types of blood cells are formed from lymphoid stem cells lymphocytes only
how many stages are in RBC production 6 (six)
immature RBC's that still have nucleus proerytheroblast
after an erythroblast looses its nucleus it becomes reticulocyte
how long do recticulocytes stay in the red bone marrow prior to release 2 days
when reticulocytes are released in to blood stream they (are/are not) fully mature RBC's reticulocytes ARE NOT mature RBC's when they release into blood stream
what happens in to the reticulocyte after it has been released from red bone marrow (three things happen) 1) synthesizes Hb, 2) synthesizes proteins, and 3) contains RNA
what happens when there are lots of reticulocytes and not enough RBC's anemia, something is destroying RBC's too fast
erythropoietin (is/is not) a banned substance for athletes EPO IS a banned substance
name two major medicinal/medical uses of EPO doping for athletes and treatment of kidney disease
what are the three situations in which kidneys release EPO 1) anemia, 2) decreased blood flow to kidneys, and 3) decreased oxygen content in respiratory gases
what is pernicious anemia an autoimmune disease where intrinsic factor is destroyed
why is intrinsic factor so important intrinsic factor absorbs Vitamin b-12 into blood stream from digestive system (IF+B-12 = B-12 absorption)
what organ releases intrinsic factor stomach
in pernicious anemia, Vitamin B-12 (is/is not) destroyed Vitamin B-12 IS NOT destroyed, intrinsic factor is destroyed
what are the two main effects of EPO stimulate cell division in erythroblasts and speeds up RBC maturation
what is the effect of long term dopping with EPO on athletes (or other healthy individuals) can put a strain on the heart of healthy individuals because of increased blood volume
anemia (can/cannot) result from prolonged blood loss (like heavy menses) anemia CAN result from prolonged blood loss
what are three major nutrients needed for RBC formation that cannot be made inside the body folic acid, iron, vitamin b-12
what is the source of vitamin b-12 dairy and meat
what is the effect of gastric reduction on RBC formation gastric reduction can hinder RBC production because the stomach does not produce as much intrinsic factor as is needed for vitamin b-12 uptake
what are the three things that hemoglobin is broken down to at RBC are separated into at the end of their life 1) heme, 2) iron, and 3) globulin
what part of hemoglobin eventually becomes bilirubin the heme molecule eventually becomes bilirubin
how is bilirubin usually excreted through the bile (from gall bladder)
during a liver problem what happens to bilirubin excess bilirubin is found in the blood plasma and gives skin and eye jaundice color
what is the name of the molecule that gives the skin it's yellow pigment color during jaundice bilirubin
what WBC assists with the hemoglobin recycling macrophages (monocytes that have left the blood stream)
where does hemoglobin recycling usually occur in the spleen
what is the substance from recycled hemoglobin that combines with the protein transferrin iron
what happens to the alpha and beta chains of the hemoglobin after a RBC dies they are broken down into their respective amino acids which are recycled by the body to form new proteins
what is hemoglobinuria abnormally large amounts of RBC's in urine
what is hematouria intact RBC's present in urine
when can hematouria occur when blood vessels in kidneys have been damaged
what does secondary polycythemia usually occur 1) after a person has moved up to the mountains, 2) after doping, 3) chronic smoking and their body has produced more RBC
why can polycythemia be potentially dangerous it can cause the heart to work harder, due to increased RBC production
what is polycythemia vera a type of cancer that produces too many RBC's
before becoming bilirubin, heme from recycled hemoglobin becomes _____________________ biliverdin
what protein does bilirubin combine with prior to being excreted in bile albumin
in the large intestines, bilirubin becomes what two proteins urobilinogens (urobilins when exposed to oxygen) and stercobilinogens (stercobilins when exposed to oxygen)
what happens to the urobiliogen in the large intestine it is reabsorbed by the body
how does the body get rid of urobilinogens urobilinogens are excreted through the urine
how does the body get rid of stercobilinogens leaves via stool
name the two iron-protein complexes in the blood ferritin and hemosiderin
generally speaking, anemia is more of a (symptom/disease) anemia is more of a symptom
a patient has walked into your office with visible pallor, dyspnea (shortness of breath) and fatigue. what is the possible cause anemia
what are three main causes for anemia 1) blood loss, 2) not enough RBC's, 3) not enough reticulocytes
what triggers an immune response in the body antigens
what are surface antigens antigens that are located in the plasma membrane of cells that identify your body cells as "self" or "normal."
any cell that does not contain ____________________ are labelled as "foreign" surface antigens
what type of antigen are used to help with blood typing surface antigens help with blood typing
what determines a person's specific blood type the presence (or absence) of different surface antigens
name the for ABO blood types A, B, O, and AB
In addition to water and proteins, what else is part of plasma electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes
the iron extracted from heme molecules during hemoglobin recycling is stored in the the protein-iron complexes called ____________________ and __________________ ferritin and hemosiderin
the process of hemostasis include five phases. what are the correct order of phases as they occur after injury? vascular, platelet, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction (fibrinolysis)
how is it that liver disorders can alter the composition and functional properties of the blood the liver is the primary source of plasma protiens
Hemoglobin molecules released into the bloodstream by breakdown of of RBC's by hemolysis will be excreted in the (kidneys/skin/ tears/small and large intestine) hemoglobin molecules are excreted via the kidneys
on average, 1 microliter of blood contains _____________________ erythrocytes 1 microliter of blood contains 5.2 millions erythrocytes
If. agglutinogen B meets with agglutinin anti-A, what is the results? no agglutination occurs
what is the precursor of all blood cells in the human body hemocytoblasts
reticulocytes are nucleated immature cells that develop into mature ______________ erythrocytes
In the first pregnancy of an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive child , why are there usually NO symptoms or erythroblastosis fetalis. blood between mother and child does not mix until birth
the number of eosinophils increase dramatically during _____________________________ an allergic reaction of a parasitic infection
Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into progenitor cells, which give rise to all white blood cells EXCEPT _______________________ lymphocytes
clot destruction involves a process that begins with _____________. activation of the proenzyme plasminogen, which indicates the production of plasmin
the major effect of vitamin K deficiency in the body is that it leads to _______________________ a breakdown of the common pathway, inactivating the clotting system
a change in the amino acid sequence of DNA coding for one of the globulin chains of the hemoglobin molecule results in a condition known as _________________________ sickle cell anemia
Jessica has just moved to Yellowstone Country, Montana from San Diego, California. What condition is she experiencing no that is stimulating the production of erythropoietin and, consequently more red blood cells hypoxia caused by an increase in her elevation above sea level
which white blood cell attacks and digests bacteria marked with its complement neutrophils
which white blood cell releases histamine and heparin, when stimulated basophil
which white blood cell attacks objects that are coated with antibodies eosinophils
what white blood cell is responsible for cell-mediated (or humoral) immunity lymphocytes
which white blood cell is the precursor to macrophages monocytes
which blood type has surface antigen A and anti-B antibodies Type A blood has surface antigen A and anti-B antibodies
which blood type has surface antigen B and anti-A antibodies Type B blood has surface antigen B and anit-A antibodies
which blood type has surface antigens A and B and no antibodies Type AB blood has surface antigens A and B and no antibodies
which blood type has no surface antigens and anti-A and anti-B andtibodies Type O blood has no surface antigens, anti-A and anti-B antibodies
which blood type has Rh surface antigen, and no antibodies Rh positive blood types have Rh surface antigens and no antibodies
correctly list the cells in the steps of erythropoisis in the correct order 1) hemocytoblast, 2) proerythroblast, 3) normoblast, 4) reticulocyte, 5) erythrocyte
which type of healthy human would typically have 4-5 liters of blood adult female would normally have 4-5 liters of blood
what is the plasma protein that plays an important role in protection against foreign proteins and pathogens immunoglobin
what is the plasma protein that functions in blood clotting fibrinogen
which of the following is NOT a function of albumin (transporting iron/maintaining osmotic pressure/transporting fatty acids/ transporting thyroid hormones) albumin does not transport iron
which blood cells are the most abundant (erythrocytes/neutrophils/platelets/monocytes) erythrocytes are the most abundant blood cells
reticulocytes account for about _____________ percent of the erythrocyte population in the blood reticulocytes account for about 1%
what is the range of normal hematocrit 37-54%
it is an illegal practice for Olympic competitors to receive doses of which hormone, which stimulates the production of red blood cells erythropoietin
Hemolytic disease of the newborn occurs when an Rh-____________ woman bears a second child with an Rh-_____________ man Rh-negative woman, with an Rh-positive man
which white blood cell is also known as a polymorph neutrophil is also known as a polymorph
During an infection, the white blood cell count may rise, a condition known as leukocytosis
bleeding along the digestive tract and within the skin is symptomatic of _____________________ thrombocytopenia
which disease stat would be characterized by a concentration of upto 1 million platelets per microLiter in the plasma thrombocytosis
syneresis refers to the process of ________________ clot retraction
what type of surface antigen does Type A have Type A blood has A surface antigen
what type of surface antigen does Type B have Type B blood has type B surface antigen
what type of surface antigen does Type AB have Type AB blood has type A and B surface antigens
what type of surface antigen does Type O have Type O blood has no surface antigen
what type of surface antigen does Rh positive have Type Rh positive blood has Rh surface antigen (Rh factor)
what type of surface antigen does the Rh negative have Rh negative blood does NOT have ANY Rh factor
what are agglutiongens agglutinogens are the surface antigens on Red Blood Cells
(agglutinogens/agglutinins) are ignored by the immune system and help identify red blood cells as "self" agglutinogens are ignored by the immune system and help identify read blood cells as "self"
what are agglutinins agglutinins are antibodies in blood plasma
what attacks antigens on "foreign" RBCs causing the blood to clot agglutinins (antibodies) attack antigens on "foreign" RBC's
what does it mean to agglutinate agglutination is the process of clotting blood
If you have Type A blood, what type of antibodies do you have type A blood has anti-B antibodies
if you have Type B blood, what type of antibodies do you have type B blood has anti-A antibodies
if you have Type O blood, what type of antibodies do you have type o blood has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
if you have type AB blood, what type of antibodies do you have type AB blood does not have any antibodies
what type of antibodies does Rh positive blood Rh positive blood have no Rh antibodies
what type of antibodies does Rh negative blood have Rh negative blood does not have any Rh antibodies unless they become exposed to Rh positive blood. then the body starts producing Rh antibodies
(red/white) blood cells have nuclei and other organells white bloods cells have nuclei and other organells
what cell type in the blood helps to defend against invaders white blood cells help defend against invaders
WBCs can be found in locations other than be blood stream, where can they be found? lymphatic system and connective tissue proper
what is diapedesis diapedesis is the ability that a WBC has to pass through the intact walls of the capillaries
what are 3 major functions of white blood cells 1) ability to migrate in and out of bloodstream, 2) all are capable of amoeboid movement, and 3) all are attracted to specific chemical stimuli
what is leukocytosis a greater than average/normal number of blood cells in the body
what is margination margination is the WBC's ability to contact and adhere to a vessel wall
what can cause a WBC to migrate out of a blood stream during activation, WBCs can migrate out of the bloodstream
what is another term for emigration diapedesis is another term for emigration
what is amobiod movement a gliding motion that is similar to the movement of an ameobiod
what is positive chemotaxis the attractions that white blood cells have to specific chemical stimuli
what formed element in the blood has positive chemotaxis properties white blood cells have positive chemotaxis properties
what helps guide white blood cells to invading pathogens, damaged tissue, and other active white blood cells positive chemotaxis attracts inactive WBCs to pathogens, damaged tissue, and other active WBCs
name the two groups of white blood cells the two groups of blood cells are granular blood cells (granulocytes) and agranular blood cells (agranulocytes)
what are the three types of granulocytes neutrophils, eosinophils , and basophils
what give the granulocyte group of white blood cells their name under a microscope, granulocytes have many granulations in the the cytoplasm
what group of white blood cells have lobed nuclei granulocytes have lobed nuclei
which white blood cell contains granulocytes in its cytoplasm, has a nucleus with 4 to 5 lobes, and appears colorless under a microscope neutrophils are granulocytes with nuclei that have multiple lobes
name all the types of agranulocytes in blood monocytes and lymphocytes
what group of white blood cells are classified by having little to no granules in its cytoplasm agranulocytes have little to no granules in the cytoplasm
which white blood cells, contribute to nonspecific defenses neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes
which white blood cells are also called microphages neutrophils and eosinophils
macrophages are _____________________ that have moved out of the blood stream and are actively phagocytic monocytes that have moved out of the blood stream
which white blood cells are part of specific defenses lymphocytes (B and T cells) are part of specifi
which white blood cells will mount a counterattack against specific pathogens and foreign proteins lymphocytes
which white blood cell makes up 70% of the bodies WBC population neutrophils
which WBC is the first to arrive and mount a counterattack against bacterial marked with antibodies neutrophils are the first to arrive and attack
what chemicals doe neutrophils release that increase capillary permeability and help contribute to inflammation neutrophils release prostaglandins and leukotrienes that help with capillary permeability ant contribute to inflammations
what chemical released by neutrophils helps attract phagocytes and coordinate immune response leukotrienes help attract phagocytes and coordinated immune response
about how long is the lifespan of a neutrophil 10 hours (30 minutes when engulfing pathogens)
how much bacteria does the neutrophil engulf prior to its death (when active) 12 - 24 bacteria
what is included in pus dead neutrophils, cellular debris, and other wastes
what is a three letter word for a substance that includes cellular debris, wastes, and dead WBC's pus
which white blood cells have bilobed nucleus, attack objects that are covered with antibodies eosinophils have bilobed nucleus and attack object that are covered in antibodies
what is the primary mode of attack for eosinophils eosinophils uses exocytosis of toxic compounds as their mode of attack
eosinophils are especially effective against what type of invaders eosinophils are especially effective against multicellular organisms (like parasites-fluke worms and roundworms)
which type of white blood cell is sensitive to circulating allergens eosinophils are sensitive to circulating allergens
at an injury site, which white blood cell releases enzymes that reduce inflammation and helps control the spread of inflammation to adjacent tissues eosinophils help reduce inflammation and control the spread of inflammation to adjacent tissues
the rarest white blood cell found in the body is _________________ basophil are the rarest white blood cells
____________________________ migrate to an injury site by crossing the capillary endothelium basophils migrate to an injury site
which white blood cell discharges granules containing histamine and heparin into interstitial fluids basophils release heparin and histamine into interstitial fluids
what is the function of histamine histamine dilates blood vessels
what is the function of heparin heparin helps prevent clotting
basophils release chemicals into the interstitial fluid that help with ___________________ and ___________________ basophils help with dilation of blood vessels and help prevent blood clotting
the chemicals released by basophils attract which other white blood cells basophils help attract eosinophils and other basophils
what white blood cell spends a relatively short life in circulation then migrates to the peripheral tissue where it becomes a macrophage monocytes have a short life in circulation and become macrophages in peripheral tissue
which white blood cell has the capability to engulf foreign objects that are larger than themselves monocytes/macrophages can engulf pathogens that are larger than themselves
activated monocytes release chemical that attract and stimulate what other cells monocyte chemicals activate and attract neutrophils, other monocytes, other phagocytic cells, and fibroblasts
what is the function of fibroblasts fibroblasts begin producing scar tissue and begin to wall of the injured area
most lymphocytes are located in ___________________________ than in the blood stream most lymphocytes are located in CONNECTIVE TISSUE and LYMPHATIC SYSTEM than in the blood stream
name the three types of lymphocytes 1) T cells (T Lymphocytes), 2) B Cells (B Lymphocytes), 3) Natural Killer Cells
what type of immunity are T Cells responsible for T cells are responsible for Cellular-mediated immunity
what type of lymphocyte is responsible for adaptive (specific) immunity the T lymphocytes are responsible for specific immunity
(T Cells/B Cells/ Natural Killer Cells) control the activities of other lymphocytes T Cells control the activities of other Lymphocytes
Created by: kandriot