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CDC Volume 3 sex
Vol 3
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| Why is it important to mark underground facilities, when the earth’s surface is moved, removed, or displaced? | To minimize damage. |
| What guideline is encouraged by APWA to adopt to mark underground facilities? | Utility and Public Right-of-Way. |
| What color is used to mark sewer and drain lines? | Green. |
| What are the three main functions of grounding? | Personnel safety, equipment protection, and noise reduction. |
| What facility ground subsystem uses surge arrestors? | The lightning protection subsystem. |
| What facility ground subsystem is also called the safety ground? | The fault protection subsystem. |
| Grounding resistance should be no higher than what value for a military C-E facility? | 10 ohms. |
| What should you ensure before disconnecting an equipment ground? | Equipment power is off. |
| At what distance should the rods be spaced in a multi-rod grounding configuration? | 1.5 to 3 times the length of the longest rod in the system. |
| What is the smallest gauge that can be used for interconnecting wires in a grounding grid? | #6 AWG. |
| For transportable equipment, how deep should a grounding rod be driven when attaching a splice connection for lightning protection? | 3 feet. |
| What is the establishment of a low-impedance path between two metal surfaces? | Bonding. |
| What kind of bond is normally applied to signal reference bonds? | Mechanical. |
| What security discipline is used to deny access to classified and, in some instances, unclassified information and contain compromising emanations within an inspectable space? | EMSEC |
| What is known as a set of standards for limiting electric or electromagnetic radiation? | TEMPEST. |
| Within what area are you required to maintain compromising emanations? | Within the inspectable space. |
| What equipment should be designated as RED? | Equipment processing clear-text, classified information. |
| What form is frequently used to initiate the need for a new communications service? | AF IMT 3215, IT/NSS Requirements Document. |
| What identifies maintenance, software, hardware, security requirements, technical data, circuits, supplies, and required follow on support (i.e., maintenance)? | Technical Solution. |
| For wireless communications requirements, who must be consulted when assessing impact? | Base frequency manager. |
| What is the threshold dollar value of equipment that is placed on CA/CRL? | Over $2,500. |
| What prescribes items and quantities of equipment authorized to perform the assigned systems control peacetime and wartime missions? | Table of Allowance 417. |
| At what frequency does PMEL provide the TMDE Master ID Listing? | Every three months. |
| Who maintains a central repository of CSIR information for the Air Force? | Engineering Data Service Center. |
| How are cables labeled? | The first label is placed within 12 inches and marked “TO”; the second label is placed within two inches of the first label and marked “FROM.” |
| Why should the number of splices be controlled during fiber optic installation? | Reduce transmission loss. |
| What gauge wire is the minimum un-skinned sized used for punch-down? | 20 AWG. |
| Who primarily uses AFMQCCs? | Quality Assurance. |
| Who authorizes the use of local MQCCs? | Chief of Maintenance. |
| What is used to provide the means to issue optional or temporary modifications on C-E equipment? | Air Force Communications-Electronics Maintenance Instructions. |
| What secondary cell is prone to the “memory effect?” | Nickel cadmium. |
| What power line fault category is symptomatic of a short term decrease in voltage levels? | Sag. |
| What power line fault category is symptomatic of a total loss of utility power? | Blackout. |
| What power line fault category is symptomatic of an instantaneous or dramatic increase in voltage? | Spike |
| What type of UPS utilizes a transformer or inductor between the utility power source and the load to correct or filter some variations in input power? | Line Interactive. |
| What type of UPS offers the highest level of protection? | Double Conversion. |
| How many phases of generator power are usually required for industrial and commercial applications? | Three-phase power. |
| What part of the power generation process allows a smooth transition of electrical current between multiple sources and the load? | Automatic Transfer Switch. |
| In the first phase of the bare base electrical system installation, what provides electric power to critical functions? | Mobile electric power. |
| How much clearance is needed in front of the radiator end of a MEP–012A? | 50 feet. |
| What model of the MEP-PU–810 is designed for road use and meets Department of Transportation requirements? | B model |
| What is the key point about AEF? | Air Force capability to meet COCOM requirements while simultaneously reconstituting the rest of the force so that the capability can be provided on a sustained basis. |
| How long is a standard deployment rotation within the 20 month AEF cycle? | Four months. |
| Within the AEF battle rhythm, what environment is operational when all combatant commander requirements are accommodated with the AEF pair scheduled by the “on call” pair? | Steady State. |
| Within the AEF battle rhythm, what environment is operational when the Air Force reaches forward and pulls capability from the next AEF pair not currently scheduled? | Surge/Crisis. |
| What is the process of UTC posturing? | Identifying and making available a unit’s trained and ready capable UTCs. |
| What type of UTC is identified as a standard UTC? | Deployable. |
| Who registers and approves UTC postured in the AEF Library and AFWUS? | The appropriate MAJCOM authority |
| What deployment phase involves the actual movement of troops, cargo, weapons systems, or a combination of these elements? | Deployment |
| What system initially handles Air and Space Operations Center duties? | Airborne Warning and Control System |
| What deployment phase involves communications equipment being put in-place and commissioned into service? | Employment. |
| What deployable communications system is a state of the art ground-to-ground communications infrastructure designed to exchange secure and non-secure voice, data, and video communications via line of sight, satellite, or hard wired resources? | Theater Deployable Communications. |
| What ICAP module can connect up to eight of its kind to form a large voice switch and segment a local are network? | Basic Access Module. |
| What ICAP module provides data security for Internet Protocol backbone and local network devices using the IP to exchange data from nodes of a larger network and external military facilities? | Crypto Interface Module. |
| What ICAP module provides encryption/decryption capability for aggregate data channels that interface to legacy communications terminals and the FTSAT? | Crypto Module. |
| What ICAP module provides a wireless line-of-site microwave for extending modules more than 10 kilometers from the main node? | Radio Frequency Module. |
| What ICAP module provides a secure interface for computer workstations and local network devices using IP to exchange classified data between nodes of the network? | Red Data Module. |
| What major system of DATCALS has a TPN–24 Airport Surveillance Radar system? | TPN–19 Air Traffic Control. |
| What major system of DATCALS provides radio navigation information (bearing, identification, and distance)? | TRN–26 TACAN. |
| What is the deployment response time of 85 EIS of personnel and resources when tasked? | 48 hrs. |
| What is the senior element of the Theater Air Control System? | Air & Space Operations Center. |
| What lead planning document provides specific instructions to include call signs, targets, sorties, controlling agencies, etc., as well as general instructions? | Air Tasking Order. |
| What AOC communications support team contains personnel with specific working knowledge of the AOC mission, oversee site operations, and provide direct C4I system and communications support to the AOC? | Communications Focal Point. |
| What AOC communications support team ensures servers, workstations, peripherals, communications devices, and software is on-line and available to the user? | C2 Systems. |
| What AOC communications support team support may include: Transmission Systems; Power Production; Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning; Transportation? | AOC Area Support. |
| What agencies does each BCS-F site communicate with utilizing Forward Tell? | Cheyenne Mountain Operations Center and Continental United States North American Aerospace Defense Command Region. |
| The AOC normally passes scramble and control authority to whom for allocated sorties and establishes coordinated procedures to facilitate authorized diversion of preplanned missions? | Air Support Operations Center. |
| What aircraft provides all-weather surveillance, command, control and communications needed by commanders of US, NATO and other allied air defense forces? | Airborne Warning and Control System. |
| What aircraft supports theater and national level consumers with near real time on-scene intelligence collection, analysis and dissemination capabilities? | Rivet Joint. |
| What ground station is the primary system that provides mission preparation and rapid postmission data analysis for Rivet Joint? | Ground Data Processing Station. |
| What aircraft has a primary mission to provide theater ground and air commanders with ground surveillance? | Joint Surveillance Target Attack Radar System. |
| What associated sensor system allows the Predator UAV to image targets through clouds, camouflage netting, and other non-metallic coverings? | Synthetic aperture radar. |
| The HAE CGS is able to control up to | three HAE UAV systems at a time. |
| What SATCOM system does sensor imagery disseminated from the Predator ground control station? | Trojan Spirit II. |
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