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upper eval final

QuestionAnswer
3 mechanisms that may rupture the tympanic membrane. 1. untreated infection from otitis media 2. Mechanical force 3. exertion that might cause undo stress on tympanic membrane
How many types of lefort fractures are there and describe. three/ 1. through maxilla 2. c-shaped from maxilla through orbital and nasal bone 3. straight across from zygomatic arch through orbital and nasal bone
What is the typical cause of spontaneous epistaxis? Warm weather that causes the blood vessels to be pushed up torwards the surface superficially giving them a higher incidence of rupture.
Asymmetry or angulation of the nasal passsage may be indicative of what pathology? Deviated septum
What is the medical term for raccoon eyes? periorbital ecchymosis
What would be indicative of acute throat pain? pain at the thyroid cartilage (superiorly)and the cricoid cartilage(inferiorly) with possible respiration problems.
What would be involved when dealing with throat pain due to illness? pain when swallowing and more internal pain and tenderness around lymph nodes.
What is the weber test testing for? tests for hearing loss due to infection of otitis media.
How do you perform the weber test? place tuning fork on frontal bone and athlete should hear the vibrations louder in the affected ear.
repeated nasal trauma that causes necrosis of the nasal cartilage forming a bump on the nose is called what? saddle nose deformity
how would you inspect for a deviated septum? use a pen light or otoscope to inspect the internal nasal canal and then depress one of the nostrils and observe the other nostril depress on inhalation and expand on exhalation.
four s/s for for nasal fracture? pain swelling ecchymosis pain radiating in the frontal bone and possibly to the zygoma.
what is it called when there is deviation in the normal alignment of two opposable tissues malalignment
what is the medical condition that is a result of the inhibition of the facial nerves secondary to trauma or disease? bell's palsy
medical term for ringing in ears tinnitus
medical term for inflammation of the nasal sinus sinusitis
medical term for nosebleed epistaxis
ecchymosis around the mastoid process is called what? battle's sign
what is the clinical sign of a nasal or skull fracture in which blood follows the normal contour of the bone to rest beneath the eyes? periorbital ecchymosis
medical term for inflammation of the gums gingivitis
what kind of hearing loss can be expected immediately after a blow to the ear? transitory
what is the brown reddish wax that is formed in the auditory meatus? cerumen
repeated trauma or shearing forces to the external ear can result in what? auricular hematoma
what is the medical term for the infection of the external auditory meatus that is commonly termed swimmers ear? otitis externa
What is the second most common type of facial fracture. mandibular
what is the first most common type of facial fracture? nasal
what is the medical term for someone who is having difficulty speaking or is unable to speak? aphasia
What type of fracture occurs concurrently with nasal fractures? maxillae
blows to the cheek and inferior periorbital area may result in a fracture of what? zygomatic arch
what may be injured also along with the mandible from a blow to the jaw? TMJ
When assessing the cervical spine injury what are two important components regarding history? Location of pain: radiating or localized Onset of pain: acute, chronic, or insidious
what are three things you should look for when inspecting the cervical spine? head position, cervical curvature, soft tissue comparison
what does a positive babinski test indicate? upper motor neuron lesion
What are the two types of moi's in regards to the brachial plexus. Tension/Compression
why does the shoulder abduction test relieve symptoms? relieves pressure on the impinged nerve root or herniated disk
name 3 symptoms you look for in the vertebral artery test nystagmus, nausea, inilateral pupil dysfunction, dizziness, confusion
what would these symptoms indicate occlusion of cervical vertebral artery. immediate referral
identify & define the two types of amnesia retrograde- patient can't remember past events anteriograde- patient can't remember things after the hit
explain how you would test for retro grade and anterio grade amnesia? retro- 3 word recall anterio- opponent from last week
what signs & symptoms would constitue a grade I concussion according to American academy of neurology scale transient confusion, loss of balance/coordination, headache, retro amnesia; any symptoms resolve within 15 min, no LOC
apneustic breathing pattern prolonged inspirations unrelieved by attempts to exhale
what is a jefferson's fx occurs in a circular bone
What is an abnormally accelerated pulse? pulse >150 beats per min.
what is cheyne-stokes patern? periods of apnea followed by breaths of increasing depth & frequency
What does PEARL stand for? pupils equal and reactive to light`
What is the def. of lucid mentally clear
biot's Breathing pattern? periods of apnea followed by hyperapnea
decorticate position? flexion of elbows and wrists, clenched fists
low tension pulse ? short, fast, faint pulse having a rapid decline
decerebrate position? extension of extremities and retraction of head
Second Impact Syndrome? possible consequence of returning an athlete to play too soon after a concussion
linnear fracture referred to as hairline fractures, cased by blunt impact to the cranium
flexion contracture posture that is characterized by arms being flexed across chest.
hyper reflexoria increased action of the reflexes
nystagmus uncontrolled side-to-side movement of eyes
anascoria medical term for unequal pupils
coup mechanism caused by a moving head striking a stationary object, resulting in trauma to the brain on the opposite side of impact
battle's sign ecchymosis over the mastoid process, may indicate a basilar skull fracture
Halo test to determine the presence of cerbrospinal fuid leakage
cranial nerve III pupillary changes following a head injury may be indicative of increased intracranial pressure on
Mild concussion (1st) return to play if asymptomatic after 15 minutes
mild concussion (2nd) out 2 wks may return if asymptomatic for 1 wk
mild concussion (3rd) terminate season, may return following season if asymptomatic
moderate concussion (1st) return after asymptomatic for 1 wk
moderate concussion (2nd) out minimum of 1 om; may return then if asymptomatic for 1 wk; consider terminating season
moderate concussion (3rd) terminate season' may return following season if asymptomatic; consider terminating career
severe concussion (1st) out minimum of 1 mo; may return to play then if asymptomatic for 1 wk
severe concussion (2nd) terminate season; may return following season if asymptomatic; consider terminating season
severe concussion (3) terminate career
describe pain pattern typically presents with tendonitis & bursitis Early on pain is described as being deep within the shoulder in the subacromial area after activity. Then symptoms progress to pain during activity, followed by constant pain in every day activities.
2 causes of subscapular winging Weakness in the serratus anterior muscle and occlusion of the long thoracic nerve
identify 3 main static restraints of the GH joint GH capsule, GH ligaments, Glenoid labrum
scapulohumeral rhythm. process of movement of the scapula along the scapulothoracis region/scapulothoracis joint with abduction/adduction
in the HISTORY portion how do you differentiate between shoulder & cervical nerve root pathology Symptoms such as radiating pain down arm would clue me in the cervical neck pain versus just a constant radiating pain in the shoulder girdle area.
which structures are being compromised and how with the Adson's test The Adson’s test attempts to depress the shoulder complex and place the medial cord of the brachial plexus, subclavian artery, and the subclavian vein on stretch while simultaneously placing pressure on the bundle from the anterior scalene muscle.
what 2 conditions/pathologies/injuries may be indicated from observing patient with head bent to one side SC joint injury or clavicular fracture
What are the four types of acromion shapes? type 1: flat type 2: curved type 3:hooked type 4:hooked with spurs
What four symptoms will an individual present with when there is an arterial onset of thoracic outlet syndrome? cold clammy skin, cyanosis, pallor, muscular weakness
what does the acronym SLAP refer to ? Superior Labrum Anterior Posterior
Where does a SLAP lesion tear usually occur? At the insertion of the long head of the biceps tendon where it inserts at the glenoid.
Athlete has pain with protraction and retraction of the scapula what joint could be injured? AC joint or SC Joint
Athlete has parasthesia along the areas of the c8-t1 dermatome. What pathology could be present and what is the associated onset? Thoracic outlet syndrome with nerovascular bundle pathology.
What special test tests for laxity of a static stabilizer of the GH joint? glenohumeral glide test
What special test tests for biceps tendon inflamation? speeds test
What special test tests for a sprain of the AC ligament? AC traction test
What special test tests for supraspinatous pathology? neer shoulder impingement test
What special test tests for a rotator cuff lesion? Drop arm test
What special test tests for laxity in the posterior GH capsule? posterior apprehension test
What special test tests for superior displacement of the clavicle? piano key sign
What special test tests for long head of the biceps brachii tendon rupture? ludingtons test
what sign is a refered pain sight for an injured spleen? kehr's sign
What special test tests for laxity in the superior GH ligament? sulcus sign
What is the smooth muscle contraction producing a wavelike motion that moves matter through the intestines called? perostalisis
rebound tenderness in the lower right quadrant may be indicative of what? appendicitis
rapid shallow breaths may be indicative of what three things? internal injuries, shock, fracture
low blood pressure is indicated by what systolic value? 100 mm HG or below
low blood pressure is indicated by what diastolic value? 65 mm Hg or below
what is the accumulation of air in the pleural cavity that disrupts the lungs ability to expand and draw oxygen called? pneumothorax
what condition is indicated by a resting heart rate of greater than 100bpm? tachychardia
what three things should align bilaterally when inspecting the level of the shoulders? clavicle, sc joint, ac joint
what type of shoulder dislocation is considered a medical emergency that may cause jeopardy to the neurovascular structures and the trachea or lung? Posterior sc joint dislocation
what is a congenitally undescended scapula called medically? sprengels deformity
what condition occurs when four or more ribs are fractured in two places? flail chest
what structure functions as a shock absorber and acts as the axis for clavicular rotation? sternoclavicular disc
what is the term for a lack of color in the skin? pallor
What is cubitus valgus? a carrying angle in which the ulna/radial complex is abducted in alignment to the humerus away from the body.
what is cubitus varus? a carrying angle where the ulna/radial complex is adducted in alignment on the humerus.
what two muscles make up the lateral border of the anatomical snuff box? ext pollicus brevis and the abductor pollicus longus
what muscle makes up the medial border of the anatomical snuff box? ext pollicus longus
why are injures to the rcl ligament of the elbow rare? because of the protection of the body to varus stress.
what is the most commonly affected muscle in an individual with lateral epicondylitis? extensor carpi radialis
What is the typical MOI for osteochondritis dessicans of the capitulum? valgus force that causes compression of the radial head on the capitelum which over time causes OCD's.
what is the MOI for a elbow dislocation? slightly flexed arm with an axial load to the wrist/hand complex.
what are two signs and symptoms associated with a elbow dislocation? hysteria, obvious deformity
what injury is characterized by flexion of the MCP and DIP joints and Hyperextension of the PIP Joint? Swan Neck deformity
what bone in the wrist is involved with most fractures due to it being a bony block limiting wrist extension? scaphoid
what is the injury that has an avulsion of the common tendon from its attachment site and is the result of tension build up in the medial epicondyle? little leaguer's elbow
what is the name of the disease where osteoporosis of the scaphoid happens as a result from fracture or repeated trauma? Preisers disease
what injury occurs when an avulsion or stretching of an extensor tendon results in the inability to fully extend the distal phalanx? Mallet finger
what is the problem called that is associated with tenosynovitis of the extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus tendons? De Quervians Syndrome
what is the infection around the periphery of the fingernail called? paronychia
what hand posture is caused by the inhibition of the median nerve that results in atrophy of the muscles within the thenar eminence? Ape hand
what is the disease that causes osteochondritis or slow degeneration of the lunate bone called? Keinbocks Disease
what two nerves pass through the area of the cubital fossa? Median and musculocutaneous nerve
Fractures of the 5th metacarpal are termed what? Boxers fracture
what had posture is caused by inhibition of the ulnar nerve and results in atrophy of the hypothenar, interossei, and medial two lumbrical muscles? Bishops deformity
Fractures of the first metacarpal that extend into the articular surface are termed what kind of fractures? Bennett's Fractures
What ligament is stressed secondary to valgus loading of the humeroulnar joint of the elbow? UCL
inspection of the cubital fossa following a distal biceps tendon rupture will reveal swelling and what? ecchymosis
what kind of dislocation results when the distal carpal row is stripped away from the lunate, resulting in the lunate resting dorsally relative to the other carpals? Perilunate dislocation
Fractues of the forearm or dislocations of the elbow may lead to the onset of what? Volkmans Ischemic Contracture's
when there are signs and symptoms in regard to compression of the median nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel what is the condition referred to as? Carpal tunnel syndrome
what is an infection or abscess at or distal to the DIP joints and arise secondary to contusions or lacerations? a Felon
what is the condition called when there is a flexion contracture of the MCP and PIP joints caused by a shortening of the palmar fascia? Dupuyterns contracture
What special test tests for anterior interosseus nerve pathology? Pinch grip test
What special test tests for cubital fossa syndrome? elbow flexion test
What special test tests the anterior capsule of the elbow? Hyperextension test
What special test tests for Medial epicondylitis? Golfers elbow test
What special test tests for lateral epicondylitis? Tennis elbow test
What special test tests for chronic instability of the elbow? Posterolateral rotatory instability test
What special test tests the RCL of the elbow? Varus stress test
What special test tests for radial or ulnar nerve compromise? Tinel's sign
What special test tests UCL of the elbow? Valgus stress test
What special test tests for carpal tunnel syndrome? phalen test
What special test tests for de quervains disease? finkelstein's test
What special test tests for problems with the TFCC in your wrist? Wrist glide test
What special test tests the ucl for your wrist? wrist valgus stress test
What special test tests for subluxation of the scaphoid? watsons's test
What special sign shows us a dislocated lunate? murphy's sign
What special test tests for denervated tissue in the wrist/hand? Wrinkle test
What special sign shows us adductor pollicus muscle paralysis? fromet's sign
What special test tests for occlusion of the radial or ulnar arteries? digital allen's test
What special test tests for intrinsic muscle or capsular tightness? Bunnel littleer test
What special test tests the RCL of the wrist? wrist varus stress test
Created by: shsuman152