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Giles CDCs -Volume 1

The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is? 2%
What is the percentage of accidents attributable to unsafe acts and physical hazards? 98%
Which directives are used when performing maintenance procedures? Manuals, TOs, and handbooks
What safety training phase is described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new airman? Initial
A chemical must be identified as a carcinogen in the MDS if concentrations are greater than? 0.1%
Hazardous waste management system rules are published by EPA
Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a central accumulation point cannot exceed 90 days
What affects radiation hazards Strength of emission, time of exposure, weather
The recommended procedure for cooling an overheated brake assembly is to park the aircraft in an isolated location and then Allow the assembly to cool in the ambient air
The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear of the engine and to either side at an angle of 45 degrees
Which symptom is not a sign of noise fatigue A feeling of emptiness
When launching an aircraft containing live ammunition, who is responsible for removing the safety devices associated with these explosive devices? Weapons personnel
Before moving an explosives loaded aircraft into a hangar you must Remove all ammunition and explosives
All composite material related safety training must be documented on which AF IMT (form) 55
The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to Identify all possible sources of FOD
Who is responsible for FOD prevention Everyone
When a lost tool cannot be located, the lowest person authorized to clear a red X is the Maintenance operations officer/maintenance superintendent
In most units, who is responsible for investigating dropped objects QA
The pressure in a fire extinguisher is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the Green markings
Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should remain outside a 20 foot radius
Who is responsible for the -1 TO preflight check The aircrew
When serving as fireguard, you position yourself even with the Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started
What reference covers internationally accepted hand signals AFI 11-218
During an aircraft tow, who is authorized to give the "all clear to move" order? Supervisors only
What are the air forces maintenance capabilities in order of increasing capability Organizational, intermediate, depot
What type of maintenance ensures that equipment is ready and available at the time of need Preventive
Objectives of the MDD system include Collecting, storing, and retrieving base level data
What information does the configuration management subsystem ensure is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database Select serially controlled and time change items
What AFTO 781 series form is used as a source document for obtaining billing information for fuel and oil 781F
The AFTO 781 must be removed from the forms binder After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing
Engine over temperature conditions are recorded on an AFTO 781J
Who determines which items in the MDS specific -6 TO need historical reporting Item managers
The IMDS is the production oriented, automated maintenance management system to give managers visibility and control of resources at the Unit level
The training management subsystem aids trainers and supervisors by Helping with forecasting and scheduling personnel for training
When should you accomplish an initial evaluation in your training program Within 60 days of arrival
The GAS is normally sent out 90 days after graduation
Where can you find a list of training courses for an AFSC CFETP part 2
The TBA provides Air Force personnel with global, real time Visibility of personnel technical qualifications, certifications, and training statuses
Which TO library does not need to maintain publication currency? Reference
What is the total number of Air Force catalogs? 1
Which column in the TS manual gives instructions that call for an action and lists 2 possible responses Remedy
What TCTO is identified by a series of red diagonals alternately spaced with red Xs around the border of the first page Urgent action
Which TO outlines the procedures for entries on the AFTO form 22? 00-5-1
Which TO improvement report type requires action on a TO deficiency which, if not corrected, could cause reduced operational efficiency Urgent
Which type of non directive publication may cite forms and provide guidance on completing then but cannot enforce what's on the form Pamphlet
Which maintenance stand has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet B-2
Which of these is a scissor type maintenance stand B-4
What is the maximum load, in pounds, that the model 4000 engine trailer can support 8000
On straightaways the maximum towing speed for the model 3000 engine trailer is 20 mph
What type of jack is normally used to change a tire on an aircraft Axle
Who is responsible for ensuring that the AFTO form 134 is properly documented Everyone
GOX high pressure cylinders are painted Green with a white band near the top
When servicing aircraft the gaseous nitrogen servicing trailer can be operated by Qualified operators only
What is the horsepower rating of the Diesel engine powering the SGNSC 49
What is the maximum pressure that the SGNSC can deliver high pressure nitrogen 4400 psig
The usable pressure range of the MC-1A air compressor is 0 to 3200 psi
The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure of 200 psi
The H-1 heater has an adjustable heat output that ranges from 150 to 280 degrees F
What is the maximum tow speed for a C-10 air conditioner 20 mph
The C-10 air conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air in a range from 47 to 200 degrees F
The A/M32A-86 generators sets T-R produces 28.5 VDC
What unit is capable of providing AC and DC electrical power, in addition to pneumatic power, for ground maintenance A/M32A-60
Which technical order has operation and servicing information for the A/M32A-60 35C2-3-372-11
The FL-1D floodlight consist of 2 1000 watt lamp fixtures
What is the maximum towing speed of the FL-1D floodlight on smooth surfaces 20 mph
What is used to drive the MK-3A-1 An electric motor
How are the hydraulic systems on the MK-3A-1 hydraulic test stand designated Number 1 and number 2
The MJ-2A reservoir holds what amount of fluid 27 gallons
The MB-4 Coleman incorporates Four wheel steering, four wheel drive
What is the maximum governed speed of the MB-4 Coleman 20 mph
What type of steering system on the MB-4 eagle tow vehicle provides two wheel steer, four wheel coordinated steer, and four wheel oblique steer Hydraulic
Why are aluminum alloy washers used with steel bolts on aluminum alloy parts in low torque applications Prevent corrosion
How are special bolts identified The bolt head is marked with the letter S
Which bolt is never used in areas where tension is present but is often used as pins in control systems Clevis
Which bolt has a recessed head and is used in high tension applications An internal wrenching type
Left hand threads on a turnbuckle can be identified by the Groove on the end of the barrel
Normally, what type of material is used in the construction of a pressure seal Soft rubber
A push pull rod end engagement is checked by Inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal
What is the interval that should be used for installing cushion clips on aircraft tubing 15 to 20 inches
The allowable limit for nicks and scratches on a straight section of aircraft tubing is no deeper than 15 percent of wall thickness
Generally, low pressure hoses are used for what pressures 300 psi and below
The limit for securing closely spaced bolts in series using the single wire safety method is the maximum number of bolts that can be secured using a 24 inch length of wire
Which retaining rings are manufactured with small holes in the lugs that can be removed and installed by pliers specially designed for use with them Axially assembled retaining rings
Which retaining rings are installed into housings or onto shafts making 360 degree contact with the groove Spiral retaining rings
What part of a cannon plug completes the electrical circuit Pin and socket contacts
In the cannon plug code MS3106F-10PW, the letter P indicates Pin
When securing widely spaced bolts by the double twist safety method, what is the maximum number of bolts that may be wired in a series 3
Which torque wrench indicates the amount of torque or twisting action being applied Indicating type
Which torque wrench is designed to automatically release when a predetermined torque value is reached Breakaway type
Prior to using a torque wrench, cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the Maximum setting at least 6 times
What are the 2 stresses that a fastener takes when tightened Tension and torsion
Which type of friction is defined as the force that exists between two physical bodies to keep them from moving Static
Us the range button on the fluke multimeter to Move the decimal point
When the H symbol is shown on the fluke multimeter display the Touch-hold mode is in use
Which too is used to measure the gap between two parts Feeler gauge
What is the longest possible movement between the micrometers spindle and anvil 1.0 inch
Which caliper is joined by a strong spring hinge, screw, and adjustment nut Spring joint calipers
Which caliper is used for finding shaft centers or locating shoulders Odd leg caliper
Which caliper has the words "IN" and "OUT" stamped on the frame Slide caliper
Who is responsible for ensuring good supply discipline is practiced Supervisors at all levels
Bench stock levels are established to provide a 30 day usage
Which form is used to issue an item of equipment for short, specified periods AF IMT 1297
All items that come through supply channels are assigned what type of code ERRC
Within maintenance the internal control of reparable items is accomplished through the AFTO FORM 350
Which DD forms are easily identified by their green margins and letters 1577-2 and 1577-3
Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for 100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt
Which inspection is due on the accrual of a set number of flying or operating hours, or at the expiration of a calendar period specified in the applicable aircraft specific -6 technical order and is a thorough inspection of the entire aerospace vehicle Periodic
Which inspection concept uses specified calendar intervals to build a schedule and consists of the home station checks, major, and minor inspections Isochronal
Which inspection examines areas, components, and systems to a degree beyond -6 technical order inspection requirements Programmed depot maintenance
Minimum aircraft inspection requirements are outlined in Inspection work cards
Which inspection is usually performed just prior to takeoff and may include operational checks of some systems EOR
The TH inspection is normally performed After flights when a turn around sortie or continuation flight is scheduled
Which inspection is required if an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days Calendar
Which inspection ensures the completeness of historical documents Acceptance
To transfer -21 equipment through transportation channels, you should use a DD form 1149
Which TO should be consulted for detailed information about weight and balance 1-1B-50
What is used in determining design criteria such as engine requirements, wing area, land gear requirements, and payload capacity Aircraft weight
Which medical concept forms the basis of ABDR assessment philosophy Triage
Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part begins the instant it is Fabricated of manufactured
Corrosion or deterioration of a metal part continues until the part is Exhausted or salvaged
What type of corrosion can be recognized by a lifting up or swelling of the metal grains Exfoliation
What corrosion type appears as corroded cracks in metal Stress
Alkaline and solvent cleaners authorized for use on our aircraft are specified in TO 1-1-691
After treatment which solution is used to neutralize areas affected with electrolyte from lead acid battery Sodium bicarbonate
Atmospheric pressure at sea level is 14.7 psi
A barometer is designed to measure pressure in Inches of mercury
The primary force an airfoil has to defeat is Weight
The force that acts upwards at a right angle to the direction of the relative wind is Lift
The that acts parallel to the relative wind is Drag
The stress that resists the force tending to cause one layer of material to slide over an adjacent layer is called Shear
What is the design that uses an combination of longerons, stringers, bulkheads, and frames in the construction of the fuselage called Semi-monocoque
The structural members used to give shape to the aircraft and provide a means for attaching the skin to the structure are called Stringers
The most common type of material used for fuselage construction is Aluminum alloy
The wing design used on most modern military aircraft is Cantilever
The fixed vertical surface of the empennage is called the Fin
Engine mounts are typically made of corrosion resistant steel that is able to withstand forces of 180,000 to 200,000 psi
The main difference between inspection plates and panels is Size
A network of ultrafine cracks that form on or under the surface of transparent plastics is Crazing
What are the reference locations in the vertical direction measured from a reference datum that is usually well below the aircraft called Waterlines
Movement about the vertical axis is called Yaw
Which flight control surface is a longitudinal control surface Elevator
Which of these is attached to the trailing edge of a horizontal stabilizer Elevator
When making a right turn, the relative position of the ailerons is the right aileron trailing edge is Up, left aileron trailing edge is down
The purpose of wing flaps is to Increase lift and drag
The purpose of aircraft trim systems is to Correct minor deviations in flight altitude
Created by: PhantomGile
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