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Practical II

Microbiology Lab Practical 2

QuestionAnswer
chemical control of microorganisms includes antimicrobial chemicals, disinfectants and antiseptics
chemical controls of microorganisms can be used on surfaces that need to be decontaminated, objects, skin, and other human/animal tissue
what are the two different mechanisms of chemical control of microbes 1) alteration of cell walls/cytoplasmic membrane, 2) interference with proteins/structure of nucleic acid
there are two actions of antibacterial/antimicrobial agents, what are they static (inhibit growth) and cidal (killing)
what is the disc diffusion assay a form of testing antibiotics/antimicrobials, it places filter discs impregnated with chemicals on an inoculated Petri dish, then creates a zone of inhibition
antimicrobial chemotherapy is the use of ___________________ to inhibit or kill microorganisms chemicals
antimicrobial chemotherapy is based on ___________________ selective toxicity
what is selective toxicity the agent used must kill (or inhibit) the microorganism in question without harming the host
how does the selective toxicity kill or inhibit the microorganism the antimicrobial must interact with some function or it must interact with some structure of the microorganism
to treat infections caused by Prokaryotes many antimicrobial chemicals prevent peptidoglycan synthesis or inhibit bacterial enzymes (specifically DNA gyrase and RNA polymerase)
why would antibiotic medications work against prokaryotes but not human cells human cells do not contain peptidoglycan molecules or DNA gyrase; and the human RNA polymerase is structurally different than those found in Prokaryotes
what are the two types of chemotherapeutic classes antibiotics and antimicrobial chemotherapeutic chemicals
what is the difference between antibiotics and antimicrobial chemotherapeutic chemicals antibiotics are byproducts of bacteria for the purpose of killing competing microbial organisms, antimicrobial chemicals are synthesized in a laboratory
why is it difficult to distinguish between antibiotics and antimicrobial biotics today antibiotics are extensively modified in the laboratory (or sometimes synthesized) therefore the distinction between the two are fuzzy
what is a -cidal a type of chemical that kill microorganism
penicillin, cephalosporin, and neomycin are (cidals/statics) penicillin, cephalosporin, and neomycin are CIDALS
name the two types of spectrum antibiotics broad spectrum and narrow spectrum
what is a -static inhibit microorganisms enough for bodies own defenses to take over
tetracyclines, erythromycin, and sulfonamides are (cidals/statics) tetracyclines, erythromycin, and sulfonamides are STATICS
what is a broad spectrum antibiotic effective against a variety of both Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria
list five broad spectrum antibiotics tetracyclines, streptomycin, cephalosporins, ampicillin, and sulfonamides
what is narrow spectrum antibiotics effective against just Gram positive or just Gram negative bacteria
name four narrow spectrum medications penicillin G, erythromycin, clindamycin, and gentamicin
______________________ determines the susceptibility of bacteria Antibiotic Sensitivity Testing
what is the Clinical importance of Antibiotic Sensitivity Testing measuring the effectiveness of a variety of antibiotics, helps with clinical personnel prescribe the proper treatment
describe the Kirby-Bauer (Disc Diffusion Assay) qualitative test, when a series of antibiotic discs of antibiotic-impregnated discs are placed on incubated plates, looks for zone of inhibition
what is a zone of inhibition depends on sensitivity of bacteria
the Epsilometer (E Test) measures minimally inhibitory concentration (MIC)
which test deploys rectangular strip the E test (Epsilometer)
why is the elipsometer called this the resulting zone of inhibition looks like an elliptical shape
the smallest part of the E test intersects with the ______________________________ on the test strip lowest concentration of the antibiotic
Mastering Lab uses the ________________ Agar when performing the Disk-diffusion Assay. This is approved by the National Committee of Clinical Laboratory Standards Mueller-Hinton Agar
(not a question) each bacterium must be tested separately
on a Disc-Diffusion Assay , what should we expect to see on an agar plate after incubation bacteria should be everywhere except around where the discs
how do you measure the effectiveness of an antibiotic on the Disc-Diffusion Assay measure the zone of inhibition on the agar, record the size of the zones then compare to the clinical + laboratory performance standards
what is an abscess a fight be between bacteria and the organisms immune system and creates a mash of dead cells/tissue and accumulates pus
what are some problems with dental abscesses the infection can spread eventually causing sepsis and death
____________ was the first chemical compound used in patients to treat bacterial infections penicillin
what important event happened in 1941 that changed the course of clinical microbiology penicillin saved the life of a boy with a fatal sinus infection
what is a single-use only instrument dispose immediately after use to reduce the risk of transmission
how are single-use only instruments helpful in clinical environments helps to eliminate the cost of decontamination processes
what is the spaulding classification used to determine the amount of risk an item's contamination would pose, this includes decontamination processes
what are the three (3) categories in the spaulding classification critical, semicritical, noncritical
describe the types of instruments that would be classified as CRITICAL on the spaulding classification designed to contact sterile tissue (like blood) or enter the vascular system
if an instrument with the CRITICAL spaulding classification becomes contaminated the item MUST be sterilized; otherwise it would introduce an infection to an otherwise healthy patient
give some examples of items that would be listed as CRITICAL according to the forcepts, scalpels, bone saws
describe the types of instruments that would be classified as SEMICRITICAL on the spaulding classification these instruments only make contact with mucous membranes or skin. however, they DO NOT enter wounds, penetrate the skin or other soft tissue
if an instrument with the SEMICRITICAL spaulding classification becomes contaminated it needs to be thoroughly cleaned with a high-level disinfectant (AT MINIMUM). At best steam-sterilized
give some examples of items that would be listed as SEMICRITICAL according to the endoscopes, speculums, dental mirrors, simple hand tools, reusable trays
describe the types of instruments that would be classified as NONCRITICAL on the spaulding classification these items only contact the dry skin and do not come in contact with mucous membranes
if an instrument with the NONCRITICAL spaulding classification becomes contaminated low-level disinfectants can be used to clean
give some examples of items that would be listed as NONCRITICAL according to the stethoscope, Bedpan, walking crutches
peracetic acid is a (high/low)-level disinfectant that is used as an alternative to autoclaving for semicritiacl items peracetic acid is a HIGH level discinfectant
how does peracetic acid work has a low pH which denatures: proteins and cell membranes
chlorhexidine is a (high/low)-level disinfectant that can be used as an antiseptic mouth wash and sometimes on hard surfaces chlorhexidine is a LOW-level disinfectant
on the antibiotic test strip for the Elsilometer test, the drug concentration (increases/decreases) from top to bottom on the antibiotic test strip for the Elsilometer test, the drug concentration DECREASES from top to bottom
why is the Epsilometer used in clinical settings. to the lowest concentration that the drug becomes effective
what is MIC the minimum inhibitory Concentration in the Epsilometer test
name some factors that cause vaccine inconsistancy war, famine, and personal beliefs
name some organs in the lymphatic system lymph nodes, subclavian veins (lymph vessels empty contents here), thyroid glands, spleen Peyer's Patches (small intestine), bone marrow
the general idea of your first line of defense for immune system basic physical and chemical barriers
what is the function of a physical barrier keep things in/out,
physical barriers include skin and mucous membranes of the nose and mouth
what are some chemical barriers pathogen destroying chemicals
examples of chemical barriers in the human body are tears, stomach acid, and ear wax
second line of defense for humans include nonspecific immune system and is triggered by chemicals
name the types of chemical signals used in the second line of defense (non-specific immune system) chemokines, interferons, and complement system
what are chemokines and what are their functions chemicals that trigger an inflammatory response, they recruit macrophages to clear the infection, and results in swelling and pain
what are interferons and what are their functions warn other cells in the body of the incoming infection, in response the surrounding cells will boost their defenses
what is the complement immune system and its functions activation of a signaling system, pathogens become coated in antibodies,
what are the three outcomes of the specific complement immune system phagocytosis, inflammation, attack pathogen membranes
what are the steps in the complement system after a pathogen invasion -pathogen is coated in antibodies - a series of proenzyme zymogens cleave and activate, - produces signalling to recruit more immune cells - pathogens are eliminated
name the three pathways for the compliment system classic pathway, alternative pathway, lectin pathway
in the compliment system, the ____________________ pathway is initiated by the antibody binding to the pathogen CLASSICAL Pathway
what happens to C1 in the Classical pathway can bind to pathogen directly
which immunoglobulin is most effective in the classical pathway IgM
what initiates the alternative pathway in the immune system initiated by the spontaneous cleavage of C3
in the alternative pathway immunoglobulins (are/are not) required immunoglobulins ARE NOT required for the initiation of the Alternative Pathway
the lectin pathway is initiated by Lectin binding to the sugars in the cell wall and cell membrane
all three pathways lead to the cleaving of which protein by which enzyme cleaving of C3 by the enzyme C3b convertase (produces C3a and C3b)
what is the function of C3a becomes a signaling beacon, attracting more cells to the area (classical pathway)
what is the function of C3b binds to the surface of the pathogen, marking the pathogen for destruction, and the formation of the membrane attack complex
what is the 3rd line of defense in the human body B and T cells (adaptive immunity), specialized memory and specific response
what are B Cells have surface antibody cells , binds to specifically to discint molecular motifs (epitopes)
what is an epitope pathogen's mug shot, it is a binding site for antibodies that triggers an immune cascade
what are T cells cells that recognize and kill infected/malignant body (or somatic "self" cells that no longer bare normal markers, help to activate/stimulate immune cells
what is adaptive immunity an aspect of the human immune system that reacts to defenses that are specific to the pathogen, it only is activated after a first (previous) exposure
what is immunological memory it is a notable characteristic of adaptive immunity (B and T cells)
where do T cells mature thymus
where do B cell mature bone marrow
what are the two categories of adaptive immunity humoral immunity and cell-mediated immunity
describe humoral immunity the production of antibodies and is called such because it discusses the aspect of the immune system that circulated in the lymph and blood stream
what is cell-mediated immunity done specifically by T-Cell responses and does not involve antibodies
when is an allergic response triggered when myelocytes release histamines
what other chemicals included in the the allergic response chemotactic and vasodilators
name the three myelocites involved in the allergy response neutrophils, basophils, mast cells
what happens when too much histamine was released critical drop in BP, heart can fail due to blood loss (remember vasodilation), and inflammatory swelling
name the types of mutations that can benefit a microorganism that is invading the human body - polysaccharide capsule - hemolysin production - antioxidant defense - camouflare with "self" proteins (mimicry) - antivariation - secretion of digestive enzymes
what is the polysaccharide capsule an extracellular covering over a bacterial cell, it covers up the component of the outer membrane/cell wall, lipopolysaccharides (LPS) covered
how does hemolytic production help the pathogens invade the body these are enzymes that breakout of the phagosome after being ingested, they allow bacteria to divide without detection
how does antioxidant enzymes help the pathogens invade the body antioxidant enzymes blocks against reactive oxygen species by immune cells, this allows pathogens to detoxify ROS to Water and Oxygen molecules
how does the secretion of degradative enzymes help the survival of a pathogen degradative proteins destroy antimicrobial peptide defenses
what does ELISA stand for Enzyme Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay
what is the ELISA a tool used for detecting particular molecules
what are some practical applications for ELISA clinical/research applications, detecting antibodies for HIV, and quantifying amount of toxins in river water
what are the benefits of ELISA it is low cost, it has high specificity, and fast results
what is the "sandwich" ELISA when two antibodies used to capture and antibody
how does the sandwich ELISA work? one antibody binds to the small plastic well and the protein. The second antibody then binds to the molecule (this antibody has proteins that react with the solution)
what is the capture antibody function in ELISA the capture antibody functions to captures the molecule of interest and pulls it out of solution and attaches it to the well of the plate
what is the detection of the antibody function attaches to the molecule of interest and has enzymes that can be detected
what are some problems with plate counts it tests for the number of bacteria present. however, it does not allow us to ID the bacteria and it is not direct or specific to the desired bacteria.
in ELISA tests, false positives are commonly caused by insufficient washing after adding a detection body and or improperly pipetting
if the blocking solution for ELISA is miss measured, what will happen to the ELISA there will be no effect on the results
if the blocking solution is added after the detention body what will happen to the solution all the wells would be positive
if the blocking solution is added after the detection body why are all the wells positive the detection body has bound to the well
what would the reasons be for indeterminants in ELISA trace amounts of HIV antibodies found, the failure to watch (does not removes specific antigens/antibodies) and very recent HIV infection
what happens to the ELISA if you forget the developing buffer false negative (the positive control and all patient samples are negative)
if an HIV patient has a false negative ... the patient has not undergone seroconversion, no HIV antibodies
what are superbugs bacteria that are resistant to antibodies
what dose MEGA stand for regarding the MEGA plates Microbial Evolution and Growth Arena
what is the MEGA plate theory bacteria reproduce asexually, but there is genetic change that allows for adaptation, the model of the plate models the evolution of bacteria
describe how the plates work in the MEGA plate the take non-resistant bacteria, the first plate starts with 0 bacteria and as each consecutive increased by antibiotics ten fold up to 1000x
what is a DNA mutation a change in the DNA sequence
DNA mutations are ______________: meaning they are random and the effects they have are also random stochastic
DNA mutations (can/cannot) be passed from parent to offspring DNA mutations CAN be passed from parent to offspring
most of the time DNA mutations there (is/is no) change in function most of the time DNA mutations there IS change in function
antibiotic resistance can result from DNA mutations
what does the MEGA plate experiment show that bacteria evolves and how it adjusts to survive harsh environments
name the two types of mutations induced and spontaneous
what are induced mutations mutations that result from the exposure to chemicals, UV lights, and x-rays
what are spontaneous mutations mutations that result on their own and are not exposed to mutagenic agents
mutations are the ultimate source for new alleles, new genetic variation, epigenetics
what are some outcomes of mutations on bacteria new phenotypes, reduced/increased/no effect on fitness, cause diseases (i.e. cancer)
comparing chromosomal DNA and Plasmid DNA, Chromosomal DNA is responsible for essential genes and required for growth and reproduction
comparing chromosomal DNA and Plasmid DNA, Plasmid DNA is responsible for does NOT contain essential genes, it is easily transfered between bacteria, and can include antibiotic resistance
what is a cocktail a cocktail of antibiotics and deal with resistant DNA
what is horizontal gene transfer more radical mutations, changes the cells genotype at a faster rate, more genetic material can be gained from the transfer
what is conjucation the horizontal gene transfer of a plasmid can cause a bacteria to become resistant to an antibiotic, must be done through physical contact (pili/adhesin)
during conjugation Gram-_________________ bacteria mostly form sex pili Gram-negative form sex pili
during conjugation Gram-_________________ bacteria have sticky molecules on the surface that brings the cells together Gram-positive have sticky molecules
what are the steps in conjugation 1) donor cell comes in contact with recipient, 2) plasma is replicated during the transfer of a single strand, 3) recipient enzymes synthesize a complementary strand, 4) (on occasion) the plasmid with integrate into the chromosome
(not a question) through conugation a pathogen is able to gain resistance to gain resistance from other bacterial species by doing so a new strain of bacteria that has accumulated resistance to all the antibiotics in a cocktail
what is transformation the uptake and integration of extracellular DNA
cell-to-cell contact (is/is not) required for transformation cell-to-cell contact IS required for transformation
what is needed for a cell to undergo transformation 1) cell needs to be competent, 2) DNA should exist outside the cell, 3) after DNA intake, the cell should incorporate the DNA into the chromosome
GMO's insert a gene of interest into a cell using a to create recombinant cell uses the which gene transfer technique transformation
what is competent a cell MUST be competent to undergo transformation; otherwise, free-floating DNA release
what are the six steps to transformation 1) binding, 2) fragmentation, 3) transport, 4) uptake, 5) lysis, and 6) integrateion
what is transposable changing a chromosome to a plasmid
what is transduction occurs with viruses, this is when bacterial chromosomal DNA enters into a virion and is injected into another bacteria
infections disease is caused by _______________; which includes... parasitic organisms; bacteria, viruses, parasites, and fungi
how are infections diseases passed from individuals directly and indirectly
genetic diseases are caused by mutations
deficiency diseases are caused by deficiency in nutrients
physiological diseases change in organ function (this is not contageous)
infections is caused by ________ an infectious agent
what is colonization infectious agent enters the body and multiplies
what are the characteristics of infections diseases fever, redness, and swelling at the site of an infection
the severity of the infectious disease depends on multiple factors, virulence of pathogen, site of infection, and host defenses
differential media uses characteristics metabolic and biochemical characteristics which lead to changes in colony morphology or medium
staining is used to enhanse contrast of biological samples
because of staining, we can see bacterial size, shape, arrangement, and cell structures
bacterial metabolic processes are driven by __________ and a variety widely across bacterial species enzymes
common differential stains include gram stains, acid fast, and endospores
gram staining is the most widely used which detects a cell wall (gram-positive = presence of a cell wall)
the presence of a cell wall and gram-positive staining results show us what thick peptidoglycan presence, binds to crystal violet, a positive test appears purple
the presence of a cell wall and gram-negative staining results show us what thin layer of peptidoglycan, usually pink (from the safranin)
what is the 1st step din identification process of microbial identification gram staining
antibiotics that target peptidoglycan would be less effective on bacteria that are gram-(negative/positive) antibiotics that target peptidoglycan would be less effective on bacteria that are gram-NEGATIVE
acid fast bacteria are best for bacteria that are not clearly seen in the gram-positive and gram-negative
acid fast bacteria contains mycolic acid
the red stain in the acid fast bacteria is carbol fuschin (red stain)
in acid fast, cells with mycolic acid present as ______________ and bacteria with out mycolic acid present as _______________ red; blue
what main family of bacteria are specifically known to have mycolic acid Mycobacteria
why is the acid-fast staining important in a clinical setting it helps to identify Mycobacteria which are the cause of many diseases such as tuberculosis and leprosy
endospore stain is specifically for dormant bacteria
when do endospores form when the environments are less favorable (like high/low temps, radiation, chemical disinfectants)
what stain is used for the endospore stain Schaeffer-Fulton stain
what is the main ingredient in the schaeffer-fulton stain malachite green
what do biochemical tests identify metabolic properties
biochemical tests are designed to identify common pathogens
what are the draw backs to the biochemical tests ? what are these draw backs are they are only used for organisms in the laboratory. nucleic acid-base
what are some examples of biochemical tests catalase tests, oxidase tests, urease tests, and indole tests
what does the catalase test test for the presence of the catalase enzyme, converting hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen, it helps protect the cell and is present in aerobic bacteria
what are the types of cultures that help identify microorganisms nutritive, enrichment, differential, selective
the general purpose medium agar that is great for laboratory nutritive agar
this agar can grow most bacteria with no particular preference to species of advantages nutritive agar can grow most bacteria
what is selective media agar an agar that has inhibitory agents that allow growth of some colonies and not others
blood agar is both __________________ and ___________________ (hemolysis) nutritive; differential
what is enrichment media agar specific nutrients selectively supports growth of some
(not a question) one medium can fall into several categories
(not a question) the colony morphology and motility
what is differential media agar agar contains a chemical that can change the appearance of some colonies and not others
the MacConkey's agar is selective for _________________ and differential for ___________________ Gram-negative; lactose fermentation
biochemical tests uses variation in _________________________ and ________________________ metabolic processes and enzymatic activity
what is the urease test catalyses of urea into ammonia, water, and Carbon Dioxide.
what is in the urease medium for the urease test adds urea to the test
how does the urease detect ammonia pH, ammonia increases the pH of the medium
how is the presence of catalase detected the bacteria produces bubbles when submurged into hydrogen peroxide
if a urease is negative for catalase test there are no bubbles in the hydrogen peroxide
the indole test, tests for the presence of indole
indole is produced from p-dimethyl-aminocinno-maldehyde
a positive indole test is ______________________ and a negative indole test is _____________________ pink; colorless
Cytochrom C oxidase is part of what major ATP creator in the cell electron transport chain
the oxidase test, tests the presence of cytochrome C oxidase
oxidase positive blue
oxidase negative colorless
what is the goal of antibiotic combination therapy this reduces the resistance of the antibiotic resistance
what are the benefits of antibiotic combination therapy allows clinical practitioners to use lower doses of antibiotics and enhances bacterial activity
how do you determine the effect of additive effects of antibiotics both discs are placed on a lawn of cells on an agar plate
if there is a uniform zone of inhibition , what is the effect of the two medications additive
if the zones of inhibition merge in the middle, what is the effective of the two medications synergic
what is an additive effect the overall effect of the two antibiotics is no greater than the overall sum of the two individuals
what is synergism the overall effect of each antibiotic is greater than the sum of the two individual antibiotics
(not a question) in synergism, each antibiotic has a synergistic effect on the other
what major class of bacteria is identified by the catalyes test Staphylococcus
the catalase is absent in which two major classes of bacteria Streptococcus and enterococcus
streptococcus and enterococcus produce what enzymes instead of catalase superoxide dismutast and perocidae
what is catalase an enzyme that converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen
briefly descrive the features of streptococcus gram-positive cocci, the same family as Enterococcus
what are the subgroups of Streptococcus based on Lancefield Classification
the Lancefield classification is based on similar surface antigens
list the groups of Streptococcus in the Lancefield Classification A,B,C,D,K, Viridans, Pneumoncocci
species in the Lancefield classification A Streptococcus pyogens
Streptococcus pyogenes is responsible for what human diseases pharyngitis, scarlet fever, impetigo, (invasive infections that can lead to toxic shock) necrotizing fascitis, immune complications (rheumatic fever)
species in the Lancefield classification B Streptococcus agalactiae
Streptococcus agalactiae is responsible for what human diseases Neonatal meningitis, pnenomia, UTI, bacteremia, puerperal fever, vaginitis
species in the Lancefield classification C Streptococcus equi
Streptococcus equi is responsible for what human diseases it rarely causes pathogens in humans, but is pathogenic to animals and cause equine strangles
species in the Lancefield classification D Enterococcus faeculis and Strepococcus bovis
Enterococcus faeculis and Streptococcus bovis is responsible for what human diseases UTI's, and Biliary tract infections
species in the Lancefield classification K Streptococcus salivarius
Streptococcus salivarius is responsible for what human diseases cavities and endocarditis
species in the Lancefield classification pneumococci Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pneumoniae is responsible for what human diseases meningitis, pneumonia, bacteremia
species in the Lancefield classification viridans Streptococcus mutans/Streptococcus mitis
Streptococcus mutans/Streptococcus mitis is responsible for what human diseases dental caries and endocarditis
what are capnofiles bacteria that grows best in carbon dioxide
name a class of bacteria that are capnofiles streptococcus
what are some distinguishing characteristics of the Streptococcus family colony morphology, hemolytic properties, and biochemical reactions
describe the type of hemolysins that are produced by Streptococcus they hydrolyze red blood cells
what types of hydrolytic patterns to streptococci express on blood agar alpha, beta, and gamma
streptococcus is specifically susceptible to which antibiotics bacitracin and SXT
describe some of the growth patterns of streptococci bacteria susceptible to bacitracin and SXT, halotolerant, hydrolyses exculin (bile)
Streptococcus on Mannitol the only members of this family that grow on mannitol are Enterobacteria
describe the beta hemolytic patterns complete clearing of the blood around the colonies
describe the alpha hemolytic patterns partial lyses, greenish-grey coloring
describe the gamma hemolytic patterns no change in medium
describe the Esclin (Bile) agar contains bile salts, escullin, ferrich ammonium citrate, beef, and gelatin extracts
esculin agar is selective for enteric organismes
esculin (bile) agar is differential for the ability of a bacteria to distinguish microorganisms that can hydrolyze the carbohydrate esculin
what is the differential ingredient in the bile agar esculin and ferric ammonium citrate
if the microorganism tests positive for the esculin hydrolsis 50% of the agar forms black parcipitate
Staphylococcus is Gram- _________________ Staphylococcus is Gram-POSITIVE
what are the two major species of Staphylococcus S. aureus and non-S. aureus
What does MRSA stand for Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus
what does MRSA stand for Methicillin Resistant S. Aureus
MRSA is a subtype of Staphylococcus aureus
MRSA arose in the 1960's and became a problem because it is resistant to methicillin and other antibiotics
name two properties of Staphylococcus that can help identify this class 1) ability to grow in a high salt concentration, 2) the production of catalase
Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for what human diseases STI (Skin + Soft Tissue Infections), toxic shock syndrome, pneumonia, meningitis, arthritis, and osteomyelitis
Staphylococcus epidermidis is responsible for what human diseases mostly opportunistic infections, also a normal resident on human skin, this is the most clinically significant non S. aureus
how can S. aureus be distinguished from non S. aureus mannitol fermentation and positive coagulase tests
characteristics of Staphylococcus are gram-positive, catalase positive, halotolerant
DNase test is (differential/selective/both) DNase test is DIFFERENTIAL ONLY
the DNase test contains an emulson of DNA, peptides, and methyl green
the pH of the DNase is 7.5
a clearing around the colonies on a DNase test hydrolysis of DNA and the presence of DNase
what is the mueller hinton test antimicrobial testing, tests susceptibiity to antibiotic novobiocin
name the two main columns used to identify unknown bacteria observation and interpretation columns
what is the observation column for what you actually observe
what is the interpretation column the the positive/negative test actually means
what is an identification matrix a table that helps with the identification of bacteria. it allows you to compare your results to known identification test results
(not a question) when testing bacteria, the more tests you can do on the bacteria, the more accurate your results
describe some characteristics of gram-negative bacteria a thin layer of peptidoglycan with an outer phospholipid bilayer (lipopolysaccharides (LPS)
the larges group of human pathogens are gram- ___________________ the larges group of human pathogens are gram-NEGATIVE
what is the main lipopolysaccaride that can cause morbidity and mortality to humans in gram-negative bacteria Lipid A
Lipid A is an (endo/exo)toxin Lipid A is an ENDOtoxin
what are the three sugars in the TSI (Triple-Sugar Iron) test glucose, sucrose, and lactose
Created by: kandriot
 

 



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