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EPQ Dash 1 Ch 1

Finished

QuestionAnswer
An operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in personal injury or loss of life is a _______. (Dash 1, iii) Warning
An operating procedure, technique, etc., which could result in damage to equipment is a _________. (Dash 1, iii) Caution
An operating procedure, technique, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize is a _________. (Dash 1, iii) Note
The T-6A basic empty weight is approximately _______ lbs. (Dash 1, 1-5) 4900
Maximum takeoff gross weight is _______ lbs. (Dash1, 1-5) 6500
The PT6A-68 free turbine turboprop engine is a reverse flow design with air entering the engine from the front. False – enters in the rear of the engine.
The PT6A-68 engine contains ____________. (Dash 1, 1-5) A gas generator section A power turbine section
The PT6A-68 engine has been flat rated to produce _________shaft horsepower. (Dash 1, 1-5) 1100
100% torque is available from sea level to approximately __________ on a standard day. (Dash 1, A2-1) 16000 ft MSL (12000-16000)
At 100% indicated torque, the engine is producing approximately ________ of torque at the prop shaft. (Dash 1, 1-18) 2900 ft-lbs
The oil system has an oil capacity of _______ U.S. quarts. (Dash 1, 1-5 18.5
If the main oil filter becomes clogged, the engine will overheat and seize due to absence of lubrication. (Dash 1, 1-7) False – there is a filter bypass valve that allows unfiltered oil to continue to lubricate the engine.
The red OIL PX annunciator illuminates if the oil pressure _____________. (Dash 1, 1-7) Falls below 40 psi with PCL above IDLE Falls below 15 psi with PCL at IDLE
Momentarily placing the starter switch in the AUTO/RESET position ________. (Dash 1, 1-18. Engages the starter and energizes the spark ignition system
With the ignition switch set to NORM, the PMU will energize and de-energize the igniters as required. (Dash 1, 1-21) True
The reduction gearbox reduces the power turbine output shaft speed from ________ to ________ RPM. (Dash 1, 1-16) 30000, 2000
The gas generator section shaft drives the reduction gearbox. (Dash 1, 1-16) False
The CHIP annunciator indicates ___________. (Dash 1, 1-16) Metal contamination in oil
The PCL (Power Control Lever) _________. (Dash 1, 1-21) interconnected with a push-pull rod, connected to FMU front cockpit, friction control in front cockpit, speed brake, rudder trim, UHF/VHF radio, and intercommunication system switches
The engine may be shutdown by lifting the PCL over the cutoff stop. False
When talking about the T-6A propeller, which of the following are true? (Dash 1, 1-16) Aluminum, 97 inch Four bladed Constant speed, Variable pitch
What device automatically controls the propeller blade angle (pitch) and propeller speed (Np)? (Dash 1, 1-18) Power management unit (PMU) Propeller interface unit (PIU)
When feathered, the propeller blades are aligned nearly straight into the wind, thereby minimizing drag. (Dash 1, 1-18) True
If oil pressure is lost, the propeller will automatically freeze in its present pitch position. (Dash 1, 1-18) False – it will automatically move to the feathered position due to the feathering spring and counterweights.
With the PMU functioning, the mechanical overspeed governor limits the Np to at or below _______ at approximately 2120 RPM. (Dash 1, 1-18) 106%
With the PMU offline, the mechanical overspeed governor limits the Np to at or below _______ at approximately 2000 RPM. (Dash 1, 1-18) 1002%
The engine data manager (EDM) _____________. (Dash 1, 1-22) Monitors enging paramters and illuminates appropriate annunciators, Drives PEDD, AEDD, ESND, Aids in fuel balancing and quantity indications
With an EDM FAIL message all indications are correct except those replaced with amber dashes and/or missing pointers are invalid. (Dash 1, 1-22) False
The PMU limits the flight idle N1 to ________ and the ground idle N1 to _________. (Dash 1, 1-24) 67,60
The PMU ground and flight modes are controlled by a ________. (Dash 1, 1-24) Weight on wheels switch on the main gear struts
The autostart feature will not automatically terminate the ground start sequence upon detection of a malfunction such as a hung or hot start. (Dash 1, 1-24) False
Which indications will you receive with the PMU OFF. (Dash 1, 1-26) PMU FAIL PMU STATUS
If the PMU STATUS light illuminates 1 minute after landing _________. (Dash 1, 1-26) There is a fault that is not serious enough to have reverted the system to the manual mode of operation during flight.
How many times may the PMU be reset? (Dash 1, 1-) Once, if fails again set to off and continue flight in manual mode
The PMU is powered by ___________. (Dash 1, 1-24) A dedicated permanent magnet alternator (PMA)
To begin an automatic start, the PCL must be positioned at the ________ position. (Dash 1, 1- St Ready
During an auto start, at approximately ______ N1, the starter and igniters are de-energized and the boost pump is deactivated. (Dash 1, 1-25) 50%
During the start sequence, the PCL may be advanced to IDLE any time N1 is _________. (Dash 1, 1-25) At or above 60%
After the PCL is advanced past the start ready position, how can the start be terminated? (Dash 1, 1-25) The PMU will automatically terminate the start for hung or hot starts. The PCL must be placed in the OFF position. The STARTER switch must be placed to AUTO/RESET
After the PCL is advanced past the IDLE gate, how can the start be terminated? (Dash 1, 1-25 The PCL must be placed in the OFF position.
After a start is automatically or manually aborted and fuel has been introduced, the engine must be manually motored for _________ to clear any residual fuel from the engine. (Dash 1, 1-26) 20 sec
When shutting the engine down, the PCL must be fully in the OFF position to preclude _______. (Dash 1, 1-19) Fuel from entering the engine and causing a possible over temperature Engine damage
The sensor tubes in the overheat and fire detection system contain ________. (Dash 1, 1-27) Helium Hydrogen
To discriminate between fire or overheat, ___________. (Dash 1, 1-19) Retard the PCL. If the warning ceases, suspect an overheat
Flattening, twisting, kinking or denting of the fire detection loop will affect test or flight operation of the system. False
When the emergency firewall shutoff handle is pulled _________ is shutoff. (Dash 1, 1-27) Fuel flow Hydraulic fluid Bleed air
The emergency firewall shutoff handle can only be reset by maintenance personnel. (Dash 1, 1-27) False
The T-6A fuel system provides ______ of usable fuel through the single point refueling system. (Dash 1, 1- Approx 1100 lbs
The wing tanks and central collector tank each hold ________ lbs of fuel respectively. (Dash 1, 1-29) 530, 40
Inverted flight is made possible by __________. (Dash 1, 1-30) A flip-flop valve located in the collector tank
Single point pressure refueling fills the collector tank then the low wing before the high wing. (Dash 1, 1-21) False
When parking on ramps with greater than ______ slope, the fuel system may vent fuel overboard through the pressure relief valve on the _______ wing. (Dash 1, 1-29) 1%, Low
The _________ direct/s fuel from each wing tank to the collector tank, keeping the collector tank pressurized. (Dash 1, 1-30) transfer jet pumps
The _________ provides a minimum 15 second supply of fuel regardless of orientation, and prevents air ingestion into the fuel system. (Dash 1, 1-30) Flip-flop valve
The _________ feeds fuel to the main fuel line. (Dash 1, 1-28 figure 1-20) Primary jet pump
The _________ routes fuel to the engine-driven high-pressure fuel pump and the FMU. (Dash 1, 1-30) Engine driven low pressure fuel pump
The _________ allows the high-pressure pump to purge to the collector tank. (Dash 1, 1- Purge line
Should the FUEL PX annunciator illuminate and the boost pump activate during inverted flight, you should _____. (Dash 1, 1-30) Cease inverted maneuvers and notify maintenance after flight
The auto balance system __________. (Dash 1, 1-28) Maintains the fuel load in each tank within 20 lbs of the each other Activates the transfer valve to close the motive flow line to the light tank Illuminates the amber FUEL BAL annunciator should the imbalance exceed 30 lbs for more than 2 min
When manually balancing the fuel system, the fuel system will automatically reset the auto balance system once the fuel load has been balanced to within approximately 20 lbs. (Dash 1, 1-23) False
The auto balance system ________ reset to provide an additional two minutes for the automatic system to balance fuel load. (Dash 1, 1-29) May be
Should the outer fuel probe fail, the affected tank will show a fuel level drop to the best indication for the next inboard (middle) fuel probe ( __________ ) and remain there until enough fuel is used to drop below the failed fuel probe. (Dash 1, 1-30) 445  50 lbs
Should the middle fuel probe fail, the affected tank will show a normal fuel level until the fuel level drops below the outer fuel probe. The fuel will then drop to the best indication for the next inboard (inner) fuel probe ( __________ ) and remain the 308  50 lbs
Should the inner fuel probe fail, the affected tank will show a normal fuel level until the fuel level drops below the middle fuel probe. Fuel level will then drop to the best indication for the collector tank, which is divided evenly between sides ( ___ approximately 20 lbs per side
Should the collector tank fuel probe fail, the fuel level in both wing tanks will each drop __________. (Dash ½ the gaged level (approximately 20 lbs per side)
________ provides fuel for initial engine start and serves as a backup to the engine-driven low-pressure fuel pump. (Dash 1, 1-30) Electric boost pump
The electric boost pump is activated anytime the pressure in the motive flow line drops below ______ psi and the PCL is above the start ready position. 10
Should the electric boost pump and the engine-driven low pressure pump fail, _________ will suction feed sufficient fuel for continued engine operation. (Dash 1, 1-30) the engine-drive high-pressure fuel pump
Should the engine-driven high pressure fuel pump fail, along with the electric boost pump and engine-driven low pressure pump, the engine will receive enough fuel to continue to run from motive flow suction. (Dash 1, 1-24) False
Once the emergency firewall shutoff handle is pulled the engine will continue to run for approximately _______. (Dash 1, 1-24) 5-10 sec
The amber L/R FUEL LO annunciator indicates fuel quantity below approximately _________ in the respective wing tank. (Dash 1, 1-29) 110 lbs
The amber FUEL BAL annunciator illuminates any time a indicated fuel imbalance exceeds ______ between the wing tanks for _______, or a fuel probe fails. (Dash 1, 1-30) 30 lbs, 2 min
The electrical system uses a __________ as the primary power source. (Dash 1, 1-30) 28VDC, 300 amp starter/generator
The _________ allows isolation of the battery and generator buses. (Dash 1, 1-34.2) Bus Tie switch
The 28V generator _________. (Dash 1, 1-34.2) Is the primary power source Is regulated by a generator control unit Is sufficient to operate all equipment on the generator bus and battery bus Has sufficient power to charge the 24V battery
The generator switches are _______ held and ________ interlocked, to allow the generator to be controlled from either cockpit. (Dash 1, 1-34.2) Mechanically, electrically
If a red GEN annunciator is illuminated _________. (Dash 1, 1-34.2) The starter/generator has malfunctioned The air conditioning is automatically shed
The electrical system uses a __________ as the secondary power source. (Dash 1, 1-34.2 24VDC, lead acid, 42 amp-hr battery
If the generator has failed and the bus tie is open, only items on the ______ buss/es will be powered. (Dash 1, 1-34.2) Battery
The battery switches are _______ held and ________ interlocked, to allow the generator to be controlled from either cockpit. (Dash 1, 1-34.2) Mechanically, electrically
In an emergency situation, the auxiliary battery will power the standby instruments, UHF transceiver and backup UHF control, standby instrument lighting, and FIRE 1 fire warning system for approximately. __________. (Dash 1, 1-34.2) 30
Setting the bus tie switch to ______ is the only action required to lower electrical load enough for the main battery to last at least 30 minutes if the generator fails in flight. (Dash 1, 1-34.2/3) Open
Engine bleed air is utilized for canopy pressurization seal, anti-G system, defogging and cockpit heating, pressurization, and the OBOGS. (Dash 1, 1-68.5) True
The hydraulic system is pressurized to ______ psi. (Dash 1, 1-35 3000 + 120
The hydraulic system has a total hydraulic fluid capacity of ________. (Dash 1, 1-34. 5 qrts
The hydraulic system is used to operate all of the following, except. (Dash 1, 1-35) Flaps Speed Brake Nose wheel steering Canopy Landing gear main gear doors
During emergency operation, the hydraulic system will allow a one-time extension of the landing gear only. (Dash 1, 1-37) False
The ________ is used to pressurize the hydraulic system and emergency accumulator to 3000 psi. (Dash 1, 1-35) Hydraulic pump
Once the hydraulic system is pressurized to ________ psi the system can be used to power the hydraulic components. (Dash 1, 1-35) 1800
The _________ prevents damage from high system pressures. (Dash 1, 1-34.3) pressure relief valve
EHYD PX LO annunciator indicates that ________. (Dash 1, 1-35) the pressure in the emergency accumulator has dropped below 2400150
HYDR FL LO annunciator indicates that ________. (Dash 1, 1-35) the fluid level in the hydraulic reservoir has dropped below approximately 1quart.
The _________ allows approximately 20-30 cubic inches of hydraulic fluid to pass until the pressure on the main side and the emergency side is approximately equal. (Dash 1, 1-35) hydraulic fuse
The _________ prevents backflow from the emergency system to the main system, allowing the gear and flaps to be lowered using the emergency system. (Dash 1, 1-35) one way check valve
A __________ is used to lock the main gear in the down position. (Dash 1, Internal lock
A __________ is used to lock the nose gear in the down position. (Dash 1, 1 Spring-strut
gear handle must be down in order to lower the gear with the emergency extension. (Dash 1, 1-31) False
When the emergency gear extension is activated, the main gear inner doors will remain open. (Dash 1, 1-31) True
Normal cockpit indications when the emergency extension system is used are ___________. (Dash 1, 1-31) 3 green, 2 red (doors), 1 red (handle)
The gear may be retracted after being extended with the emergency system. False
A red light in each gear handle illuminates to indicate ____________. (Dash 1, 1-32) The gear doors are not closed The PCL is approaching IDLE with the gear handle UP.
The red lens in the gear indication is illuminated when ___________. (Dash 1, 1-32) The gear or gear doors (mains only) are in transit. The PCL is approaching IDLE and the gear handle is UP, regardless of airspeed.
The gear horn is sound when ___________ (Dash 1, 1-32) The Gear is UP (3 red) and power is below 87% N1 with the airspeed below 120 KIAS and the flaps at any position. The Gear is UP (no lights) with flaps in the LDG position at any power setting. Weight on wheels (3 green) with the gear handle UP.
The gear UP/flaps LDG and the gear UP/ aircraft on the ground warnings may be cancelled by pressing the silence switch. False
The nose wheel is a free castoring type with ______ degrees of castor. (Dash 1, 1-32) 160
If the aircraft hydraulics are reading zero, brake failure will also be expected. (Dash 1, 1-33) False
The pilot applying the most pedal force determines the amount of braking being used. True
Apply the parking brake by _________. (Dash 1, 1-33) Applying toe brakes while simultaneously pulling and turning the parking brake lever 90 degrees clockwise.
The front cockpit should confirm the flaps position with the rear cockpit since the flaps cannot be visually verified from the front cockpit. (Dash 1, 1-33) False
To operate the emergency extension of the flaps, ___________. (Dash 1, 1-33) Pull the emergency landing gear extension handle The gear must be down.
Once extended, the speed brake remains extended until ____________. (Dash 1, 1-34) either switch is moved forward to retract the flaps are extended the PCL is moved to MAX
T-6 primary controls include _______________. (Dash 1, 1-34) Ailerons Elevator Rudder
Actuating the trim disconnect switch will ____________. (Dash 1, 1-34) Remove power from the trim system and cause the trim aid device to disengage
The TAD automatically sets takeoff trim in the yaw axis after engine start False
Once takeoff trim is set, the TAD will not make any further trim inputs until the aircraft accelerates to at least ______. (Dash 1, 1-39) 80; no WOW
The TAD is designed to completely trim the aircraft in yaw and allow the pilot to fly “Feet off”. (Dash 1, 1-39) False
The gust lock locks ____________. (Dash 1, 1-39) the ailerons and rudder in the neutral position, elevator in a nose down position
The primary pitot system probe is located ________. (Dash 1, 1-39) Near the right wingtip
Static ports are protected from icing by electrical heating elements. (Dash 1, 1-39) False
The air data computer (ADC) receives ________ information and develops airspeed, altitude, and climb rate parameters. (Dash 1, 1-41) Piot/static
Mach information is blanked below _______ . (Dash 1, 1-41) .40 mach
The standby attitude indicator provides accurate pitch and roll indications within _____ degrees for a period of _____ min after all electrical power is lost. (Dash 1, 1-42) 6, 9
The stand-by attitude indicator should be uncaged and adjusted after applying power and caged and locked after removing power. (Dash 1, 1-43) False
The standby magnetic compass is accurate during _____________. (Dash 1, 1-43) level, unaccelerated flight
PROBES ANTI-ICE controls icing for _________. (Dash 1, 1-44) AOA vein Pitot tubes
________ units indicates a stall on the AOA gage. (Dash 1, 1-45) 18 (red arc)
________ units indicates max range on the AOA gage. (Dash 1, 1-45) 4.9 (white triangle)
________ units indicates max endurance on the AOA gage. (Dash 1, 1-45 8.8 (white diamond)
For AOA approaches/landings, optimum approach airspeed is ________. (Dash 1, 1-46) 95 knots minus approximately one knot for every 100 lbs of fuel used 100 knots minus approximately one knot for every 100 lbs of fuel used
When testing the AOA gage in the LOW position, you should see _____________. (Dash 1, 1-46) The amber donut No red chevron in either cockpit indexer AOA gage reads 10.5  0.25 Both A and C
When testing the AOA gage in the HIGH position, you should see _____________. (Dash 1, 1-46) The green chevron in both cockpit indexers No amber donut in either cockpit indexer AOA gage reads 18.0  0.25 Activation of the stick shaker
Max endurance AOA yields ___________. (Dash 1, 1-47) the greatest amount of flying time per pound of fuel remaining
The stick shaker activates approximately ________ knots prior to the stall. (Dash 1, 1-47) 5-10
Failure to secure the cowling latches prior to takeoff may allow the cowling to open in flight, causing damage to the aircraft or loss of control. (Dash 1, 1-48) true
The entire T-6 canopy is thick enough to protect against birdstrikes. (Dash 1, 1-48) False
Should the canopy latch mechanism and microswitches indicate the canopy is not closed and locked, which red annunciator will illuminate? (Dash 1, 1-48) Canopy
The pressure seal is pneumatically inflated using _____________ from the anti-G system. (Dash 1, 1-48) Cooled engine bleed air
The canopy is held in the open position by ________. (Dash 1, 1-48) a canopy lock
When properly locked, care should be taken with the canopy handle since it may be rotated aft without raising the unlock lever. (Dash 1, 1-50) False
The canopy fracturing system uses __________ to fracture the front transparency and ___________ to fracture the rear transparency. (Dash 1, 1-50) flexible linear shaped charge, mild detonating cord
Activation of either internal CFS handle activates which canopy fracturing system? (Dash 1, 1-50) The transparency over the respective cockpit.
Activation of either external CFS handle activates which canopy fracturing system? (Dash 1, 1-50) Both transparencies
During rear seat ejection, which of the following are true? (Dash 1, 1-50) The rear seat ejects prior to the first seat should the ISS be in BOTH Only the rear transparency detonates
In the event of canopy fracture system failure, each seat is fitted with a _______ to fracture the transparency. (Dash 1-50) canopy breaker
Which of the following is true regarding the activation of the CFS by ground personnel. (Dash 1, 1-52) The handle lanyard must be pulled to the full extent of its 10 foot length Personnel should face away from the canopy when activating the CFS.
Operation of the CFS system disable the firing of either ejection seat. (Dash 1, 1-52) False
The Martin-Baker ejection seat is capable of providing safe escape from _________. (Dash 1, 1-52) Zero airspeed  35000 ft  370 KIAS
Prior to pulling the ejection handle the emergency oxygen must be pulled to provide oxygen for the pilot. (Dash 1, 1-52) False
A _________ is used to stabilize and reduce the forward speed of the ejection seat. (Dash 1, 1-52) drogue parachute
The interseat sequencing selector located in the aft cockpit must be in ______ to allow both seats to eject once one ejection handle is pulled. (Dash 1, 1-52) BOTH
For high altitude ejections, seat-man separation and parachute deployment are delayed until ________. (Dash 1, 1-52) 14,000 - 16,000 MSL
The _____________ initiates seat-pilot separation if the automatic system fails, or if seat-pilot separation is desired above 15000 ft MSL. (Dash 1, 1-53) manual override handle (MOR)
The _________ are designed to prevent leg injuries due to flailing during ejections. (Dash 1, 1- leg restraint system
Leg garters should be attached __________. (Dash 1, 1-53) just above the boots
The emergency oxygen system supplies the pilot with oxygen for approximately _______ minutes. (Dash 1, 1-53) 10
In order to shut off the emergency oxygen system__________. (Dash 1, 1-53) It cannot be shut off once activated
Regardless of which seat initiates the ejection, the rear seat ejects first and the front seat will follow ______ seconds after, with the ISS in BOTH. (Dash 1, 1-56) 0.37
Prior to pilot entry and egress from the aircraft, ensure the ISS is in the ______ position. (Dash 1, 1-56) SOLO
Firing of one seat while the ISS selector is set to SOLO prevents the other seat from firing. (Dash 1, 1-56) False
With the ISS selector set to BOTH, only the seats with the ejection handle safety pin removed will eject. (Dash 1, 1-56) False
When connecting the leg garters, buckles should be _______, and D-rings _______. (Dash 1, 1-57) to the inside, aft
Failure to route the lap belt over the SSK lines may result in _________. (Dash 1, 1-57) entanglement with the SSK lines
With the SSK (seat survival kit) in AUTO, the SSK is lowered automatically ______ seconds after seat-pilot separation. (Dash 1, 1-57) 4
The anti-G system utilizes _________ to supply pressure for the anti-G suit. (Dash 1, 1-57) conditioned engine bleed air
A ___________ cools engine bleed air so that the bleed air is provided to the suit at a comfortable temperature. (Dash 1, 1-59) heat exchanger
___________ is used to provide cockpit heating and pressurization. (Dash 1, 1-59) Conditioned engine bleed air
___________ is used to provide cockpit cooling. (Dash 1, 1-59) A vapor cycle system
If bleed air temperature in the environmental system duct exceeds _______ at any time, the DUCT TEMP annunciator will illuminate. (Dash 1, 1-61) 300F
A pressure altitude switch prevents bleed air inflow anytime the air conditioner clutch is engaged below ________. 7500 ft MSL
Cockpit pressure altitude at 31000 ft is _______ ft. (Dash 1, 1-61) 16600
An 8000 ft cockpit altitude is maintained until a differential pressure of _________ is reached at 18069 ft. (Dash 1, 1-61) 3.6 +/- 0.2 psi
The CKPT ALT annunciator illuminates when ______________. (Dash 1, 1-62) The cockpit altitude rises above 19000 ft
A red CKPT PX annunciator illuminates when ______________. (Dash 1, 1-62) the cockpit pressure differential exceeds 3.9-4.0 PSI
The selection of DEFOG will not affect ITT. (Dash 1, 1-62) False
For optimum engine life, the PCL should be retarded with the defog on to maintain ITT at or below ______. (Dash 1, 1-62) 740C
Both cockpits have a complete environmental control panel. (Dash 1, 1-62) False
Selecting ___________, opens the control valve and allows bleed air inflow to continue. (Dash 1, 1-63) DUMP
Selecting ___________, opens the control valve and the fresh air valve, and allows bleed air inflow to continue. (Dash 1, 1-61,63) RAM DUMP
Max cooling is achieved by selecting ________________. (Dash 1, 1-63) RAM AIR – OFF BLEED AIR INFLOW – OFF
There are _______ antennas mounted on the aircraft for navigation and communications. (Dash 1, 1-66) 10
With the interphone control set to HOT, pressing the ICS KEY/MUTE switch ___________.(Dash 1, 1-68) Mutes all external incoming audio
To transmit on UHF, press the toggle ______. (Dash 1, 1-69 Up
To transmit on VHF, press the toggle ______. (Dash 1, 1-69 Down
The only way to transmit and receive on UHF GUARD is to manually dial in GUARD (243.0 MHz) or use a preset with GUARD saved. (Dash 1, 1-69) FALSE
The only way to transmit and receive on VHF GUARD is to manually dial in GUARD (121.5 MHz) or use a preset with GUARD saved. (Dash 1, 1-70) TRUE
When the transponder is set to STBY, _________________. (Dash 1, 1-70) the transponder code may be selected, but the transponder will not respond to ground or airborne interrogations.
When the transponder is set to ALT, _________________. (Dash 1, 1-70) the transponder will respond to interrogations with the selected code and altitude info.
When the transponder is set to ON, _________________. (Dash 1, 1-70) the transponder will transmit the selected code when interrogated, but will not provide altitude reporting info.
Each RMU provide remote tuning and mode selection for ___________. (Dash 1, 1-71) UHF comm VHF comm Transponder VOR nav/DME
With UHF comm in BOTH, the receiver monitors ___________. (Dash 1, 1-73) the guard receiver the main receiver
Pressing and holding the transponder field select key(Left rectangle) for three seconds automatically inputs ______. (Dash 1, 1-73) 1200 (0477)
The UHF backup control unit is ON, the word ________ is displayed in the UHF box on the RMU. (Dash 1, 1-74) REMOTE
The emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits an audible tone on _________. (Dash 1, 1-76) 243.0 MHz 121.5 MHz
Which of the following navigation displays are options on the EHSI? (Dash 1, 1-87) VOR GPS None (Blank) Both A and B All of the Above
DME hold function can only be used when the primary navigation source is selected w/groundspeed and time to go displayed. (Dash 1, 1-90) True
Which button manually selects the NACWS display for seven seconds? (Dash 1, 1-91 Trigger
The database information is accurate only after the aircraft is accepted from the factory. (Dash 1, 1-97) False
The NACWS traffic advisory is which type of symbol? (Dash 1, 1-91) Yellow traffic symbol that is filled and flashing. Yellow upward/downward pointing triangle
When NACWS is unable to triangulate traffic position due to being out of range of a ground station, what is shown on the NACWS display? (Dash 1, 1-93) A table representation of the traffic
The GPS can store up to _______ flight plans. (Dash 1, 1-107) 25
The GPS can store up to _______ waypoints in each flight plan. (Dash 1, 1-107) 30
The active flight plan is always displayed as ________. (Dash 1, 1-107) FPL 0
The GPS always displays distance to the active waypoint. During GPS approaches, this distance will always be the same as the published DME distance on the instrument approach procedure. (Dash 1, 1-110) FALSE
As aircraft gets to within ________ NM of an airport with a loaded approach, the GPS automatically switches to approach arm and the CDI changes to ______ NM over a 30 second transition period. (Dash 1, 1-111) 30, +/- 1
As aircraft gets to within ________ NM of the FAF with a loaded approach, the GPS automatically switches to approach active and the CDI changes to ______ NM. (Dash 1, 1-112) 2, +/- 0.3
As the aircraft gets to the missed approach point, the GPS automatically switches the CDI scale to ______ NM. (Dash 1, 1-112) +/- 1
The front unit must be on and functioning properly for either unit to be used for navigation. The last input from either cockpit has priority for system control. (Dash 1, 1-94) True
Indications of an active GPS Approach are ____________. (Dash 1, 1-111) EHSI turns Green APP ACT appears in lower right corner of EHSI
The ___________ is the only interior light which is not dimmable. (Dash 1, 1-115) Digital Clock
Both the landing and taxi lights will only illuminate once all three gear are down and locked. (Dash 1, 1-116) TRUE
The landing gear control handle and gear lights are illuminated in both cockpits when the lamp test switch is activated. (Dash 1, 1-116) False
If the auxiliary battery test switch light does not illuminated when tested, _________. (Dash 1, 1-116) The auxiliary battery is less than 50% capacity.
You should not press the master caution or master warning switchlights to clear a malfunction since that will clear the illuminated annunciators on the annunciator panel. (Dash 1, 1-118) False
The OBOGS (On-Board Oxygen Generating System) is only usable for 30 days, then must be recharged. (Dash 1, 1-119) False
If an OBOGS failure occurs, the pilot must drop his or her mask to receive oxygen or pull the emergency oxygen handle. (Dash 1, 1-119) False
The OBOGS will continue to work, even after engine failure, as long as there is power supplied to the battery bus. (Dash 1, 1-119) False
The OBOGS BIT (Built in Test) lasts __________. (Dash 1, 1-119) 3 Min
The OBOGS TEMP annunciator illuminates when the ducting exceeds ___________. (Dash 1, 1-119) 200F
Both OBOGS supply levers must be ON to operate the OBOGS. (Dash 1, 1-121) False
The highest possible oxygen concentration is _____________. (Dash 1, 1-121) 95%
The baggage compartment is limited to _________ lbs. (Dash 1, 1-121) 80 lbs
External ground power must provide _____________. (Dash 1, 1-121) 28-28.5 VDC, 1000-1500 Amps
Main gear tire pressure is ___________. (Dash 1, 1-121) 225 +/- 5 psi
Nose wheel tire pressure is ___________. (Dash 1, 1-121) 120 +/- 5 psi
Do what to the aircraft if winds are expected above 80 knots. (Dash 1, 1-122) Move the aircraft to a hangar.
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