Busy. Please wait.
Log in with Clever

show password
Forgot Password?

Don't have an account?  Sign up 
Sign up using Clever

Username is available taken
show password

Make sure to remember your password. If you forget it there is no way for StudyStack to send you a reset link. You would need to create a new account.
Your email address is only used to allow you to reset your password. See our Privacy Policy and Terms of Service.

Already a StudyStack user? Log In

Reset Password
Enter the associated with your account, and we'll email you a link to reset your password.
Didn't know it?
click below
Knew it?
click below
Don't know
Remaining cards (0)
Embed Code - If you would like this activity on your web page, copy the script below and paste it into your web page.

  Normal Size     Small Size show me how

C130 FE MQF -V3

AFI 11-2C-130V3 (25May2006)

Unless otherwise directed, waiver authority for the contents of AFI 11-2C-130V3 is the __________ with mission execution authority. MAJCOM/A3/DO
Pilots __________ fly touch-and-go landings with passengers on board. shall not
__________ is the period of time starting at mission report time and ending immediately after the aircrew completes the final engine shutdown of the day. Flight Duty Period
The maximum FDP for a basic aircrew is _____ hours. 16
The maximum FDP for an augmented crew is _____ hours. 18
Complete all mission-related events (i.e., FCF/ACF checks, transition events, or tactical events) during the first _____ hours of the FDP. 12
CDT/FDP begins _____ hour(s) after aircrew alert notification. 1
Crewmembers may deadhead for a maximum of _____ hours. 24
SQ/CCs shall not schedule an aircrew member to fly nor will an aircrew member perform aircrew duties: When the flight will exceed maximum flying time limitations of AFI 11-2C-130V3, Within 12 hours of consuming alcoholic beverages or under the influence of alcohol, and When using nasal sprays to treat symptoms of head congestion existing before flight.
En route, do not enter aircrew members into crew rest until they complete __________. official post-flight duties
__________ (or equivalents) are PMCR waiver authority. OG/CC
The ___________ is the final authority in determining the overall suitability of an aircraft for the mission. PIC
A PIC who accepted an aircraft with degraded equipment/systems is not committed to subsequent operations with the same degraded equipment. (T/F) True
Do not connect unauthorized equipment (laptop computers, video equipment, food preparation equipment, radios/tape players, CD players, etc.) to: the aircraft intercom/PA, radio systems, and electrical system
Any crewmember seeing a deviation of _____ feet altitude or _____ knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the PF. 200/10
Limit conversation to that essential for crew coordination and mission accomplishment during taxi, takeoff, approach, landing and any flight below __________. 10,000 feet MSL
In terminal areas, __________ (if able) will monitor the command radio unless directed otherwise. all crewmembers
For peace-time do not use runways less than __________ feet. 3,000
Minimum runway length for normal take-off is __________. Critical Field Length
For peace-time, compute landing performance with _____ engines in reverse, and ______ engines in ground idle. 2/2
All tactical/max effort operations must fall in the ___________ area of charts unless otherwise approved by OG/CC. “recommended”
Do not taxi an aircraft within _____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers monitoring the clearance between aircraft and obstructions. With wing walkers, avoid taxi obstructions by at least ____ feet. 25/10
Only __________ crews shall perform high-speed taxi checks. FCF
__________ detecting the illumination of the radar altimeter Low Altitude Warning Light will immediately notify the pilot flying the aircraft. Any crewmember
Pilots will normally use __________ for takeoffs provided refusal speed (Vr) is equal to or greater than takeoff speed. reduced power
It is recommended that primary crewmembers wear Nomex gloves during: engine start, takeoff, and landing
Crewmembers will carry __________ on all flights two identification tags
Each crewmember must carry an operable flashlight for night flights. (T/F) True
Any crewmember that experiences NVG problems will: inform the rest of the crew
When any doubt exists about which screen height to use, plan to cross the DER at _____ minimum unless you can ascertain a different screen height requirement from an appropriate authority. 35
Aircraft must be able to meet the published climb gradient for the departure runway with all engines operating. If no minimum climb gradient is published, _____ ft/nm will be used. 200
For screen height of _____ feet or less, use DER correction on the balanced critical field length chart to determine if runway available and aircraft performance meet departure restrictions. 50
Takeoff GW must not exceed that which would, in the event of an engine failure, lower the rate of climb to less that a _____ percent climb gradient (_____ feet per NM). 2.5/152
Minimum RVR for takeoff is _____. 1600
Flight into areas of forecast or reported __________ is prohibited. severe turbulence
Do not takeoff under conditions of freezing rain. (T/F) True
Do not fly directly above (within _____ feet) thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds. 2000
Aircraft damage may occur _____ or more from any thunderstorms. 20 NMs
Maintain at least _____ separation from heavy rain showers. 5 NMs
An exceptional release must be signed before flight. A __________ normally signs the exceptional release. maintenance officer, maintenance superintendent, and authorized civilian
The aircraft dash one preflight inspection will remain valid until either: aircraft ground time exceeds 12 hours, aircraft ground time exceeds 72 hours provided the aircraft is sealed, not flown, and documented entry control is maintained, and maintenance dash six preflight is performed
Under no circumstance will any crewmember act as the towing supervisor. (T/F) True
Oxygen on board for takeoff must be sufficient to accomplish the planned flight from the equal time point (ETP) should oxygen be required (minimum _____ liters). 5
Current and qualified NVG aircrews may fly NVG departures in weather down to ______. 300/1
The C-130 is a category “C” aircraft. If approach speeds exceed _____ knots, the minimums for category “D” will be used. 140
An entry will be place in AFTO 781A, “Aircraft subjected to salt spray” (state lowest altitude and duration) anytime the aircraft is flown under _____ feet above sea except for takeoffs and landings. 1000
If involved in a mishap or incident, after landing and terminating the emergency, pull the ___________ power circuit breaker. CVR
The maximum number of persons on the flight deck will be the minimum commensurate with the mission requirements. At no time should this exceed _____ (unless otherwise specified in a MAJCOM supplement). 7
Security force support terminates: Only after the aircraft doors are closed and the aircraft taxis
If departure is not possible, the aircrew must secure the aircraft to the best of their ability. In no case, will the entire crew leave the aircraft unattended. Crew rest will be subordinate to aircraft security when the airframe may be at risk. (T/F) True
Crews are facing a hijacking threat will notify ground agencies by __________. Transmit an in-the-clear notification of hijacking to ATC, Set transponder to code 7500, and Transmit a radio message to include the phrase “(call sign) transponder seven five zero zero
When required to transfer a loaded weapon to another crew member, __________. place the weapon on a flat surface
This form is used to report damage to the aircraft, or injury to the crew or passengers. AMC IMT 97, AMC In-Flight Emergency and Unusual Occurrence Worksheet
This is the primary method of payment of aviation fuel and ancillary ground services at commercial airports (and some military installations) worldwide. Multi Service Corporation (MSC) AIR card
Minimum runway length for 50 % flap flight idle touch-and-go landing is _____ feet. Minimum runway length for all other touch-and-go landings is _____ feet. 5,000/6,000
Touch and go landings are authorized when the crosswind component corrected for RCR is within the ___________ zone for the landing crosswind chart. Recommended
Do not conduct simulated aircraft systems emergency procedures training during any tactical training (operating in low level environment or during tactical approaches). (T/F) True
Maximum gross weight for a no flap landing is _____ lbs. 120,000
When performing a Stop-and-Go landing, runway remaining for takeoff must be greater than or equal to __________. CFL
Actual engine shutdown and airstart of a single engine for training may be conducted under direct IP supervision at no lower than __________ in daylight VMC. 2,500 feet AGL
If a training aircraft is not capable of departure within four hours after scheduled departure time, cancel the training mission. The unit CC/DO may grant exceptions. Provide a planned minimum of __ for acft preflight duties before the end of the 4-hours. 1 ½-hours
With actual or suspected vapor contamination, the aircraft must be purged for __________ using Smoke and Fume Elimination procedures to eliminate the vapor hazard. Two hours
When it is suspected or known that an aerospace vehicle or equipment has been contaminated with a radiological, biological or chem contaminant, a ___ will be entered and an annotation will be made in historical records for the lifecycle of the equipment. Red X
If a situation is encountered where the aircraft is on a Red X and qualified maintenance personnel are not available to clear it, the flight engineer may obtain authorization to clear the Red X from the ___________ in accordance with TO 00-20-1. Home station MXG/CC or designated representative
When crewmembers are required to refuel, the flight engineer will act as the __________. Refueling team supervisor
During concurrent ground operations, simultaneous fuel and oxygen servicing is authorized. False
In addition to the procedures in __________ and ___________, the flight engineer will assist the pilot in maintaining the AFTO Form 781. T.O. 00-20-1/AFI 11-401
When conducting flaps up landings for training compute and post VMCA speeds for both configurations; flaps 50% and flaps up (normal boost), i.e. 105/122. (T/F) True
Minimum TOLD requirements for a termination landing are: Air Minimum Control Speeds, Obstacle Clearance Speed, 3 Engine Climb Speed, 100 & 50% Flap Landing Speeds and Distances, 0% Landing Approach Speed (Night or IMC), and __________. 3 Eng FTPNM
The AF IMT 4108 will be completed whenever the navigator completes the __________. AF IMT 4116, C-130 Flight Plan and Record
Authority to use the Hostile Environment Kit and Repair Procedures is granted by Operations Group Commanders/Deputy Group Commanders for Operations; this authority is documented on the: FRAG and Air Tasking Order
For Day VMC En-Route, fly no lower than ___________ modified contour altitude above terrain using visual references and radar altimeter. 300 feet AGL
For NVG En-Route, fly no lower then indicated altitude of ___-feet above the highest spot terrain elevation, or ____-feet plus one chart contour interval above the highest depicted terrain contour, whichever is higher, within ______ on centerline. 500/400/3 NMs
If either the pilots’ NVGs, SCNS, pressure altimeter, GPS, or aircraft radar fail, climb to ESA until resolving the problem. In addition, climb to ESA to resolve any T.O. 1C-130(x)-1 section III procedures, commensurate with the tactical situation. (T/F) False
To compute ESA, add _____ feet (_____ feet in mountainous terrain) to the elevation of the highest obstruction to flight within _____ NM either side of the planned route. An ESA will be computed for the route and conspicuously annotated on the chart. 1000/2000/22
Airdrops will not be conducted below the following attitudes: Day VMC Drop Altitude, Night VMC Drop Altitude, and IMC Drop Altitude
Navigators/engineers will use the __________ to annotate pertinent information during all tactical missions. AF IMT 4062, C-130 Run-in/Drop Information Card
__________ route study is mandatory before accomplishing flight in the low level environment. Crew
Low Altitude Arrival maneuvers may be flown on continuation training and operational missions with passengers aboard. In all cases plan to roll out on final at __________ speed no lower than _____ ft _____. approach/300/AGL
During Engine Running On-load and Off-load (ERO) Procedures do not on-load or off-load through the __________ and __________ at the same time. __________ will not normally be used. crew entrance door/cargo ramp and door/paratroop doors
During ERO procedures, use __________ and __________ to enhance safety at night as the situation dictates. leading edge/taxi lights
Personnel on-load and off-load through the crew entrance door, station a crewmember (normally the load master) on interphone with cord held taut at approximately ______-feet at an angle of _____-degrees from the aircraft axis. 20/45
Combat Off-load Procedures, a taxiway or ramp at least ______ feet long is required, however, _____ feet is desired to provide a margin of safety. 500/1000
NVG Airland. The PIC must ensure TOLD reflects the possibility for a landing at the end of the zone (subtract landing/safety zone distances from __________ to ensure adequate runway exists for __________). runway available/rollout
NVG Airland. Coordinated actions during the final segment of an NVG __________ and _________ are critical. approach/landing
NVG Airland. The engineer’s primary job is to monitor engine instruments and ensure checklist completion. (T/F) True
NVG Airland. For tactical VFR approaches, bank angle will not exceed _____ degrees and the aircraft will not descend below _____ AGL until intercepting a normal glide path approaching the final approach course and in a safe position to land. 45/500
NVG Airland. IMC Approaches. The transfer of aircraft control for the landing will be no lower than _____. 300’ AGL
Formations. At no time will aircraft be operated within _____ feet of another aircraft. 500
When flying at night (with or without NVGs) potential for spatial disorientation increases with: Rapid changes in airspeed, Bank angles, and Changing “G” loads
Visual Rejoins. Rejoining aircraft will maintain _____ feet above or below the formation until the formation is in sight and clearance to rejoin is granted. 500
Do not perform touch-and-go landings during formation recoveries unless: Never
SKE Procedures. Lead will signal turns of _____ degrees or more and airspeed changes of _____ KIAS or more. 10/10
Element leads will not exceed _____ degrees of bank. 20
Descending Slowdown. Start descent using _____KIAS and _____ feet per minute until reaching drop altitude. 140/1000
Analyze pre-drop gross weight to determine if obstructions can be cleared with __________. one engine inoperative
No Drop Decisions. After the __________ advisory any crew member observing a condition that could jeopardize a safe drop will transmit a “no drop” call on interphone. one minute
A no-drop will be called if the slowdown checklist is not complete prior to the “__________” call. five second
Quick don masks are emergency equipment and are not approved for pre-breathing or high-altitude operations (at or above _____ feet MSL). 18,000
Pressurization Scheduling. Depressurization will not exceed _____ feet per minute. 3,000
CDS Airdrops. It is not recommended to drop CDS at gross weights less than _____ pounds. 104,000
Towed Parachutist. The PIC should consider density altitude, aircraft weight, position in formation, or other factors deemed important in determining what flap setting between _____ and _____ percent should be used. 50/100
Created by: arminjr
Popular Standardized Tests sets




Use these flashcards to help memorize information. Look at the large card and try to recall what is on the other side. Then click the card to flip it. If you knew the answer, click the green Know box. Otherwise, click the red Don't know box.

When you've placed seven or more cards in the Don't know box, click "retry" to try those cards again.

If you've accidentally put the card in the wrong box, just click on the card to take it out of the box.

You can also use your keyboard to move the cards as follows:

If you are logged in to your account, this website will remember which cards you know and don't know so that they are in the same box the next time you log in.

When you need a break, try one of the other activities listed below the flashcards like Matching, Snowman, or Hungry Bug. Although it may feel like you're playing a game, your brain is still making more connections with the information to help you out.

To see how well you know the information, try the Quiz or Test activity.

Pass complete!
"Know" box contains:
Time elapsed:
restart all cards