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Vol #3 - 2A551

100 Q & A

1. (401) It is important to raise the air temperature in a jet engine to a. increase its energy
2. (401) In a jet engine, the velocity of the air is decreased by the a. diffuser.
3. (401) An aircraft taxiing at a constant speed is an example of b. Newton’s First Law of Motion.
4. (401) Foot-pounds and inch-pounds are units of measure for a. work.
5. (401) The resistance of an object to change its motion is a property of matter called b. inertia.
6. (401) The ability to do work is the definition of a. energy.
7. (402) In a jet engine, fuel is metered for combustion by the c. fuel control.
8. (402) The average percentage of a jet engine’s energy required to maintain engine operation is b. 60.
9. (402) What effect does the divergent design of a jet engine diffuser have on pressure? a. Increases pressure.
10. (402) The required velocity for air and gases flowing through a jet engine is d. greater velocity exiting than entering.
11. (402) The velocity of the stream of air that flows through a jet engine reaches its highest point at The d. ejector nozzle.
12. (402) When two or more turbine wheels are used in a jet engine, what is placed directly in front of each turbine wheel? d. Nozzle diaphragm.
13. (403) A jet engine derives its name from the fact that d. it uses a exhaust-gas-driven turbine wheel to drive its compressor.
14. (403) The three major sections of all jet engines are compressor, combustion, and b. turbine.
15. (403) The condition that rapidly reduces the efficiency of a centrifugal jet engine compressor would be c. pressure pulsations.
16. (403) The type of engine that is cheaper to manufacture is the d. centrifugal because of fewer parts.
17. (404) The percentage of combustion efficiency of a gas turbine is usually between d. 95 and 100.
18. (404) The term “combustion range” is defined as a jet engine’s d. operating temperature zone.
19. (404) The most chemically correct ratio for burning fuel in a combustion chamber is c. 15:1.
20. (404) The inner and outer surfaces of an annular-type combustion chamber are formed by a. interlocking stainless steel bands.
21. (404) The most common type of fuel nozzle system is the a. pressure-atomizing.
22. (404) Swirl-type fuel nozzles are usually used to provide what type of flame speed? b. High.
23. (405) The three design types of turbines used in jet engines are c. impulse, reaction, and reaction-impulse.
24. (405) On some jet engines, the turbine bucket is secured in place by d. lock strips.
25. (406) The purpose of the exhaust duct is to d. straighten exhaust gas-flow.
26. (406) When trimming the exhaust gas temperature (EGT) of some jet engines, the nozzle area is changed by a. mice.
27. (406) One common type of variable-area orifice used on augmenters is the c. segmented flap.
28. (406) The augmenter component that creates local turbulence and reduces gas velocity is the b. flameholder.
29. (407) The Hamilton Standard 54H60–91 propeller is a c. four-bladed, reversible-pitch propeller; 13.5 feet in diameter.
30. (407) A method of de-icing a propeller is to use c. electrically heated elements.
31. (408) The type of fuel control that uses items such as thermocouples, relays, amplifiers, and solenoids, to help control the engine is d. electrohydromechanical.
32. (408) Pressurization of the engine fuel system is controlled by the d. pressurizing and dump (P&D) valve.
33. (408) During a visual inspection, how can you tell when a fuel filter is clogged? c. A differential pressure indicator is actuated.
34. (409) Classified as to structure, which of the following is not a type of an oil pump? c. Rotogear.
35. (409) Structurally, the most common type of oil pump in use is the d. gear.
36. (409) The valve that permits jet engine oil flow in only one direction is the b. check.
37. (409) The oil cooler that operates on the same principle as an automotive radiator is the a. air-oil.
38. (409) The purpose of an oil-temperature control valve used with air-oil coolers is to d. direct oil around or through cooler.
39. (409) To create a static seal between two stationary parts in the oil system, use c. a gasket.
40. (410) The air turbine (impingement) starter used on jet engines c. has the advantages of less weight and fewer moving parts than other starters.
41. (410) The unit of a jet engine alternating current (AC) ignition system that develops 20,000 volts, delivered to the igniter plugs, is the d. transformer.
42. (410) A simple direct current (DC) ignition system consists of d. vibrator, igniter plugs, and transformer.
43. (410) An advantage of the high-energy capacitor type jet engine ignition system is it d. makes starting possible when the igniter plugs are fouled.
44. (411) Aircraft engine indicating instruments must c. be light in weight, small in size, and easy to read.
45. (411) Exhaust gas temperature (EGT) indicators indicate the engine EGT in d. degrees Celcius.
46. (412) The three benefits of the Joint Oil Analysis Program (JOAP) are improved safety, reduced maintenance cost, and c. increased equipment availability.
47. (412) You should not use mouth-suction to take jet engine oil samples because a. this could cause paralysis or death.
48. (412) The most common contamination found in lubricant systems is a. dirt and sand.
49. (413) A well-designed aircraft fuel system will ensure d. positive and reliable fuel-flow under all conditions.
50. (413) The three types of shutoff valves used in the crossfeed fuel system are the c. sliding gate, rotary plug, and disc.
51. (413) The basic purpose of the fuel vent system is to d. prevent the rupture or collapse of the fuel tanks.
52. (413) The fuel subsystem designed to minimize fuel boiling is d. pressurization.
53. (414) The minimum distance an aircraft should be parked from a hangar prior to a defueling operation is a. 50 feet.
54. (414) The air-refueling (AR) receptacle is operated a. hydraulically, but controlled electrically.
55. (415) The output pressure and the flow ratings of a centrifugal-type fuel pump are greater than the system needs in order to b. provide an ample supply of fuel in case of a single pump failure
56. (415) The kind of centrifugal pump is used when a fuel supply is required during periods of negative gravity conditions is c. a dual-impeller.
57. (415) What characteristic distinguishes the ejector-type fuel pump from other types of fuel pumps? c. Contains no moving parts.
58. (416) The arrow stamped on the body of a fuel system check valve indicates the a. direction of free flow.
59. (416) One disadvantage of a sliding gate fuel system valve is that it c. cannot withstand extreme pressures.
60. (416) The fuel system component used to prevent excessive pressure from building up in trapped lines is the d. spring-loaded relief valve.
61. (416) Another name for the disc type valve in a fuel system is a. butterfly.
62. (416) A primary function of the low-level shutoff valve is to control the flow of fuel d. being transferred out of a pressurized tank.
63. (416) The action used by the low-level shutoff valve to prevent the reverse flow of fuel through the valve is c. check valve.
64. (416) Malfunctions of a fuel system vent float valve can be caused by d. rough handling of the valve during installation.
65. (417) In a direct current (DC), liquid-level fuel indicating system, the wiper contact is positioned on the resistance strip by b. the movement of a float in the tanks.
66. (418) The primary purpose of the air pressure regulator in a fuel system is to d. control the amount of pressure entering the fuel tank.
67. (418) Fuel system disconnect couplings are used c. to interrupt the flow of fuel or air and prevent the loss of fluid.
68. (419) All of the following aircraft systems use engine bleed air (EBA) except d. fire extinguishing.
69. (419) Aircraft engine temperature and pressure as it applies to the bleed air system is determined by the d. engine throttle setting and ambient temperature
70. (419) Engine bleed air (EBA) check valves are installed to a. prevent the loss of compressed bleed air.
71. (420) When installing air-conditioning ducting, the tool used to ensure alignment and sealing is the c. rawhide mallet.
72. (420) When a compressible flange duct end becomes distorted, the corrective action that should be taken is to d. reshape the duct flange end to its original shape.
73. (420) Fiberglass fabric duct installations are prevented from swelling when the aircraft climbs to high altitudes by d. vent holes.
74. (420) A depression in the duct wall, wherein the surface of the material isn’t cut or removed but the depression has caused sharp bends or creases in the material, is the definition of a c. major dent.
75. (421) The air-conditioning in a cargo aircraft uses a diverter valve to divert air to d. flight station and cargo compartments.
76. (421) If the temperature of the bleed air from a cargo-type air conditioning system’s primary heat exchanger exceeds 540°F, the high limit section of the temperature anticipator will d. close the bleed air regulating and shutoff valve.
77. (421) Bleed air system water separators remove 70 to 85 percent of the moisture that accumulates in the conditioned air. This is a result of a. rapid expansion.
78. (422) The action of the outflow valve in a fixed-isobaric, single-differential pressurization system is controlled by d. regulating control chamber pressure.
79. (422) The purpose of the pneumatic relay in a cabin pressurization system is to c. ensure both outflow valves operate at the same time.
80. (422) The manual control valve in the variable isobaric pressurization system is used as an alternate when the d. cabin pressure controller fails.
81. (423) Frequently used in fire warning systems, the fire detector that has a high-nickel steel rod located along the centerline of a stainless steel tube assembly is called a. an Iron Fireman switch.
82. (423) The maximum circuit resistance within a thermocouple circuit is a. 5 ohms.
83. (423) The direct current (DC) voltage supplied to the lights in a photoelectric circuit is pulsed at a rate of a. 10 Hz.
84. (424) A liquid fire extinguishing agent douses a fire by c. removing oxygen from the area.
85. (424) A principal disadvantage of liquid fire extinguishing agents is they c. are poisonous or highly toxic.
86. (424) A steady red light on the fire emergency control handle in a liquid-agent fire extinguishing d. a fire.
87. (424) When the pressure in a T-handle liquid fire extinguisher container becomes too low, d. a light on the cockpit panel will glow.
88. (424) At no time shall fire extinguishing residue, such as that resulting from the use of CB type or foam type fire extinguishing materials, be allowed to remain on the equipment for a period exceeding b. 4 hours.
89. (425) Oxygen is described as being a. tasteless, colorless, and odorless.
90. (425) At altitudes between 10,000 and 15,000 feet, the greatest danger from hypoxia is d. an error in judgment.
91. (425) The disadvantage of a continuous-flow oxygen regulator is it a. wastes oxygen.
92. (425) You are operationally checking a pressure-demand oxygen regulator. When you blow into the mask with the diluter toggle set at 100% OXYGEN, you should get d. positive resistance.
93. (425) An H–2 emergency assembly (bailout bottle) supplies oxygen to the user for a maximum of about b. 10 minutes.
94. (425) In a molecular sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS), water droplets from the air are removed by a(n) d. MSOGS concentrator inlet filter.
95. (425) What does the molecular sieve oxygen generating system (MSOGS) concentrator supply to the OXYGEN regulator control panel? c. 93 percent oxygen-enriched gas.
96. (426) Liquid oxygen (LOX) converts to gaseous oxygen (GOX) at an expansion ratio of d. 860 to 1.
97. (426) The safety feature that protects liquid oxygen (LOX) containers from excessive pressure caused by leaks in the inner container is the b. blowout disc.
98. (427) A liquid coolant system (LCS) keeps electronic components cool by a. cycling coolant through the electronic component.
99. (427) The characteristic of the fluid used in a liquid coolant system (LCS) that makes it suitable as d. nonconductance.
100. (427) Air trapped in a liquid coolant system (LCS) d. reduces the cooling capability of the coolant.
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