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| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| In Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), which two components are the responsibility of the organization (cloud consumer)? | data operating system |
| OPEX | Costs incurred by a company on an ongoing basis such as subscriptions, utilities, and staff salaries |
| Economies of scale | Cost advantages achieved when increasing the scale of operations, resulting in lower per-unit costs. |
| TCO | The overall cost of owning and operating an asset over its full lifecycle, including both direct and indirect costs. |
| CAPEX | Upfront investment in acquiring and upgrading buildings, servers, equipment, etc. |
| A developer is using cloud services to create and test a new application. What type of cloud service is this? | PaaS |
| A company runs most of its applications on its private data center but temporarily sends extra workloads to a public cloud during periods of high demand. What concept does this scenario BEST illustrate? | Cloud bursting |
| Which of the following correctly characterizes the private cloud deployment model. Choose two. | Private cloud services are dedicated for the use of a single organization. A private cloud deployment offers higher degree of security and privacy as compared to a public cloud. |
| refers to a condition in which an organization finds itself relying on proprietary technology that restricts future migration to alternative solutions without significant costs. | Vendor lock-in |
| Amazon’s Elastic Cloud Computing (EC2) is a service for providing virtual servers over the internet. What is this an example of? | IaaS |
| A company is adopting a SaaS cloud solution. Which capabilities will it most likely lose in the process? | The ability to perform fine-grained customizations of the software. |
| A company wants to improve the performance of its web application. Which type of scaling involves adding more servers to distribute the workload, rather than upgrading the resources of a single server? | Horizontal |
| A startup experiences a sudden surge in user traffic after their app goes viral. The company quickly develops, tests, and deploys new features in response to changing business needs. What term best describes this scenario? | Agility |
| An ____________ lays out agreed-upon service levels and responsibilities of the cloud provider. | SLA |
| Which of the following characteristics is true of the SaaS model? Choose two. | SaaS applications are multitenanted. SaaS applications can be accessed from any location or device. |
| Elasticity | A global e-commerce site sees a traffic spike during Black Friday. Its cloud resources increase to meet demand and scale back down afterward. |
| Measured Service | A company receives a detailed monthly bill showing CPU hours, storage used, and data transfer, allowing it to track costs per department. |
| Broad Network Access | Employees can access a cloud-hosted application securely from laptops, tablets, or smartphones, regardless of location. |
| A company subscribes to a SaaS email service. Which responsibility is primarily the customer’s? | Managing email data |
| Mary, a financial analyst is describing the benefits of cloud computing to her colleagues. Which of the following might she state? (Choose two.) | faster time to market low barrier to entry for businesses |
| What type of applications make a good fit for migration to the public cloud? Choose two. | software development and testing collaboration and productivity applications |
| A company is evaluating cloud deployment options based on its size, budget, and business needs: Which deployment model is BEST suited for each type of company? | Startup → Public Cloud; SMB → Hybrid Cloud; Enterprise → Private Cloud |
| A company replaces its in-house HR system with Workday and its email system with Office 365. Which migration strategy does this represent? | Repurchasing |
| An organization transforms its monolithic application into a microservices-based, serverless architecture to improve scalability, agility, and performance. Which migration strategy is this? | Rebuilding |
| A company is evaluating potential cloud service providers. A company wants to ensure that its cloud provider can handle critical operations without unexpected downtime. Which factor is MOST important? | The provider’s years in business and track record of uptime |
| Which of the following statements about Service Level Agreements (SLAs) in cloud computing is true? | SLAs ensure availability of key resources and may include compensation mechanisms if service levels are not met. |
| Which term is associated with the ability of an organization to store data based on performance, cost, and availability? | Tiered storage |
| Which type of storage would be appropriate for data archival? | Magnetic tapes |
| What type of storage replication technology will wait for all replicas to confirm data writes before notifying the application? | Synchronous |
| Which data tier would you recommend to store corporate or business emails? | Tier 2 |
| What type of network storage is accessible using standard file sharing protocols such as NFS? | NAS |
| Which statement regarding HDDs is false? | They are a great choice if I/O speed is more important than storage space. |
| In a RAID implementation, the process of duplicating every disk is called ______________. | Mirroring |
| Which of the following are requirements for adequate application performance when using synchronous replication? Choose two. | High-speed links Low latency |
| Which statement about RAID is NOT true? | RAID Level 0 provides excellent redundancy. |
| File storage | great for simple file sharing |
| Block storage | ideal for performance-hungry transactional database applications |
| Object storage | storage solution with the ability to handle metadata-rich large-scale anaytics |
| What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID1? | two |
| Which statement regarding object storage is true? | Objects are stored and retrieved based on their unique identifiers. |
| Which statements correctly highlight the differences between Storage Area Network (SAN) and Network Attached Storage (NAS) solutions? 1. SAN provides higher performance than NAS but is generally more expensive. | 1,2 |
| Which of the following RAID levels guarantees double disk failure protection? | Raid 6 |
| Which of the following connects a server to the SAN fabric? | Host bus adapter |
| Which of the following AWS service is an example of object storage? | Amazon S3 |
| What is true about non-relational databases? | They are characterized by flexibility in schema. |
| The acronym ACID is very commonly used with databases. Which of the ACID property is described by the following statement? An incredibly high number of database transactions can occur simultaneously without affecting one another. | Isolation |
| Which of the ACID property is described by the following statement? If a part of a transaction does not work like it is supposed to, the entire transaction must roll back to its previous state. | Atomicity |
| ______________is an example of Amazon’s cloud-native database that is compatible with MySQL and offers superior performance comparable to commercial databases. | Aurora |
| Identify the correct statements. Choose two. | Using managed databases reduces administrative burden as many responsibilities such as installations, upgrades, backups are managed by the CSP. Running an Oracle database over Amazon EC2 is an example of unmanaged (or self-managed) database. |
| Can you help decide on the RAID level to use? We are a media house and we use lot of graphics/video applications . We need large throughputs for videos to get played without any jitter and since we are in publishing business we can’t afford downtime. | Raid 10 |
| What is true about server virtualization? | allows the underlying physical hardware to be shared between the virtual machines |
| VMware Player is an example of a ___________ hypervisor. | Type 2 |
| What is true about the Type 2 Hypervisor? | runs on a host operating system to provide virtualization services |
| Which component controls how traffic flows between VMs and the host computer and between the VMs and other network devices in the organization? | Virtual switch |
| Which of the following are considered benefits of server virtualization? Choose three. | Faster provisioning of compute resources Lower energy costs Higher server utilization rates |
| What is a safe overcommitment ratio for vCPUs? | 3:1 |
| is an Intel proprietary technology that creates two logical cores for every physical core. | Hyperthreading |
| Which memory management feature de-allocates unused RAM from multiple virtual machines and presents it to the hypervisor for other virtual machines that need it? | Ballooning |
| Before updating a Linux virtual machine, you need to ensure that you can roll back quickly if the updates cause problems. What should you do? | Take a virtual machine snapshot |
| A cloud database VM uses four separate disk volumes. Each volume needs to be fully allocated at the start. What should you configure? | Thick provisioning |
| The ability to allocate more virtual memory than what physically exists on a host server is called _______________. | Memory overcommit |
| Which of the following virtualization types best describes containers? | OS virtualization |
| Identify characteristics of containers. Choose three. | can be launched within seconds all containers deployed on a host share the host OS kernel offer consistent performance in different environments |
| What is the advantage of a microservices-based architecture? | The decoupling between the services allows updates to be made to a given service without affecting the others. |
| Your colleague would like to know more about what serverless computing is. What would you say? Choose all that apply. | You pay for compute capacity only when your code is triggered and executed. The administrative task of provisioning and managing servers is offloaded to the service provider. |
| Which AWS service is an example of serverless computing? | AWS Lambda |
| Point out the correct statement. | Overcommittment is commonly performed to improve application density. |
| You have been tasked with deploying hundreds of VMs quickly and efficiently with the same configuration. What process will you use? | Virtual machine cloning |
| What memory management technique causes performance degradation from slow access to data? | Swapping to disk |
| You are invited to join an IT meeting where merits and pitfalls of cloud computing are being debated. Your manager conveys her concerns of data confidentiality for cloud storage. What can be done? | Encrypt the data |
| Which key is used to validate a digital signature? | Public key |
| Which service is used in front of a cloud application to prevent web application attacks such as SQL injection? | WAF |
| Which device would be used to identify potentially malicious activity on a network? | IDS or IPS |
| You are the administrator of a Windows network. When creating a new user account, you specify a security clearance level of ‘top secret’ so that user can access classified files. What type of access control method is being used? | Mandatory Access Control |
| Sean configures a web application to allow the team of content managers to upload files to the website. What type of access control model is Sean using? | RBAC |
| The Chief Compliance Officer at your organization has mandated that a Defense-in-Depth security approach be used for all cloud systems. Which of the following would satisfy the requirement? | Configuring firewalls with IDS/IPS capabilities and applying security group configurations |
| Which type of test simulates a network attack? | Penetration testing |
| Which of the following phases are not a part of vulnerability scanning and unique to penetration testing? Choose all that apply. | Exploitation Attack planning and simulation |
| Which of the following uses hashing? | Data integrity |
| Your company has adopted several public SaaS services. Users complain that after logging in to their on-premise desktops they are prompted for credentials for every SaaS service that they use. Which solution will address this? | Single sign-on |
| You would like user authentication to occur against your on-premises identity store. Users will then be authorized to use on-premise as well as cloud-based services. What configuration is this? | Identity federation |
| You are creating a two-tier architecture comprising of a web tier and a database tier within your Amazon VPC. Where will you deploy the database servers? | private subnet |
| Your company has deployed six Windows EC2 instances in AWS cloud. As the administrator, you would like to remotely access the VMs from your on-premise machine using the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). What should you configure to allow that traffic? | Security groups |
| You are creating ACL entries to provide access to a resource within a small network setup. What type of access control model is this? | Discretionary access control |
| You are encrypting an e-mail addressed to your colleague Roman. Which key will be used to encrypt? | public |
| but wants to adopt the public cloud for its benefits. You are contemplating extending your on-site setup into the AWS cloud by using a VPN tunnel. What protocol will allow secure transmission of applications and data between the two environments? | IPSec |
| You and your colleague are having a discussion on the shared security responsibility model. What will you agree with? | When using AWS, the security responsibilities of a cloud consumer will be higher for the EC2 service than for Amazon S3. |
| What process creates randomly generated placeholders for protecting sensitive information? | Tokenization |
| organi recently had a disaster and was switched to an alternate facility. The original data center has now been restored and the administrator needs to migrate the organization back to the primary data center. What process is the administrator performing? | failback |
| Your business sets the maximum amount of data that can be lost in a disaster scenario as "two days" worth. What term describes this? | Recovery Point Objective |
| Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when defining recovery point objective (RPO)? | Acceptable data loss |
| Which of the following backup technique is most space efficient? | Incremental backup |
| You are designing a disaster recovery plan that includes a multisite configuration. The alternate site must include all necessary hardware and current backups of the original site. What type of site do you need to design? | hot site |
| Your organization needs systems to be back up in 12 hours or less after an outage occurs. To which term does this scenario best apply? | RTO |
| Paul had a server crash on Thursday morning. He performed a backup where he used complete backup from Sunday and several other tapes from Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday. What method was used? | incremental restore |
| Which is a separate facility that does not have any computer equipment but is a place where the knowledge workers can move after the disaster? | Cold site |
| Which statement regarding the RPO is correct? | Different types of data could require different RPOs. |
| A hot site should be implemented as a recovery strategy when the: | recovery time objective (RTO) is low |
| To address an organization's disaster recovery requirements, backup intervals should not exceed the: | recovery point objective (RPO) |
| You are configuring cloud backup settings. Only data modified since the last backup must be captured. What type of backup should you configure? | Incremental |
| Identify the term that applies to the statement below: Maximum duration of time within which the restoration process must be completed in order to avoid unacceptable consequences. | RTO |
| Which of the following statements is true? Choose two. | Cloud is an example of online and offsite backup. Data recovery from tapes is slow and can take hours to complete. |
| What is the most important criteria for a hot site? | replication |
| What is true about high availability? | In a cloud environment, applications can be designed for HA by replicating them across multiple availability zones. Redundant resources and components can eliminate single points of failure and improve availability. |
| What are the typical RTO and RPO values for "important" applications and services within an organization? | RT0 = 4 hours; RPO = 2 hours |
| You want to monitor resource utilization of your virtual machines to predict future needs and detect anomalies. What must your first have? | Baseline |
| Which of the following is NOT a metric that would be measured to confirm it meets the baseline? | CPU frequency |
| Which type of test measures the amount of time between requests and responses? | latency |
| You are troubleshooting performance problems on a development virtual machine and you notice a high number of page faults. Which solution will improve performance? | Add more RAM |
| Which of the following is a scripting language? | PowerShell |
| Identify the difference between automation and orchestration. | Automation refers to running a single task without any user intervention. Orchestration refers to a workflow that automates a series of tasks. |
| Which AWS service is an example of Infrastructure as Code (IaC)? | AWS CloudFormation |
| Which feature of AWS CloudFormation allows users to preview how proposed changes to a stack may impact running resources? | Change sets |
| What two open-source formats do AWS CloudFormation templates support? | YAML JSON |
| What is the advantage of using automation? | Manual and repeatable tasks can be performed efficiently and consistently. |
| The "Waterfall" approach in SDLC uses well-defined phases. Put the following in their correct order. | 1 Requirements Gathering 2 Design 3 Implementation 4 Testing 5 Deployment 6 Maintenance |
| Identify drawback/s of the Waterfall model in SDLC. Choose all that apply. | Allows no room for unexpected changes or revisions The waterfall model requires every phase to be 100% complete before transitioning to the next phase. An unexpected roadblock will prolong delivery of the end product. |
| What is true about the modern “Agile” approach in the software development lifecycle? Choose two. | Integrates end-user feedback at every stage to create a quality end-product Relies on an iterative approach |
| What is Continuous Integration in a CI/CD pipeline? | A practice where code changes are committed to a common repository several times a day to trigger an automatic build-and-test sequence. |
| Load testing Spike testing | Load testing measures the performance of an application as load is linearly increased Spike testing evaluates the performance of an application when workload is increased quickly and repeatedly |
| Stress Testing Soak Testing | Stress testing used to determine the breaking point for an application and if and how it can recover from failure Soak testing tests the ability of an application to handle normal workloads over an extended period of time |
| Volume Testing | Volume testing tests the ability of an application to handle and process huge amount of data |
| Identify the type of deployment where a new version of the software is tested out on a small percentage of user population and if successful, rolled out linearly in increments. | Canary deployment |
| What type of deployment is characterized by minimal downtime? | Blue/Green deployment |
| Fully managed continuous integration service that compiles source code, runs tests, and produces software packages that are ready to deploy. | AWS CodeBuild |
| Enables developers and administrators to provision, configure, and manage infrastructure using templates | AWS CloudFormation |
| A container management service for Docker containers that enables you to build and deploy a microservices architecture. | Amazon Elastic Container Service |
| A service that monitors infrastructure performance in near real-time. | Amazon CloudWatch |
| Which statement about AWS Pricing is incorrect? | All inbound data transfers are charged. |
| When you invest in Reserved Capacity like Amazon EC2 or Amazon RDS, what three pricing options are available? | AURI PURI NURI |
| Which pricing option offers you the opportunity to try various AWS services for free as long as you keep within specified thresholds of usage? | AWS Free Tier |
| Which of the following AWS services are offered at no charge? Choose three. | Identity Access and Management (IAM) Elastic Beanstalk Amazon VPC |
| Which AWS tool can you use to estimate your monthly costs for deploying resources on AWS? | AWS Pricing Calculator |
| What minimal level of support gives you access to a Technical Account Manager (TAM)? | Enterprise |
| Who can act as a dedicated voice for you within AWS and serve as your technical point of contact and advocate? | TAM |
| Which AWS support plans offer FULL Trusted Advisor benefits? Choose two. | Business Enterprise |
| Which AWS support personnel can address all non-technical billing and account level inquiries? | AWS Support Concierge |
| BASIC | no case support |
| DEVELOPER | business hour support via email |
| BUSINESS | for customers running production workloads on AWS |
| ENTERPRISE | 15-minute response time for critical business system failure |
| Your finance team would like to be alerted when the cost of using a new AWS test/dev account is about to reach the approved budget for an upcoming project. Which AWS tool can you use to help you achieve this need? | AWS Budgets |
| What are the different severity levels associated with support services? Choose all that apply. | Urgent Low Critical Normal High |
| Which tool will enable you to view your AWS costs associated with the EC2 service from four months ago? | Cost Explorer |
| Your organization has multiple AWS Accounts for different purposes. Each Account has its own set of services and incurs charges. Which AWS service can you use to take advantage of volume discounts by clubbing your Accounts together? | Consolidated Billing |
| What are characteristics of Business support plan? Choose three. | Access to full Trusted Advisor benefits 24/7 access via email, chat and phone Unlimited contacts may open a case |
| Which of the following is NOT part of the AWS pricing philosophy? | Pay more when you use less |
| Which statements are true about AWS Free Tier? Choose two. | After the free usage term expires or if your application use exceeds usage limits, you simply pay standard, pay-as-you-go service rates. Sign-up for AWS Free Tier is available to new customers only. |
| What are the different methods of accessing AWS services? Choose two. | Software Development Kits (SDKs) AWS Command Line Interface |
| Which component of the AWS global infrastructure does Amazon CloudFront use for low-latency delivery? | AWS edge locations |
| What is true about Availability Zones? Choose two. | AZs within a region are interconnected using high-speed private links Each availability zone is designed as an independent failure zone. |
| What are some of the important considerations for choosing an AWS Region for deploying your applications? Choose two. | To meet regional compliance and data residency requirements Availability of services within the region |
| What service category does CloudFront fall under? | Networking and Content Delivery |
| Elasticity | Ability to grow when required and reduce in size when resources are no longer needed |
| Fault Tolerance | Ability of a system to be self-healing and return to full capacity despite failures |
| High Availability | Ability of a to remain continuously operational for a desirably long length of time |
| True or False. Resources in one AWS region are automatically replicated to other regions. | False |
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