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week 7-13
physiology
Question | Answer |
---|---|
If the threshold potential is surpassed, the full peak of the action potential is always reached. | True |
A neurologist is using a voltmeter to measure potential. The membrane potential of a neuron was recorded at +30 mV. This is what type of membrane potential? | Action |
A membrane that exhibits a membrane potential is said to be | polarized. |
The action potential seems to “leap” from node to node along a myelinated fiber. This type of impulse regeneration is called __________ conduction. | saltatory |
An ion channel that opens in response to a sensory stimulus is a(n) | stimulus-gated channel. |
Neurons are the only living cells that maintain a difference in the concentration of ions across their membranes. | False |
The difference between sodium and potassium in the generation of action potential is that: | sodium causes depolarization of the cell membrane, and potassium causes repolarization of the cell membrane. |
The speed of a nerve impulse depends on the neuron’s resting potential. | False |
The mechanisms that produce and maintain the resting membrane potential do so by producing a | slight excess of positive ions on the outer surface of the plasma membrane. |
The sodium-potassium pump actively pumps three potassium ions out of the neuron and two sodium ions into the neuron. | False |
Whether an impulse is continued through the neuron depends on the magnitude of the voltage in the axon hillock. | True |
The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a membrane is called the membrane potential. | True |
What mechanism quickly terminates the action of a neurotransmitter once it binds to its postsynaptic receptor? | Neurotransmitter molecules are transported into nearby glial cells. Neurotransmitter molecules are transported back into synaptic knobs Neurotransmitter molecules are metabolized into inactive compounds |
Which membrane receptor acts to directly change ion permeability when stimulated? | Gated-channel receptor |
When a neuron is resting, the inner surface of its plasma membrane is slightly positive compared with its outer surface. | False |
In depolarization the membrane potential moves toward zero, whereas in hyperpolarization the membrane potential moves away from zero. | True |
The tiny bulge at the end of a terminal branch of a presynaptic neuron’s axon is called a(n) | synaptic knob. |
Which chemicals allow neurons to communicate with one another? | neurotransmitters |
In a myelinated fiber, the action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next. | True |
When neurotransmitters from synaptic knobs stimulate a postsynaptic neuron in rapid succession, their effect can add up over a brief period to produce an action potential. This is called | temporal summation. |
The magnitude of the action potential peaks when the sodium channels close. | True |
A synapse can occur only between an axon and: | a cell body. a dendrite. another axon. |
The active transport mechanism in the plasma membrane that transports sodium and potassium ions in opposite directions and at different rates is the | sodium-potassium pump. |
The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is called the __________ period. | refractory |
In a myelinated neuron, the impulse can travel under the myelin between nodes of Ranvier. | True |
If the magnitude of the local depolarization surpasses a limit called the _____, voltage-gated Na+ channels are stimulated to open | threshold potential |
There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse. | chemical |
Movement of the membrane potential away from zero (below the usual RMP) is called | hyperpolarization. |
A term commonly used as a synonym for action potential is | nerve impulse. |
The membrane potential maintained by a nonconducting neuron’s plasma membrane is called the _____ membrane potential. | resting |
The neurotransmitter(s) that inhibit(s) the conduction of pain impulses is(are): | enkephalins. |
Severe depression can be caused by a deficit in certain brain synapses of: | amines. |
Which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? | The sodium pump has moved Na+ to the outside of the plasma membrane. |
Excitatory neurotransmitters are most likely to: | initiate an action potential. |
initiate an action potential. | They are all inhibitory neurotransmitters. |
A synapse consists of: | a synaptic knob. a synaptic cleft. the plasma membrane of a postsynaptic neuron. |
Which neuron could transmit a nerve impulse the fastest? | A large-diameter neuron with myelin |
The only ion(s) that can diffuse across a neuron’s membrane when the neuron is at rest is (are): | potassium. |
When an impulse reaches a synapse: | chemical transmitters are released. |
There are two types of synapses—the electrical synapse and the __________ synapse | chemical |
The first event to occur when an adequate stimulus is applied to a neuron is | some of the sodium channels at the point of stimulation open. |
The fastest nerve fibers in the body can conduct impulses up to approximately _____ meters per second. | 130 |
Compared with the outside of the neuron, the inside has a(n) ____ charge. | negative |
Which is true of an action potential? | The outside of the plasma membrane is negatively charged, and the inside is positively charged. |
Which of the following is not one of the main chemical classes of neurotransmitters? | Triglycerides |
Dopamine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine are classified as: | catecholamines. |
Serotonin is an example of a(n): | amine neurotransmitter. |
Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to: | receptors on the postsynaptic neuron. |
The brief period during which a local area of an axon's membrane resists re-stimulation is called the __________ period. | refractor |
Another name for the parasympathetic nervous system is the nervous system. | craniosacral |
The two main types of adrenergic receptors are | alpha and beta. |
A reflex consists of either a muscle contraction or a | glandular secretion. |
Which of the following is NOT an example of sympathetic stimulation? | constriction of the bronchioles |
The cortex is capable of storing and retrieving information from both short-term and long-term | memory. |
Both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are tonically active, which means they | continually conduct impulses to autonomic effectors. |
Many cerebral functions have typical locations. This fact is known as | cerebral localization. |
Acetylcholine binds to _____ receptors. | cholinergic |
The second largest part of the brain, located just below the posterior portion of the cerebrum, is the | cerebellum. |
The _____ nerve transmits impulses that result in sensations of equilibrium. | vestibular |
The most numerous cerebral tracts are the | association tracts. |
If the center of a reflex arc is the brain, the response it mediates is called a | cranial reflex. |
The action of acetylcholine is quickly terminated by its being hydrolyzed by the enzyme | acetylcholinesterase. |
Each skin surface area supplied by sensory fibers of a given spinal nerve is a | dermatome |
Mixed cranial nerves contain axons of | sensory and motor neurons. |
The reticular activating system maintains | consciousness. |
Which region of the brain plays a part in the mechanism responsible for emotions by associating sensory impulses with feelings of pleasantness and unpleasantness? | thalamus |
Axon terminals of autonomic neurons release either of two neurotransmitters, | norepinephrine and acetylcholine |
The groove between the frontal and parietal lobes of the cerebral cortex is the | central sulcus. |
Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of smell? | olfactory |
The limbic system integrates | emotion. |
Tongue movement is controlled by which cranial nerve? | hypoglossal |
The somatic motor system includes all the _____ motor pathways _____ the CNS. | voluntary; outside |
The _____ consists of several structures that lie beneath the thalamus and form the floor of the third ventricle and the lower part of its lateral walls. | hypothalamus |
The effect of sympathetic stimulation on the urinary bladder is | relaxation. |
“Fight or flight” physiological changes include all of the following EXCEPT | constriction of respiratory airways. |
The set of coordinated commands that control the programmed muscle activity mediated by extrapyramidal pathways is called the | motor program. |
The _____ is an extension of the great toe, with or without fanning of the other toes, in response to stimulation of the outer margin of the sole of the foot. | Babinski sign |
A _____ is a skeletal muscle or group of muscles that receives motor axons from a given spinal nerve. | myotome |
Acetylcholine can stimulate _____ receptors. | nicotinic |
What is the difference between a somatic reflex and an autonomic reflex? | A somatic reflex is caused by contraction of skeletal muscles, whereas an autonomic reflex consists of contraction of smooth or cardiac muscle or secretions of glands. |
Once inside the sympathetic chain ganglion, the preganglionic fiber may: | synapse with a sympathetic postganglionic neuron. send ascending and/or descending branches through the sympathetic trunk to synapse with postganglionic neurons in other chain ganglia. pass through one or more ganglia without synapsing. |
The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions always act with a cooperative influence, and through summation of the impulses, the effect can be increased. | False |
The part of the brain that assists in the maintenance of balance is the: | cerebellum. |
Nerves that innervate the floor of the pelvic cavity and some of the surrounding areas are found in the _____ plexus. | coccygeal |
Impulses sent over which of the following tracts could result in voluntary movement, especially of the hands, fingers, feet, and toes of the opposite side? | Lateral corticospinal |
A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child’s eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by stimulation of: | the sympathetic nervous system. |
If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose _____ related to that pathway. | willed movement |
willed movement | False |
All of the following cranial nerves are involved in proprioception except the: | vagus. |
Impulses from the _____ play a part in arousing or alerting the cerebrum. | thalamus |
Which of the following is not associated with the oculomotor nerve? | Closing and opening of the eye (blink reflex) |
What would the result be if the phrenic nerve received an impulse from the cervical plexus? | The diaphragm would stop contracting. |
How does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? | A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. A singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division. |
Which of the following statements is not true? | The major function of the parasympathetic division is to serve as an “emergency” system. |
Most effectors of the autonomic nervous system are dually innervated by sympathetic and parasympathetic neurons. | True |
Somatic motor and autonomic pathways share all of the following characteristics except: | number of neurons between central nervous system (CNS) and effector. |
Which of the following is not a function of the hypothalamus? | Regulation of motor activity |
A mixed nerve is one that: | carries both sensory and motor fibers. |
A small molecule binds to a G protein, preventing its activation. What direct effect will this have on signaling that involves cAMP? | Adenylyl cyclase will not be activated. |
. Which hormone is released by the pituitary to stimulate the thyroid gland? | thyrotropin |
Which hormone produced by the adrenal glands is responsible for mobilization of energy stores? | Cortisol |
What should you avoid doing in the middle of your sleep cycle that would lower melatonin? | turning on the lights |
What goes wrong in the function of insulin in type 2 diabetes? | the cells don't respond to insulin like they should |
Which ear structures are responsible for the amplification and transfer of sound from the external ear to the inner ear? | The ossicles |
The receptors responsible for sensing crude and persistent touch are the: | Ruffini corpuscles. |
Accommodation for near vision necessitates | an increase in the curvature of the lens. constriction of the pupils. convergence of the two eyes. |
Which of the following statements is not true of the pineal gland? | Melatonin is stimulated by the presence of sunlight. |
In comparison with the nervous system, the regulatory effects of the endocrine system are: | slow to appear but long-lasting |
The sequence of auditory ossicles in the middle ear starting at the tympanic membrane and ending at the oval window is: | malleus, incus, and stapes. |
The last step in the nonsteroid hormone mechanism of action is: | protein kinases activate other enzymes. |
Which of the following is a function of glucagon? | Tends to increase blood glucose concentrations |
Visceroceptors are located in which of the following? | Internal organs |
Sensory impulses ending in what part of the CNS trigger imprecise or “crude” sensation awareness? | Thalamus |
The production of thyroid hormone is stimulated by another hormone from the: | anterior pituitary. |
Movement of hair cells in the organ of Corti against the _____ membrane can stimulate nerve impulse condition. | tectorial |
When you are looking at a large green field, which cones would be sending the green wavelength to the brain? | M |
The olfactory tract carries impulses associated with: | smell. |
Clearness or sharpness of visual perception is known as: | visual acuity |
Which of the following is true about pain receptors? | Alpha fibers are associated with sharp, localized pain. |
The major hormone produced by the corpus luteum is: | progesterone. |
All of the following are nonsteroid hormones except: | answer: cortisol. options: oxytocin, calcitonin, glucagon |
Dynamic equilibrium depends on the functioning of the | crista ampullaris |
The immediate effect of a steroid hormone on a cell is the | transcription of RNA |
All of the following are granulocytes except | lymphocytes. |
Erythrocytes begin their maturation sequence in red bone marrow from nucleated cells known as: | hematopoietic stem cells |
Which of the following is not a formed element found in the blood? | plasma |
The physiological mechanism that dissolves clots is known as | fibrinolysis. |
All of the following are components critical to coagulation except | none of the above; all of these components are critical to coagulation. options: prothrombin, thrombin, fibrinogen, fibrin. |
In the extrinsic pathway of stage 1 of the clotting mechanism, chemicals released from damaged tissues trigger the cascade of events that ultimately result in the formation of | prothrombin activator. |
A decrease in the amount of white blood cells is called | leukopenia |
_____, a natural constituent of blood, acts as an antithrombin and prevents clots from forming in vessels. | Heparin |
The heart has its own special covering, a loose-fitting inextensible sac called the | pericardium. |
The normal cardiac impulse that initiates mechanical contraction of the heart arises in the | SA node. |
The heart valves that are located where the trunk of the pulmonary artery joins the right ventricle and where the aorta joins the left ventricle are called | semilunar valves. |
The four structures that compose the conduction system of the heart are the | SA node, AV node, AV bundle, and Purkinje fibers |
A type of abnormal heart sound that may signify incomplete closing of the valves is | a heart murmur |
After blood leaves the lungs and returns to the heart, it enters the | left atrium |
Which division of the autonomic nervous system sends fibers to the heart? | sympathetic, parasympathetic |
A graphic record of the heart’s electrical activity is a(n) | ECG |
During fetal circulation, what opening in the septum, between the right and left atria, directs most of the blood so that it bypasses the fetal lungs? | foramen ovale |
Which types of arteries are also called conducting arteries and include the aorta? | elastic arteries |
Which sphincters function as regulatory valves that reduce the flow of blood through a network of capillaries when they contract and constrict the arterioles? | precapillary sphincters |
Microscopic vessels that carry blood from small arteries to small veins are | capillaries. |
Blood flow from the heart through blood vessels to all parts of the body and back to the heart is referred to as _____ circulation. | systemic |
The _____ drains much of the superficial leg and foot. | great saphenous vein |
Which layer of the larger blood vessels is made up of endothelium? | tunica intima |
What functions as an emergency mechanism when hypoxia or hypercapnia endangers the stability of the internal environment? | chemoreceptor reflex |
The term used to describe the collection of mechanisms that influence the circulation of blood is: | Hemodynamics. |
The difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure is called | pulse pressure. |
Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor impulses is considered a major mechanism of | vasodilation |
The localized pressure gradient needed to maintain blood flow in a tissue is called | perfusion pressure. |
_____ shock results from a condition in which infectious agents release toxins into the blood. | Septic |
Starling’s law of the heart states that, within limits, the longer, or more stretched, the heart fibers are at the beginning of the contraction, the | stronger the contraction. |
Lymph is filtered by the | lymph nodes |
The lymphatic organs produce | lymphocytes |
The purpose of the lymphatic system is to | fight against infection |
Fluid that is clear, watery and contains protein molecules, salts, and other substances is called | intracellular fluid |
The lymphatic system is made up of lymphatic vessels where lymph flows in only one direction towards | the heart |
The T cell is considered | the communicator |
Millions of B cells release millions of | antibodies |
Which organ has several functions, including defense, hematopoiesis, red blood cell and platelet destruction, and blood reservoir? | spleen |
The movement of phagocytes from blood vessels to an inflammation site is called | diapedesis. |
Because T cells attack pathogens more directly, T-cell immune mechanisms are classified as _____ immunity. | cell-mediated |
Lymphocytes that kill many types of tumor cells and cells infected by different kinds of viruses are known as | natural killer cells. |
Chemotaxis is the process by which a cell navigates toward the source of the chemotactic factor by way of | detecting and then moving toward higher concentrations of the factor |
The ability of our immune system to attack abnormal or foreign cells but spare our own normal cells is called: | self-tolerance |
The functions of the lymph nodes are | defense and hematopoiesis |
Adaptive immunity, part of the body’s third line of defense, is orchestrated by two different classes of a type of white blood cell called the | lymphocyte |
Memory cells: | become plasma cells when exposed to an antigen |
The presentation of an antigen by an antigen-presenting cell activates the T cell. The cell then divides repeatedly to form a clone of identical sensitized T cells that form | effector T cells and memory cells. |
Complement can best be described as a(n): | enzyme in blood. |
Recognition of antigens by antibodies occurs when an | antigen’s epitopes fit into and bind to an antigen molecule’s antigen-binding site |
The _____ postulates that when an antigen enters the body, it selects the clone whose cells are committed to synthesizing its specific antibody and stimulates these cells to proliferate and to thereby produce more antibodies | clonal selection theory |
The ingestion and destruction of microorganisms or other small particles is called | phagocytosis. |
Pyrogen molecules trigger the fever response by promoting the production of | prostaglandins |
During their residence in the thymus, pre-T cells develop into _____, cells that proliferate as rapidly as any in the body. | thymocytes |
Which of these substances operate(s) immune mechanisms? | Answer: All of the above Options: sebum, mucus, enzymes hydrochloric acid in gastric mucosa |
Activities that result in central movement or flow of lymph are called | lymphokinetic activities |
_____ refers to a phenomenon in which the genetic characteristics common to a particular kind of organism provide defense against certain pathogens | Species resistance |
Which antibody is synthesized by immature B cells and then inserted into their plasma membranes? | immunoglobulin M |
Which term refers to the volume of inspired air that actually reaches, or “ventilates,” the alveoli? | alveolar ventilation |
The amount of oxygen that diffuses into blood each minute depends on which factor? | All the above: oxygen pressure gradient between alveolar air and incoming pulmonary blood total functional surface area of the respiratory membrane respiratory minute volume alveolar ventilation |
An increase in carbon dioxide in the blood causes | a drop in pH in the blood. |
A right shift of the oxygen-hemoglobin dissociation curve due to increased partial pressure of carbon dioxide is also known as | the Bohr effect. |
More than two-thirds of the carbon dioxide carried by blood is carried in the form of | bicarbonate ions. |
The volume of air exhaled normally after a typical inspiration is called _____ volume. | tidal |
In what form does oxygen travel in the blood? | dissolved oxygen in the plasma associated with hemoglobin |
The forced expiratory volume test can determine the presence of respiratory obstruction by measuring the | volume of air expired per second during forced expiration. |
The basic rhythm of the respiratory cycle of inspiration and expiration seems to be generated by the | medullary rhythmicity area. |
The exact amount of oxygen in blood depends mainly on the amount of | hemoglobin. |
Oxygen enters blood from alveolar air because the partial pressure of alveolar air is | greater than the partial pressure of incoming blood. |
greater than the partial pressure of incoming blood. | Expiratory Reserve Volume Tidal volume Inspiratory capacity Except: Total lung capacity |
The apparatus used to measure the volume of air exchanged in breathing is called a(n) | spirometer. |
An obstructive lung disorder that is characterized by recurring spasms of the smooth muscles in the wall of the bronchial air passages is | asthma. |
During the respiratory cycle, intrapleural pressure is always less than alveolar pressure. This difference is called | transpulmonary pressure |
When carbon dioxide dissolves in water, some of the carbon dioxide molecules associate with water to form | carbonic acid. |
The compound formed when carbon dioxide combines with hemoglobin is | carbaminohemoglobin. |
What variations exist in the body to temporarily store or carry oxygen? | neuroglobin, myoglobin, fetal hemoglobin |
During inspiration, as the size of the thorax increases, the | intrapleural and alveolar pressures decrease |
Pressure gradients are established by changes in the | thoracic cavity. |
Which structural feature facilitates oxygen diffusion from the alveolar air into the blood in lung capillaries? | The alveolar and capillary walls are both very thin. The alveolar and capillary surfaces are both extremely large. The lung capillaries accommodate a large amount of blood at one time. Each red blood cell comes close to alveolar air. |
The sensors that provide feedback information to the medullary rhythmicity area are the | central chemoreceptors and peripheral chemoreceptors. |
Hyperpnea means a(n) | increase in breathing. |
The exit of the bicarbonate ion from the red blood cell is balanced by the inward transport of another negative ion, chloride. This countertransport of negative ions is often called the _____ shift. | chloride |
The mechanism that produces pulmonary ventilation is one that establishes a gas pressure gradient between the | atmosphere and the alveolar air. |
The ability of the lungs and thorax to stretch is referred to as | compliance. |
Which oxygen-binding protein helps move oxygen out of the blood and into muscle cells? | myoglobin |
The _____ represents the largest volume of air an individual can move in and out of the lungs. | vital capacity |
According to the law of partial pressures, the partial pressure of gas in a mixture of gases is | directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and to the total pressure of the mixture. |
_____ law states that the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure. | Boyle’s |
Gas exchange, the lungs’ main and vital function, takes place in the: | alveoli. |
Which of the following combinations in arterial blood could cause an increase in the respiratory rate? | Increased PCO2, decreased arterial pressure, decreased pH, decreased PO2 |
The approximate partial pressure of oxygen at standard atmospheric pressure is about _____ mm Hg. | 160 |
The term used to describe the volume of air exchanged during normal inspiration and expiration is: | tidal volume. |
About 98.5% of the oxygen carried by systemic arterial blood is attached to: | hemoglobin. |
Standard atmospheric pressure is _____ mm Hg. | 760 |
Which of the following would you expect to happen to cellular respiration during exercise? | Increased cellular respiration occurs during exercise, causing a rise in plasma PCO2, which is detected by central chemoreceptors in the brain and perhaps peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid sinus and aorta to cause an increase in respiration rate. |
The function of the vibrissae in the vestibule is to: | provide an initial “filter” to screen particulate matter from air that is entering the system. |
Dalton law states that the partial pressure of a gas in a mixture of gases is _____ to the total pressure of the mixture. | directly related to the concentration of that gas in the mixture and |
Internal respiration can be defined as | the exchange of gases between the blood capillaries and the tissue cells. |
Boyle’s law states that the volume of a gas varies _____ with pressure at a _____ temperature. | inversely; constant |
The function of surfactant is to: | prevent each alveolus from collapsing as air moves in and out during respiration. |
Ciliated cells lining the respiratory tract: | help move the mucus blanket toward the pharynx. |
Which of the following is not a regulated process associated with the functioning of the respiratory system? | Control of cell metabolism rate |
Which gas law deals with the solubility of gases in solution? | Henry |
By the time the blood leaves the lung capillaries to return to the heart, what percentage of the blood’s hemoglobin has united with oxygen? | 97% |
During inspiration, the expansion of the lungs causes: | a decrease in alveolar pressure. |
The vital capacity is equal to the sum of the: | inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume. |
The PCO2 in alveolar air is _____ blood. | less than in the systemic venous, equal to the systemic arterial |
When the pressure in the lung is greater than atmospheric pressure: | expiration occurs. |
Fats and other nutrients in the duodenum stimulate the intestinal mucosa to release a hormone called | gastric inhibitory peptide. |
Peristalsis is regulated in part by the intrinsic stretch reflexes. It is also thought to be stimulated by the hormone | cholecystokinin (CCK) |
During which stage of swallowing is there a risk of food entering respiratory pathways? | Oropharyngeal |
The act of expelling feces is called | defecation. |
The wave-like ripple of the muscle layer of the GI tract is called | peristalsis |
The process of deglutition includes all of the following except the _____ stage. | laryngeal |
What percentage of this blood flow comes from the hepatic portal system? | 80% |
Chemical digestion requires the secretion of _____ into the lumen of the GI tract. | digestive enzymes and bile |
The ejection of bile from the gallbladder is controlled by which hormones? | CCK and secretin |
CCK is an intestinal hormone that | causes the pancreas to increase secretion of exocrine high in enzymatic content. opposes the influence of gastrin on gastric parietal cells. stimulates contraction of the gallbladder so that bile can pass into the duodenum. |
_____ is the passage of substances through the intestinal mucosa into the blood or lymph. | Absorption |
Stimulation of gastric juice secretion occurs in all of the following phases except the _____ phase. | digestive |
The final step in lipid transport by the intestines is the formation of | chylomicrons. |
The chemical process in which a compound unites with water and then splits into simpler compounds is called | hydrolysis. |
Saliva contains the enzyme | amylase. |
Because fats are insoluble in water, they must be | emulsified. |
Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by hydrochloric acid, which is produced by the _____ of the gastric glands. | parietal cells |
Which of these is not an example of mechanical digestion? | Moistening the food |
Which step of deglutition is under voluntary control? | Oral stage |
The purpose of peristalsis is to: | propel food forward along the GI tract |
The hormone that stimulates the release of bicarbonate substance from the pancreas is: | secretin. |
Which of the following is a disaccharide? | Sucrose |
The hormone that inhibits gastric muscle, slowing passage of food into the duodenum, is called: | gastric inhibitory peptide. |
Cellulose is a residue of digestion that comes from: | carbohydrates. |
Which of the processes of mechanical digestion involves the esophagus? | Deglutition Peristalsis |
The substances absorbed into the lymph capillaries are: | glycerol and fatty acids. |
The process of fat emulsification consists of: | breaking fats into small droplets. |
The hormone that stimulates the gallbladder to release bile is: | cholecystokinin. |
The sodium cotransport or coupled transport acts to transport sodium ions and glucose molecules _____ the GI lumen. | passively out of |
Glucose moves from the GI tract into the circulatory system by the process of: | cotransport. |
Polysaccharides are hydrolyzed into disaccharides by enzymes known as: | amylase. |
The hormone thought to be a messenger causing release of digestive enzymes from the intestinal mucosa is: | vasoactive intestinal peptide. |
Which blood vessel carries absorbed food from the GI tract to the liver? | Portal vein |
When classified according to the kind of chemical reactions catalyzed, digestive enzymes are referred to as _____ enzymes. | hydrolyzing |
An end product of fat digestion is: | glycerol. |
Bicarbonates are useful in the GI tract to: | neutralize hydrochloric acid. |