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Giles CDCs -Volume 1
Question | Answer |
---|---|
The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is? | 2% |
What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards? | 98% |
Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures? | Manuals, TOs, and handbooks |
What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airman? | Initial |
A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MDS if concentrations are greater than? | 0.1% |
Hazardous waste management system rules are published by | EPA |
Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed | 90 days |
What affects radiation hazards | Strength of emission, time of exposure, weather |
The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then | Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air |
The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of | 45 degrees |
Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue | A feeling of emptiness |
When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices? | Weapons personnel |
Before moving an explosives loaded aircraft into a hangar you must | Remove all ammunition and explosives |
All composite material related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT (form) | 55 |
The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to | Identify all possible sources of FOD |
Who is responsible for FOD prevention | Everyone |
When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the | Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent |
In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects | QA |
The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the | Green markings |
Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a | 20 foot radius |
Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check | The aircrew |
When serving as fireguard, you position yourself even with the | Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started |
What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals | AFI 11-218 |
During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order? | Supervisors only |
What are the air forces maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability | Organizational, intermediate, depot |
What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need | Preventive |
Objectives of the MDD system include | Collecting, storing, and retrieving base level data |
What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database | Select serially controlled and time change items |
What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil | 781F |
The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder | After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing |
Engine over temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO | 781J |
Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting | Item managers |
The IMDS is the production oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the | Unit level |
The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by | Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training |
When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your training program | Within 60 days of arrival |
The GAS is normally sent out | 90 days after graduation |
Where can you find a list of training courses for an AFSC | CFETP part 2 |
The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real time | Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses |
Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency? | Reference |
What is the total number of Air Force catalogs? | 1 |
Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists 2 possible responses | Remedy |
What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page | Urgent action |
Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO form 22? | 00-5-1 |
Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency | Urgent |
Which type of non directive publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing then but cannot enforce what's on the form | Pamphlet |
Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet | B-2 |
Which of these is a scissor type maintenance stand | B-4 |
What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support | 8000 |
On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the model 3000 engine trailer is | 20 mph |
What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft | Axle |
Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO form 134 is properly documented | Everyone |
GOX high pressure cylinders are painted | Green with a white band near the top |
When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by | Qualified operators only |
What is the horsepower rating of the Diesel engine powering the SGNSC | 49 |
What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high pressure nitrogen | 4400 psig |
The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to | 3200 psi |
The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of | 200 psi |
The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from | 150 to 280 degrees F |
What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner | 20 mph |
The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from | 47 to 200 degrees F |
The A/M32A-86 generators sets T-R produces | 28.5 VDC |
What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance | A/M32A-60 |
Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60 | 35C2-3-372-11 |
The FL-1D floodlight consist of 2 | 1000 watt lamp fixtures |
What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces | 20 mph |
What is used to drive the MK-3A-1 | An electric motor |
How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated | Number 1 and number 2 |
The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid | 27 gallons |
The MB-4 Coleman incorporates | Four wheel steering, four wheel drive |
What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman | 20 mph |
What type of steering system on the MB-4 eagle tow vehicle provides two wheel steer, four wheel coordinated steer, and four wheel oblique steer | Hydraulic |
Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications | Prevent corrosion |
How are special bolts identified | The bolt head is marked with the letter S |
Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems | Clevis |
Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high tension applications | An internal wrenching type |
Left hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the | Groove on the end of the barrel |
Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal | Soft rubber |
A push pull rod end engagement is checked by | Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal |
What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing | 15 to 20 inches |
The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than | 15 percent of wall thickness |
Generally, low pressure hoses are used for what pressures | 300 psi and below |
The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series using the single wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a | 24 inch length of wire |
Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them | Axially assembled retaining rings |
Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360 degree contact with the groove | Spiral retaining rings |
What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit | Pin and socket contacts |
In the cannon plug code MS3106F-10PW, the letter P indicates | Pin |
When securing widely spaced bolts by the double twist safety method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series | 3 |
Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied | Indicating type |
Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached | Breakaway type |
Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the | Maximum setting at least 6 times |
What are the 2 stresses that a fastener takes when tightened | Tension and torsion |
Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving | Static |
Us the range button on the fluke multimeter to | Move the decimal point |
When the H symbol is shown on the fluke multimeter display the | Touch-hold mode is in use |
Which too is used to measure the gap between two parts | Feeler gauge |
What is the longest possible movement between the micrometers spindle and anvil | 1.0 inch |
Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut | Spring joint calipers |
Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders | Odd leg caliper |
Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame | Slide caliper |
Who is responsible for ensuring good supply discipline is practiced | Supervisors at all levels |
Bench stock levels are established to provide a | 30 day usage |
Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods | AF IMT 1297 |
All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code | ERRC |
Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the | AFTO FORM 350 |
Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters | 1577-2 and 1577-3 |
Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for | 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt |
Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle | Periodic |
Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station checks, major, and minor inspections | Isochronal |
Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements | Programmed depot maintenance |
Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in | Inspection work cards |
Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems | EOR |
The TH inspection is normally performed | After flights when a turn around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled |
Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days | Calendar |
Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents | Acceptance |
To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD form | 1149 |
Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance | 1-1B-50 |
What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, land gear requirements, and payload capacity | Aircraft weight |
Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy | Triage |
Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is | Fabricated of manufactured |
Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is | Exhausted or salvaged |
What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains | Exfoliation |
What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in metal | Stress |
Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in | TO 1-1-691 |
After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from lead acid battery | Sodium bicarbonate |
Atmospheric pressure at sea level is | 14.7 psi |
A barometer is designed to measure pressure in | Inches of mercury |
The primary force an airfoil has to defeat is | Weight |
The force that acts upwards at a right angle to the direction of the relative wind is | Lift |
The that acts parallel to the relative wind is | Drag |
The stress that resists the force tending to cause one layer of material to slide over an adjacent layer is called | Shear |
What is the design that uses an combination of longerons, stringers, bulkheads, and frames in the construction of the fuselage called | Semi-monocoque |
The structural members used to give shape to the aircraft and provide a means for attaching the skin to the structure are called | Stringers |
The most common type of material used for fuselage construction is | Aluminum alloy |
The wing design used on most modern military aircraft is | Cantilever |
The fixed vertical surface of the empennage is called the | Fin |
Engine mounts are typically made of corrosion resistant steel that is able to withstand forces of | 180,000 to 200,000 psi |
The main difference between inspection plates and panels is | Size |
A network of ultrafine cracks that form on or under the surface of transparent plastics is | Crazing |
What are the reference locations in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft called | Waterlines |
Movement about the vertical axis is called | Yaw |
Which flight control surface is a longitudinal control surface | Elevator |
Which of these is attached to the trailing edge of a horizontal stabilizer | Elevator |
When making a right turn, the relative position of the ailerons is the right aileron trailing edge is | Up, left aileron trailing edge is down |
The purpose of wing flaps is to | Increase lift and drag |
The purpose of aircraft trim systems is to | Correct minor deviations in flight altitude |