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NASM Extensive Quiz

NASM

QuestionAnswer
What plane divides the body into top and bottom halves and consists of internal and external rotation movements? A. transverse B. frontal C. saggital D. posterior A. Transverse
How many repetitions are performed during resistance training in Phase 3 of the Optimum Performance Training Model? A. 1-15 B. 6-12 C. 15-20 D. over 25 6-12
Vessels that transport blood away from the heart are called A. arteries B. veins C. venules D. atrium arteries
The alignment and function of all components of the kinetic chain at any given moment is known as A. neuromuscular efficiency B. functional efficiency C. posture D. postural equilibrium posture
Which of these muscles would be MOST appropriate to stretch if your client demonstrates an excessive forward lean during an overhead assessment? A. Hip flexor complex B. Medial hamstring C. Internal oblique D. Rhomboids Hip Flexor complex
When performing core exercises what is the correct position for a client's cervical spine? A. cervical protraction B. cervical neutral position C. cervical extension D. cervical rotation cervical neutral position
Which of the following bioenergetic pathways PRIMARILY break down carbohydrates to rapidly produce ATP? A. ATP-CP B. Glycolysis C. oxidative D. aerobic glycolysis
The power training block of the OPT model strives to MOST improve A. muscular endurance B. stabilization strength C. rate of force production D. hypertrophy rate of force production
The MOST appropriate chest exercise to use during phase 1 of the OPT model is A. stability ball dumbell press B. barbell bench press C. medicine ball chest pass D. single leg squat on a half foam roll stability ball dumbbell press
Which exercise is performed PREDOMINANTLY in the sagittal plane? A. Ice skater B. Bicep Curls C. Side Lateral Raise D. Hip abductor Bicep curls
Which of the following neurons transmit nerve impulses from effector sites to the brain or spinal cord? A. interneurons B. motor (efferent) neurons C. Sensory (afferent) neurons D. Neurotransmitters sensory (afferent) neurons
Poor posture and repetitive movements may create dysfunctions in the connective tissue, initiating the A. cumulative injury cycle B. restoration of extensibility C. integrated flexibility continuum D. proper movement patterns cumulative injury cycle
The rectus abdominus is responsible for A. concentrically accelerating spinal flexion B. concentrically accelerating hip abduction and internal rotation C. isometrically stabilizing the foot and ankle complex D. concentrically accelerating spinal extensio concentrically accelerating spinal flexion
Static stretching is considered what type of flexibility training? A. corrective B. active C. Dynamic D. Functional corrective
Trauma to the tissue of the body creates inflammation resulting in muscle spasm and adhesions. If left unchecked these adhesions can begin to form permanent structural changes in the soft tissue evident by which law? A. Law of specificity B. Davis's Law C Davis's Law
Which of the following assessments BEST measures cardiovascular efficiency? A. Davies Test B. Step Test C. Shark Skill Test D. Waist to Hip Ratio Step Test
Which of the following sensory receptors are MOST sensitive to change in length of muscle and the rate of that change? A. Join receptors B. Golgi Tendon organs C. Muscle spindles D. Chemoreceptors Muscle spindles
The "reverse crunch" is considered what type of exercise? A. core stabilization B. Core strength C. Balance power D. Dynamic flexibility Core strength
When a muscle is exerting less force than being placed on it, resulting in the lengthening of the muscle this is known as what type of contraction? A. Eccentric B. Concentric C. Isometric D. Excitation Contraction Coupling Eccentric
An anatomical location reffering to a position described as being closer to the middle of the body from a reference point is known as A. superior B. Lateral C. inferior D. medial medial
Clients who have progressed to the strength level of the OPT model would be prepared for which of the following cardiorespiratory zones? A. Zone one B. Zone two C. Zone three D. Zone four Zone two
What is the fourth phase of OPT? A. Stabilization Endurance Training B. Strength endurance training C. power training D. Maximal Strength training Maximal Strength training
What exercise is performed PREDOMINANTLY in the frontal plane? A. cable row rotation B. Bicep curl C. Ice Skater D. Chest Press Ice Skater
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following stretches would be MOST appropriate? A. standing pectoral wall stretch B. static upper trapezius/scalene stretch C. static kneeling hip flexor stretch static kneeling hip flexor stretch
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Type I muscle fibers? A. slow to fatigue B. slow twitch C. decreased oxygen delivery D. smaller in size decreased oxygen delivery
The synergistic action of muscles to produce movement around a joint is known as A. force-couple B. excitation contraction coupling C. motor control D. force-velocity curve force-couple
Which of the following exercise positions should be avoided in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters of pregnancy? A. supine B. Standing C. seated D. staggered stance supine
What percentage of communication is based on physiology (stance, eye contact, etc.)? A. 10% B. 25% C. 55% D. 65% 55%
Which of the following foods has the highest glycemic index? A. soy beans B. kidney beans C. lentils D. honey honey
An anatomical location referring to a position on the same side of the body is known as A. ipsilateral B. lateral C. contralateral D. inferior ipsilateral
What muscle(s) are MOST likely to tight (overactive) if a client demonstrates an arching low back during the overhead squat assessment? A. transverse abdominus B. Multifidis C. Hip flexors D. gluteus maximus Hip flexors
Which of the following muscle fibers are smaller in size and contain a high number of capillaries, mitochondria and myoglobin? A. Type I B. Type II C. Type IIa D. Type IIb Type I
A proprioceptively enriched environment challenges an individual's A. maximum strength capabilities B. hypertrophy gains C. internal balance and stabilization D. maximum cardiac output internal balance and stabilization
A core-training program for a new client should be progressed by A. starting with crunches before any other exercise B. starting with an explosive tempo gradually reducing tempo C. starting with a slow steady tempo and gradually increasing velocity starting with a slow steady tempo and gradually increasing velocity
The length at which a muscle can produce the greatest amount of force is known as A. torque B. length-tension relationship C. force-velocity curve d. sensorimotor integration length-tension relationship
Which exercise is performed PREDOMINANTLY in the transverse plane? A. cable rotations B. bicep curls C. military press D. ball squats cable rotations
After completion of the Rockport Walk Assessment a client earns a "fair" score. Which heart rate training zone is MOST appropriate when administering a cardiorespiratory program? A. Zone 1. 65%-75% max heart rate B. Zone 2. 76%-85% max heart rate C. Zone Zone 1. 65%-75% max heart rate
An example of "back stabilization" exercise would be a A. standing cable row B. machine lat pulldown C. soccer throw D. seated cable row standing cable row
The ATP-CP system MOST OFTEN provides energy for what types of activity? A. Moderate intensity, moderate duration activities B. low intensity, long duration activities C. low intensity, short duration activities D. high intensity, short duration active high intensity, short duration activities
Which of the following muscles would be the MOST appropriate to stretch if your client's head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment? A. mid/lower trapezius B. Deep cervical flexors C. levator scapulae D. rhomboids levator scapulae
which of the following groups of nutrients when taken in excess can cause serious adverse effects including; birth defects, calcification of blood vessels, and damage to sensory nerves? A. A, D, and B-6 B. C, E, and Selenium C. carbohydrates, fats, and pr A, D, and B-6
The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscle is known as A. intramuscular coordination B. intermuscular coordination C. arthrokinematics D. pelvo-ocular reflex intramuscular coordination
Improving muscle imbalances, stabilizing the core musculature, and establishing proper movement patterns are all goals of what training block of the OPT model? A. power B. strength C. functional D. stabilization stabilization
Good levels of neuromuscular control, tissue extensibility, core stability, and balance are recommended before suggesting what type of stretching? A. static stretching B. Active stretching C. Dynamic stretching D. self-myofascial release Dynamic stretching
The typical heart rate for an adult is between A. 30-40 beats per minute B. 50-60 beats per minute C. 70-80 beats per minute D. 90-100 beats per minute 70-80 beats per minute
What phase of the OPT model supersets "strength" exercises with "stabilization" exercises during resistance training? A. stabilization endurance training B. strength endurance training C. hypertrophy training D. power training strength endurance training
In recent studies circuit weight training has been shown to demonstrate which of the following? A. produced lower levels of EPOC and strength B. much lower caloric expenditure than brisk walking C. Is equally beneficial to traditional cardiorespiratory Is equally beneficial to traditional cardiorespiratory methods
Which phase of the OPT model supersets "strength" exercises with "power" exercises during resistance training? A. stabilization endurance training B. strength endurance training C. maximal strength training D. power training power training
An anatomical location referring to a position above a reference point is known as A. inferior B. proximal C. superior D. distal superior
What is an example of a ball and socket joint? A. hip joint B. elbow C. knee D. vertebrae hip joint
Which of the following provides the health and fitness professional with ongoing information to modify and progress a client through an integrated program? A. PAR-Q B. liability release C. fitness assessment D. body mass index fitness assessment
A 50 year old client is 5'10' tall and weighs 250lbs. His blood pressure is 140/90mm Hg and his resting heart rate is 90 beats per minute. which of the following exercises is contraindicated for this client? D.ball medicine ball pullover throw ball medicine ball pullover throw
Bioelectrical impedance, and underwater weighing asses which of the following? A. hip to waist ratio B. cardiorespiratory efficiency C. body fat percentage D. body mass index body fat percentage
Maximal strength is BEST defined as; A. the initial reaction to a stressor such as increased oxygen and blood supply to the necessary areas of the body D. the maximum force that a muscle can produce in a single, voluntary effort, regardless of velocity the maximum force that a muscle can produce in a single, voluntary effort, regardless of velocity
Which of the following muscles acts as an antagonist during 'overhead press" exercise? A. rotator cuff B. tricep C. latissimus dorsi D. deltoid latissimus dorsi
What is known as the study that uses principles of physics to quantitatively study how forces interact within a body? A. biomechanics B. biochemistry C. functional anatomy D. exercise science biomechanics
Hypertrophy is BEST defined as; A. enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension B. the maximum force that a muscle can produce in a single, voluntary effort, regardless of velocity C. ability of the mu enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension
Beta-blockers are MOST often used for clients suffering from A. hypertension B. bronchitis C. depression D. diabetes hypertension
Skeletal muscle: Breaking the bundles down into layers from the outer to innermost, the first is the actual muscle itself wrapped by an outer layer of connective tissue called fascia and an inner layer immediately surrounding the muscles called A. Perimys epimysium
Which of the following exercises would be considered a "total body strength" exercise? A. ball squat, curl to press B. lunge to two-arm dumbell press C. Two-arm push press D. multiplanar step-up balance to overhead press lunge to two-arm dumbell press
In a balance training program, which of the following MOST accurately describes proper proprioceptive challenge progression? A. half foam roll, airex pad, floor B. dyna disc, airex pad, dyna disc C. half foam roll, floor, dyna disc half foam roll, floor, dyna disc
An example of an objective assessment would include which of the following? A. general and medical history B. PAR-Q C. employment D. physiological Assessments physiological Assessments
During the eccentric phase of the Single-leg squat assessment, the client demonstrates an abducted and internally rotated knee. All are contributors to the abnormal movement pattern, EXCEPT: A. Overactive Adductor Complex D. overactive Gluteus Medius overactive Gluteus Medius
Clients that demonstrate poor flexibility (limited muscle extensibility and joint range of motion) will MOST likely develop which of the following? A. relative flexibility B. diastolic pressure C. sensorimotor integration D. anaerobic glycolysis relative flexibility
An anatomical location referring to a position below a reference point is known as A. superior B. contralateral C. distal D. inferior inferior
What is the proper formula to calculate a client's Body Mass Index? A. weight (kg) / Height (m) B. Height (kg) / weight (m) C. Weight (kg2) / Height (m2) D. Weight (kg) / Height (m2) Weight (kg) / Height (m2)
Which phase of training comprise the "strength" block of the OPT mode? A. stabilization endurance training, strength endurance training, hypertrophy training B. strength endurance training, hypertrophy training, maximal strength training strength endurance training, hypertrophy training, maximal strength training
What muscle(s) are MOST likely weak (underactive) if a client demonstrates knees move inward during the overhead squat assessment? A. Psoas B. latissimus dorsi C. soleus D. gluteus medius gluteus medius
The OPT model is broken into which three building blocks? A. stabilization, strength & power B. strength, endurance & power C. strength, cardiorespiratory, & nutrition D. fat loss, strength, and hypertrophy stabilization, strength & power
Approximately how many amino acids does the body use? A. 8 B. 10 C. 20 D. 30 20
Efficient movement requires ALL of the following EXCEPT: A. relative flexibility B. proper length-tension relationships C. proper force-couple relationships D. proper arthrokinematics relative flexibility
Which bioenergetic pathway is limited in its capacity to sustain energy production because it must rely on the minimal storage of adenosine triphosphate and creatine phosphate within the cells? A. ATP-CP B. glycolysis ATP-CP
All of the following are examples of disaccharides EXCEPT: A. sucrose B. lactose C. maltose D. galactose galactose
What is the normal systolic reading when measuring blood pressure? A. 120-130 mm Hg B. 140-150 mm Hg C. 160-179 mm Hg D. 180-190 mm Hg 120-130 mm Hg
How many calories does one gram of fat yield? A. 4 B. 9 C. 10 D. 12 9
Phase 1 of the OPT Model requires __ sets for each exercise during the resistance training portion of the workout A. 1-3 B. 4-5 C. 6-7 D. 8+ 1-3
Questions that can be answered with a simple "yes" or "no" are known as A. nondirective questions B. directive questions C. assessment questions D. PAR-Q questions directive questions
The functional unit of the muscle formed by repeating sections of actin and myosin and lies int he space between two Z lines is known as A. mitochondria B. sarcolema C. Sarcomere D. myofibril Sarcomere
What is the appropriate tempo for resistance training exercises when training in phase 1 of the OPT model? A. 4-2-1 B. 3-2-1 C. 2-0-2 D. 1-1-1 4-2-1
What muscles are possibly tight (overactive) if a client demonstrates turned out feet during the overhead squat assessment? A. anterior tibialis B. posterior tibialis C. soleus D. Gluteus Maximus soleus
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates arms falling forward. Which of the following stretches would be MOST appropriate? A. standing pectoral wall stretch B. static gastrocnemius stretch C. static kneeling hip flexor stretch standing pectoral wall stretch
Arterioles branch out into a multitude of microscopic blood vessels known as A. arteries B. capillaries C. venules D. veins capillaries
When all of the components of the kinetic chain are functioning properly the results include: appropriate length-tension relationships, force-couple relationships, and which of the following? A. joint autogenic inhibition C. join arthrokinematics join arthrokinematics
If a client demonstrates arms that fall forward during the overhead squat, which muscle(s) are MOST likely weak (underactive)? A. pectoralis major B. lower trapezius C. upper trapezius D. latissimus dorsi lower trapezius
Which phase of the OPT model uses the longest rest periods to maximize ATP replenishment necessary for lifting heavy loads? A. stabilization endurance training B. strength endurance training C. maximal strength training D. Hypertrophy training maximal strength training
Which of the following training systems would be MOST appropriate for a client with limited time available and a goal to alter body composition? A. the split-routine B. horizontal loading C. circuit training D. maximal strength training circuit training
When a muscle is exerting a force greater than is being placed on it, resulting in the shortening of the muscle it is known as what type of contraction? A. Eccentric B. concentric C. isometric D. decelerated concentric
What is correct position of the back leg during the "cable rotation" exercise? A. triple flexion B. triple extension C. externally rotated D. adducted triple extension
The anterior tibialis is responsible for A. eccentrically accelerating dorsiflexion and inversion B. concentrically accelerating plantarflexion and inversion C. concentrically accelerating dorsiflexion and inversion concentrically accelerating dorsiflexion and inversion
Consumption of which of the following is associated with lower incidence of disease, lower incidence of cancer, maintaining good intestinal motility, and helps regulate the body's absorption of glucose? A. water B. protein C. carbohydrates D. fiber fiber
What plane divides the body into left and right halves? A. transverse B. frontal C. sagittal D. posterior sagittal
What is the second phase of the Optimum Performance Training model? A. stabilization endurance training B. strength endurance training C. hypertrophy training D. maximal strength training strength endurance training
Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for concentrically accelerating hip flexion and internal rotation? A. Gluteus medius B. Gluteus maximus C. Piriformis D. Tensor fascia latae (TFL) Tensor fascia latae (TFL)
Which of the following compounds is considered the CHIEF source of energy for all bodily fucntions and muscular exertion? A. carbohydrates B. proteins C. Fats d. Water A. carbohydrates
The ability of the body to repeatedly produce high levels of force for prolonged periods is known as A. hypertrophy B. strength endurance C. maximal strength D. power B. strength endurance
Utilizing multiple set systems of training for advanced clients versus single set systems of training have shown to be A. superior B. inferior C. equal D. dangerous superior
Which chest exercise is MOST appropriate during the "maximal strength training" phase of the OPT model? A. barbell bench press B. stability ball chest press C. stability ball push up D. medicine ball chest press barbell bench press
An anatomical location referring to a position on the back or towards the back of the body is known as A. medial B. lateral C. anterior D. posterior posterior
Prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation inhibits the muscle spindle of the same muscle resulting in A. reciprocal inhibition B. autogenic inhibition C. excitation inhibition D. facilitation inhibition autogenic inhibition
While performing a Single-lef Romanian deadlift, a client demonstrates increased adduction and internal rotation at the knee. All of the following are appropriate means of regressing this exercise, EXCEPT increase external resistance
When the structural integrity of the body has been compromised as a result of a disruption in one or more components of the kinetic chain, which of the following will MOST likely develop? A. structural efficiency B. postural distortion patterns B. postural distortion patterns
The total amount of work performed within a specified time period is known as A. training volume B. training intensity C. repetition tempo D. training duration A. training volume
The average range for healthy blood pressure is A. 140/90 B. 135/85 C. 120/80 D. 110/75 120/80
Maintaining a state of balance in the alignment of the kinetic chain is BEST defined as A. structural efficiency B. functional efficiency C. postural equilibrium D. functional strength postural equilibrium
Which of the following sensory receptors will cause a muscle to relax when excited? A. golgi tendon organ B. muscles spindles C. nociceptors D. joint receptors A. golgi tendon organ
Actin and myosin are the primary components of myofilaments that make which of the following? A. sarcormere B. fascicle C. myofibril D. endomysium C. myofibril
What plane divides the body into front and back halves and consist of abduction and adduction movements? A. transverse B. Frontal C. Sagittal D. posterior Frontal
A synergistic muscle substitution for a prime mover during muscle contraction is known as A. altered reciprocal inhibition B. arthrokinetic dysfunction C. tissue fatigue D. synergistic dominance synergistic dominance
A "single-leg squat touchdown" is considered what type of exercise? A. core stabilization B. balance strength C. balance power D. reactive stabilization balance strength
What is the main goal of balance training? A. maximum hypertrophy gains B. increase joint extensibility C. relieve stress D. challenge the limits of stability challenge the limits of stability
Rest intervals of 60 seconds will approximately __ to __ recovery of ATP and CP. A. 50 to 55% B. 60 to 65% C. 70 to 75% D. 85 to 90% 85 to 90%
The gastrocnemius is responsible for A. concentrically accelerating dorsiflexion B. concentrically accelerating plantarflexion C. concentrically accelerating foot iversion D. eccentrically decelerating plantarflexion concentrically accelerating plantarflexion
The lumbo-pelvic-hip complex has approximately how many muscles attached to it? A. 19 B. 29 C. 39 D. 49 29
An example of a "severe" BMI score is A. 10 B. 15 C. 25 D. 35 35
Neurons are comprised of which three parts? A. axon, mechanoreceptors, dendrites B. Cell Body, Axon, Dendrites C. muscles, bones, tissue D. lysosomes, mitochondria, and golgi complex Cell Body, Axon, Dendrites
Altered length-tension relationships, force -couple relationships, and joint arthrokinematics are effects are effects of which of the following? A. unhealthy eating habits B. poor posture C. taking vasodilators D. wearing orthopedic shoes poor posture
What structures are responsible for sensing distortions of body tissue brought about through stretch, compression, traction or tension? A. chemoreceptors B. mechanoreceptors C. Photorecptors D. nociceptors B. mechanoreceptors
Which form of flexibility uses the concept of reciprocal inhibition to improve soft tissue extensibility? A. self-myofascial release B. dynamic stretching C. relative flexibility D. joint manipulation B. dynamic stretching
The kinetic chain consists of the A. muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems B. skeletal, cardiac, and respiratory systems C. digestive, cardiac, and nervous systems D. muscular, respiratory, and digestive systems muscular, skeletal, and nervous systems
What are some implements (props) used for reactive training programs? A. foam roll B. machines C. cones D. calipers cones
All of the following are appropriate factors for prescribing rest interval EXCEPT A. training experience B. training intensity C. nutritional status D. dynamic range of motion dynamic range of motion
Rest intervals of 30 seconds will approximately __ to __ recovery of ATP and CP. A. 50 to 55% B. 60 to 65% C. 70 to 75% D. 85 to 90% 50 to 55%
The soleus is responsible for A. concentrically accelerating dorsiflexion B. Isometrically stabilizes the foot and ankle complex C. concentrically accelerating foot iversion D. eccentrically decelerating plantarflexion Isometrically stabilizes the foot and ankle complex
An example of a "overweight" BMI score is A. 10 B. 15 C. 27 D. 35 27
An example of a "normal" BMI score is A. 10 B. 20 C. 25 D. 35 20
An example of a "obese" BMI score is A. 10 B. 15 C. 25 D. 35 35
What plane divides the body into left and right halves and consist of up and down? A. transverse B. Frontal C. Sagittal D. posterior Sagittal
What plane divides the body into top and bottom halves and consist of core rotation movements? A. transverse B. Frontal C. Sagittal D. posterior transverse
The range for high blood pressure is A. 140/90 B. 135/85 C. 120/80 D. 110/75 140/90
An anatomical location referring to a position on the back or towards the back of the body is known as A. medial B. lateral C. anterior D. dorsal dorsal
What is the third phase of the Optimum Performance Training model? A. stabilization endurance training B. strength endurance training C. hypertrophy training D. maximal strength training hypertrophy training
What is the fourth phase of the Optimum Performance Training model? A. stabilization endurance training B. strength endurance training C. hypertrophy training D. maximal strength training maximal strength training
What is correct position of the front leg during the "cable rotation" exercise? A. triple flexion B. triple extension C. externally rotated D. adducted triple flexion
Which phase of the OPT model uses the shortest rest periods? A. Power endurance training B. strength endurance training C. maximal strength training D. Hypertrophy training strength endurance training
If a client demonstrates arms that fall forward during the overhead squat, which muscle(s) are LEAST likely weak ? A. pectoralis major B. lower trapezius C. upper trapezius D. erector spinae pectoralis major
What muscles are possibly weak (underactive) if a client demonstrates turned out feet during the overhead squat assessment? A. gracilis B. posterior tibialis C. Biceps Femoris (short head) D. Gluteus Maximus gracilis
What is the appropriate tempo for resistance training exercises when training in phase 5 of the OPT model? A. 4-2-1 B. 3-2-1 C. 2-0-2 D. fast/explosive fast/explosive
What is the appropriate tempo for resistance training exercises when training in phase 3 of the OPT model? A. 4-2-1 B. 3-2-1 C. 2-0-2 D. fast/explosive 2-0-2
Phase 2 of the OPT Model requires __ sets for each exercise during the resistance training portion of the workout A. 1-3 B. 3-5 C. 4-6 D. 3-6 1-3
Phase 3 of the OPT Model requires __ sets for each exercise during the resistance training portion of the workout A. 1-3 B. 3-5 C. 4-6 D. 3-6 3-5
Phase 4 of the OPT Model requires __ sets for each exercise during the resistance training portion of the workout A. 1-3 B. 3-5 C. 4-6 D. 3-6 4-6
Phase 5 of the OPT Model requires __ sets for each exercise during the resistance training portion of the workout A. 1-3 B. 3-5 C. 4-6 D. 3-6 3-6
An anatomical location referring to a position above a reference point is known as A. superior B. contralateral C. distal D. inferior superior
An anatomical location referring to a positionfarthest from the center of the body is known as A. superior B. contralateral C. distal D. inferior distal
A 50 year old client is 5'10' tall & weighs 250lbs. His blood pressure is 140/90mm Hg & his resting heart rate is 90 beats per minute. which of the following exercises is contraindicated for this client? A. Barbell bench press B. SMR C. Ball Hamstring Cur ball medicine ball pullover throw
An example of "back strength" exercise would be a A. standing cable row B. machine lat pulldown C. soccer throw D. seated cable row seated cable row
After completion of the Rockport Walk Assessment a client earns a "very good" score. Which heart rate training zone is MOST appropriate when administering a cardiorespiratory program? A. Zone 1. 65%-75% max HR B. Zone 2. 76%-85% max HR C. Zone 3 86%-95% Zone 3 86%-95% max heart rate
After completion of the Rockport Walk Assessment a client earns a "good" score. Which heart rate training zone is MOST appropriate when administering a cardiorespiratory program? A. Zone 1. 65%-75% max HR B. Zone 2. 76%-85% max HR C. Zone 3 86%-95% Zone 2. 76%-85% max heart rate
F.I.T.T.E stands for? A. Five Interesting Time Training Exercises B. Forged In Time Tested Engineering C. Force Interest Time Test Execution D. Frequency Intensity Time Type Enjoy Frequency Intensity Time Type Enjoy
SMR stands for ? A. Smart Marketing Returns B. Start Making Results C. Self-myofascial Release D. Suppress Myocardial Returns Self-myofascial Release
When Doing SMR, how long should a client hold each muscle ? A. 30 seconds B. 45 seconds C. 60 seconds D. 90 seconds 30 seconds
What is a strengthening exercise for a client with feet that turn out in the overhead squat ? A. Tube Walking B. Ball Wall Squats C. Single-Leg Balance Reach D. Opposite Leg Raise Single-Leg Balance Reach
What is the most appropriate strengthening exercise for a client with knees that move inward in the overhead squat ? A. Tube Walking B. Ball Wall Squats C. Single-Leg Balance Reach D. Opposite Leg Raise Tube Walking
What is the most appropriate strengthening exercise for a client with lower back arches in the pulling assessment? A. Quadrupled arm/Opposite Leg Raise B. Ball Wall Squats C. Single-Leg Balance Reach D. Opposite Leg Raise Ball Wall Squats
What is the most appropriate strengthening exercise for a client with shoulders that elevate in the pushing assessment? A. Quadrupled arm/Opposite Leg Raise B. Squat to Row C. Single-Leg Balance Reach D. Opposite Leg Raise Squat to Row
Which of the following muscles would be the MOST appropriate to stretch if your client's lower back arches during the pushing assessment? A. Hip flexor complex B. Latissmus Dorsi C. levator scapulae D. Gastrocnimus Latissmus Dorsi
Which of the following muscles would be the MOST appropriate to stretch if your client's shoulders elevate during the pushing assessment? A. Hip flexor complex B. Latissmus Dorsi C. levator scapulae D. Gastrocnimus levator scapulae
Which of the following muscles would be the MOST appropriate to stretch if your client has excessive forward lean during the pushing assessment? A. Hip flexor complex B. Latissmus Dorsi C.Upper Trapezuis D. Gastrocnimus Hip flexor complex
Which of the following muscles would be the MOST appropriate to strengthen if your client has feet that turn out during the overhead squat assessment? A. Soleus B. Medial Hamstring Complex C. TFL D. VMO Medial Hamstring Complex
Which of the following muscles would be the MOST appropriate to strengthen if your client has knees that move inward during the overhead squat assessment? A. Soleus B. Medial Hamstring Complex C. TFL D. VMO VMO
All buying decisions are based on which of the following?a. Emotion b. Price c. Time d. Pressure a. Emotion
Clients must learn whether they are moving in the right direction, and if course corrections are needed. Which of the following processes is the best tool for this type of learning?a. Reflection b. Self-review c. Self-analysis d. Self-monitoring d. Self-monitoring
During the concentric action of the gluteus maximus in the transverse plane what movement is occurring at the joint?a. Hip flexion b. Hip internal rotation c. Hip extension and external rotation d. Hip flexion and internal rotation c. Hip extension and external rotation
During the overhead squat assessment the knees move inward, which of the following strengthening exercises should be used?a. Single-leg balance reach b. Tube walking c. Ball wall squats d. Squat to row b. Tube walking
During the overhead squat assessment, the feet turn out, which of the following muscles are underactive?a. Soleus b. Lateral gastrocnemius c. Gluteus medius d. Sartorius d. Sartorius
Exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg, through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?a. Balance Stabilization b. Balance Strength c. Leg Stabilization d. Leg Strength b. Balance Strength
For the best results, how should calcium supplements be consumed?a. In the morning b. In the evening c. Throughout the day d. With your first meal c. Throughout the day
How long must a certified personal trainer maintain financial, contract, and tax records for?a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 4 years d. 5 years c. 4 years
How many calories are in one gram of protein?a. 2 b. 4 c. 7 d. 9 b. 4
How many sets per exercise should be performed by a client in the resistance portion of the stabilization endurance level of training?a. 0-2 b. 1-3 c. 2-4 d. 3-5 b. 1-3
How many sets per exercise should be performed for resistance training in the power phase of training?a. 0-2 b. 1-3 c. 2-4 d. 3-5 d. 3-5
How much communication in non-verbal?a. 40% b. 50% c. 55% d. 45% c. 55%
How much water should someone consume on a daily basis?a. Men 3.5 L and Women 2.7 L per day b. Men 3.0 L and Women 2.2 L per day c. Men 2.2 L and Women 3.0 L per day d. Men 2.7 L and Women 3.5 L per day b. Men 3.0 L and Women 2.2 L per day
If a clients knees move inward during an overhead squat assessment, which of the following muscles should be foam rolled?a. Adductors b. Gluteus medius c. Gluteus maximus d. Vastus medialis oblique a. Adductors
If you are training a beginning client, who has never worked out before how many exercises per body part should be performed?a. 0-1 b. 1-2 c. 2-3 d. 3-4 b. 1-2
In the preparation for the rotation chest pass, the clients should be:Choose one answer.a. Placing the feet hip width apart b. Bending the knees at a 90 degree angle to initiate the move c. Extend the arms completely out before moving d. Standing upright d. Standing upright with the body turned at a 90 degree angle to the wall or partner
In which of the following situations should a certified personal trainer refer a client to a medical professional?a. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed osteoporosis b. When the trainer becomes aware of diagnosed hypertension c. When the trainer b d. When the trainer becomes aware of undiagnosed hypertension
In which phase of the OPT Model would Ice Skaters be an appropriate exercise?a. Stabilization Endurance b. Strength Endurance c. Maximal Strength Power d. Power
Most fitness workouts consisting of 8- 12 repetitions use which of the following energy systems?a. ATP-PC b. Glycolysis c. Oxidative d. Phosphagen b. Glycolysis
Once a trainer has identified their income goal and what they need to make each week, what is the next immediate step?a. Figuring out the closing percentage b. Figuring out how many potential clients they need c. Figuring out how many potential clients ne d. Figuring out how many sessions need to be performed each week
Performing all sets of an exercise before moving onto the next exercise is known as which of the following?a. Horizontal loading b. Vertical loading c. Single-set d. Split-routine a. Horizontal loading
Practicing self-myofascial release through the use of a foam roller creates autogenic inhibition by which of the following?a. Exciting the muscle spindle b. Decreasing signal to the motor neurons c. Stimulating the golgi tendon organ d. Inhibiting signal c. Stimulating the golgi tendon organ
The ability to sustain the bodys center of gravity over its base of support is known as:a. Posture b. Balance c. Functional Efficiency d. Neuromuscular Efficiency b. Balance
The active supine biceps femoris stretch is an example of which of the following?a. Autogenic inhibition b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Altered reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance b. Reciprocal inhibition
The adaptation of endurance is achieved by which of the following?a. 8-10 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM b. 12-20 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM c. 8-10 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM d. 12-20 repetitions at 75-85% of 1RM b. 12-20 repetitions at 50-70% of 1RM
The appropriate rest interval when training in the maximal strength training phase is which of the following?a. 30 seconds b. 60 seconds c. 3 minutes d. 6 minutes 3 minutes
The chance of obesity-related health problems increase when a persons BMI exceeds:a. 22 b. 25 c. 27 d. 30 b. 25
The gastrocnemius is responsible for concentrically accelerating which of the following?a. Dorisflexion b. Plantarflexion c. Dorsiflextion and inversion d. Plantarflexion and inversion b. Plantarflexion
What does the A represent in the acronym READ?a. Analyze b. Ask c. Assessment d. Appraisal c. Assessment
What is the minimum requirement to maintain certification with NASM?a. 2.0 CEU within 2 years b. 2.0 CEU within 1 year c. 3.0 CEU within 2 years d. 3.0 CEU within 3 years a. 2.0 CEU within 2 years
What is the most accurate time of day to conduct a resting heart rate measurement?a. Upon waking in the morning b. Before going to bed at night c. Immediately before a workout d. Immediately after a workout a. Upon waking in the morning
What is the most effective way to accomplish weight loss long-term? a. Controlled calorie diet b. Atkins diet c. High protein diet d. South Beach diet Controlled calorie
What should a trainer share with their client who thinks that carbohydrate intake and weight gain are related?a. Increased intake of any nutrient will cause weight gain b. Increase the intake of high glycemic foods c. Decrease the intake of low glycemic f a. Increased intake of any nutrient will cause weight gain
What is the most effective way to accomplish weight loss long-term? a. Controlled calorie diet b. Atkins diet c. High protein diet d. South Beach diet a. Controlled calorie diet
What type of flexibility best describes the body seeking the path of least resistance during a functional movement?.a. Corrective b. Active c. Relative d. Dynamic c. Relative
What type of insurance must a trainer maintain?a. Medical b. Dental c. Workers compensation d. Liability d. Liability
When assessing a clients blood pressure the diastolic pressure represents which of the following?a. Pressure outside the arterial system after the heart contracts b. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts c. Pressure within the arte c. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood
When consuming a low carbohydrate diet, which of the following is responsible for the rapid weight loss?a. Loss of water b. Loss of body fat c. Increase in metabolism d. Increase of energy a. Loss of water
When participating in a marathon, what is the preferred form of energy?a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Fats d. Protein and carbohydrates c. Fats
When performing a single-leg hip rotation exercise, how many repetitions should be performed each leg?a. 6 to 10 b. 11 to 15 c. 1 to 4 d. 16 to 20 a. 6 to 10
When performing CPR, how should the compressions be administered?a. Gentle and shallow b. Firm and deep c. Gentle and deep Firm and shallow b. Firm and deep
When performing the strengthening exercise, single-leg balance reach for the feet turning out compensation, what is the proper repetition range to use?a. 1 to 8 b. 6 to 10 c. 11 to 18 d. 12 to 24 b. 6 to 10
When starting with a brand new client who has never worked out, which resistance training system would be most appropriate?a. Single-set b. Circuit training c. Peripheral heart action d. Split set a. Single-set
When training a client for speed, agility, and quickness, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?a. Box Jump b. Tuck Jump c. One-Ins d. Butt Kicks c. One-Ins
When training a client in the stabilization level of training what is the proper immediate progression for a ball two-arm dumbbell chest press?a. Move to a bench b. Increase the weight c. Single arm d. Alternating arm d. Alternating arm
When training a client with Arthritis who has never worked out before, it may be necessary to start out with how many minutes of exercise?a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 a. 5
When training a youth client which of the following factors will determine when you can progress to the next phase of training?a. Amount of weight that can be used b. Muscle hypertrophy c. Postural Control d. Agility and quickness c. Postural Control
When using the proprioceptive continuum, which of the following is the correct progression?a. Floor, half foam roll, balance beam, balance disc, foam pad b. Floor, balance disc , foam pad, half foam roll, balance beam c. Floor, foam pad, balance beam, bal d. Floor, balance beam, half foam roll, foam pad, balance disc
When working with a client with hypertension which of the following is the most appropriate exercise? a. Ball Cobra b. Standing cobra c. Floor bridge d. Isometric Squat b. Standing cobra
When working with a pregnant client which of the following assessments is most appropriate?Choose one answer. a. Davies test b. Shark skill test c. Bench press d. Single-leg squat d. Single-leg squat
When working with a senior client who is just starting out in Phase 1, which of the following exercises would be most appropriate?a. Seated Chest Press b. Ball dumbbell chest press c. Barbell chest press d. TRX chest press a. Seated Chest Press
When working with a senior client, as a trainer you should expect which of the following?a. Maximal exercise heart rate will decrease b. Maximal oxygen uptake will increase c. Body fat will increase d. Exercise will increase the chance of heart disease b. Maximal oxygen uptake will increase
Where in the digestion process are protein strands broken down?a. Mouth b. Esophagus c. Small Intestine d. Stomach d. Stomach
Which of the following assessments is designed to assess lower extremity agility and muscular control?a. Single- leg squat b. Davies test c. Single leg star test d. Shark Skill test d. Shark Skill test
Which of the following best describes when a person in ready to move to stage two cardiorespiratory training from stage one?a. Can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 10 minutes b. Can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes c. Can maintain a zone 1 hear b. Can maintain a zone 1 heart rate for 30 minutes
Which of the following body composition assessments is most appropriate for an obese client?a. Body Mass Index b. Circumference measurements c. Skinfold Measurements d. Waist to hip ratio b. Circumference measurements
Which of the following core exercises is most appropriate for an obese client?a. Incline Prone Iso- Ab b. Marching c. Ball Crunch d. Floor Prone Cobra a. Incline Prone Iso- Ab
Which of the following describes the acronym SMART?a. Specific, meaningful, attainable, realistic, timely b. Specific, measurable, accountable, realistic, timely c. Specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, timely d. Specific, measurable, attainable, re d. Specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, timely
Which of the following exercises is a plyometric- power exercise?a. Repeat box jumps b. Lunge jumps c. Box run steps d. Jump rope c. Box run steps
Which of the following exercises take place in the sagittal plane of motion?a. Front Lunge b. Side Lunge c. Side Shuffle d. Swinging a bat a. Front Lunge
Which of the following exercises take place in the frontal plane of motion?a. Front Lunge b. Side Lunge c. Vertical Jumping d. Throwing b. Side Lunge
Which of the following exercises would be categorized as a core power exercise?a. Ball Crunch b. Back Extension c. Soccer throw d. Marching c. Soccer throw
Which of the following fatty acids has had hydrogen added to it in order to increase shelf-life?a. Trans-fatty acids b. Saturated fatty acids c. Monounsaturated fatty acids d. Polyunsaturated fatty acids a. Trans-fatty acids
Which of the following in an effect of dehydration?a. Increased blood volume b. Increase sweat rate c. Increased heart rate d. Increased blood flow to the skin c. Increased heart rate
Which of the following intensity ranges best describes someone just moving into a Zone 3 cardiorespiratory training workout?a. 86-90% b. 91-94% c. 75-79% d. 80-85% a. 86-90%
Which of the following is a common force couple?a. Trapezius and rotator cuff during lateral shoulder raise b. Gluteus Maximus and psoas during a squat c. Deltoid and lattissimus dorsi during a shoulder press d. Internal and external obliques during a med d. Internal and external obliques during a medicine ball oblique throw
Which of the following is a core strength-level exercise?a. Soccer throw b. Floor prone cobra c. Cable lift d. Ball Cobra c. Cable lift
Which of the following is a function of the muscular system?a. Control center for movement production b. Structural framework for the body c. Coordinate the activity of all parts of the body d. Command to move the skeletal system d. Command to move the skeletal system
Which of the following is a goal of strength level training?a. Increase rate of force production b. Enhance neuromuscular efficiency c. Increase lean body mass d. Increase flexiblity c. Increase lean body mass
Which of the following is a kinetic chain check point for the overhead squat assessment when assessing from the lateral view?a. Feet b. Knees c. Shoulder complex Head c. Shoulder complex
Which of the following is a normal stroke volume for an adult?a. 70 mL/beat b. 85 mL/beat c. 90 mL/beat 60 mL/beat a. 70 mL/beat
Which of the following is a possible injury of lower crossed syndrome?a. Plantar fasciitis b. Hamstring complex strain c. Patellar tendonitis d. Posterior knee pain b. Hamstring complex strain
Marks: 1 Which of the following is a proper superset for Strength Endurance Training?a. Push-up followed by bench press b. Push-up followed by soccer throw c. Bench press followed by push-up d. Soccer throw followed by push-up c. Bench press followed by push-up
Which of the following is a sign of pronation distortion syndrome? a. Knee adduction b. Knee abduction c. Foot internal rotation d. Foot supination a. Knee adduction
Which of the following is a Stabilization Endurance exercise?a. Lunge to two-arm dumbbell press b. Ball dumbbell chest press c. Two-arm medicine ball chest press d. Seated cable row b. Ball dumbbell chest press
Which of the following is a symptom of metabolic syndrome?a. Restrictive lung disease b. Coronary heart disease c. Chronic obstructive lung disease d. Insulin resistance d. Insulin resistance
Which of the following is a technique that expresses the purported meaning of what was just heard?a. Active listening b. Asking questions c. Reflecting d. Summarizing c. Reflecting
Which of the following is a total body strength-level exercise?a. Squat thrusters b. Romanian deadlift, shrug to calf raise c. Single-leg Romanian dead lift, curl to overhead press d. Single-leg squat to row b. Romanian deadlift, shrug to calf raise
Which of the following is about having an attitude and genuine interest in seeking a clients perspective?a. Active listening b. Asking questions c. Reflecting d. Summarizing a. Active listening
Which of the following is an example of a nondirective question?a. How long has this been a goal? b. What are you trying to achieve? c. What is your height? d. Is it important for you to reach your goal? b. What are you trying to achieve?
Which of the following is considered a subjective assessment?a. Heart Rate b. Blood Pressure c. Lifestyle d. Posture c. Lifestyle
Which of the following is the appropriate repetition range for resistance training in the maximal strength phase of training?a. 12-20 b. 8-12 c. 5-10 d. 1-5 d. 1-5
Which of the following is the appropriate repetition range for resistance training in the hypertrophy phase of training?a. 12-20 b. 8-15 c. 6-12 d. 1-5 c. 6-12
Which of the following is the correct order for the stage of change model?a. Precontemplation, Preparation, Contemplation, Action, Maintenance b. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance c. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Action, b. Precontemplation, Contemplation, Preparation, Action, Maintenance
Which of the following is the correct recommendation for caffeine intake for performance enhancement?a. 1-3 mg/kg b. 3-6 mg/kg c. 1-3 mg/lb d. 3-6 mg/lb c. 1-3 mg/lb
Which of the following is the maximum number of sets a client should complete in a given workout?a. 12 b. 24 c. 36 d. 48 c. 36
Which of the following is the middle layer of muscular connective tissue?a. Fasciculus b. Endomysium c. Perimysium d. Epymysium c. Perimysium
Which of the following is the process of asking your clients why to get to what their motivations are?a. Psychoanalysis b. READ principle c. Motivation d. Root cause analysis d. Root cause analysis
Which of the following is the proper equation when determining a clients heart rate for Zone 1?a. (200-clients age)x (60% and 70%) b. (220-clients age)x (65% and 70%) c. (200-clients age)x (60% and 75%) d. (220-clients age)x (65% and 75%) d. (220-clients age)x (65% and 75%)
Which of the following is the proper recommendation for the cardio portion of the warm-up?a. 2-5 minutes b. 4-7 minutes c. 5-10 minutes d. 7-12 minutes c. 5-10 minutes
Which of the following is the volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute?a. Blood pressure b. Heart rate c. Stroke volume d. Cardiac output d. Cardiac output
Which of the following is within the scope of practice of a personal trainer?a. Design a nutrition plan for a client b. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client c. Massage a client d. Diagnose and illness b. Design a cardiorespiratory program for a client
Which of the following muscles are considered overactive when the head protrudes forward during a pushing assessment?a. Deep cervical flexors b. Deep cervical extensors c. Mid/lower Trapezius d. Upper Trapezius d. Upper Trapezius
Which of the following muscles are lengthened when upper crossed syndrome is present?a. Sternocleidomastoid b. Deep cervical flexors c. Upper trapezius d. Scalenes b. Deep cervical flexors
Which of the following muscles are shortened when lower crossed syndrome is present?a. Gluteus maximus b. Internal oblique c. Lattisiumus dorsi d. Posterior tibialis c. Lattisiumus dorsi
Which of the following muscles is shortened in pronation distortion syndrome?a. Soleus b. Anterior Tibialis c. Vastus Medialis d. Gluteus Medius a. Soleus
Which of the following muscles is shortened with upper crossed syndrome?a. Deep cervical flexors b. Rhomboids c. Teres Minor d. Scalenes d. Scalenes
Which of the following muscles is used during the expiration phase of breathing?a. Diaphragm b. Internal Intercostals c. External Intercostals d. Pectoralis Minor b. Internal Intercostals
Which of the following muscles would be part of the local stabilization system?a. Internal Oblique b. External Oblique c. Latissimus Dorsi d. Psoas Major a. Internal Oblique
Which of the following nutrients aids in maintaining muscle mass?a. Water b. Carbohydrates c. Protein d. Fat b. Carbohydrates
Which of the following protein recommendation is correct for a client with the goal of increasing lean body mass?a. 0.4 to 0.6 g/lb b. 0.5 to 0.8 g/lb c. 0.4 to 0.6 g/kg d. 0.5 to 0.8 g/kg b. 0.5 to 0.8 g/lb
Which of the following represents the importance of acute variables?a. Necessary for advanced clients b. Only needed for training athletes c. Determine the amount of stress placed on the body d. Ensure proper kinetic chain alignment c. Determine the amount of stress placed on the body
Which of the following statements is correct about the position of the foot and ankle complex during speed, agility, and quickness exercises?a. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position in the air b. The foot and ankle b. The foot and ankle should be pointing straight ahead in a dorsiflexed position when it hits the ground
Which of the following tempos is most appropriate for the adaptation of stabilization?a. 4/2/1 b. 3/2/1 c. 1/1/1 d. x/x/x a. 4/2/1
Which of the following would be categorized as a core stabilization exercise?a. Ball crunch b. Cable roation c. Reverse crunch d. Prone Iso-abs d. Prone Iso-abs
Which phase(s) of training should be used with a client who has a goal of body fat reduction?a. Phase 1 only b. Phase 1 and 2 only c. Phase 1, 2, and 3 d. Phase 1, 2, 3, and 5 b. Phase 1 and 2 only
Which phase(s) of training should be used with a client who has a goal of improving sports performance?a. Phase 5 only b. Phase 1 and 2 only c. Phase 1, 2, and 3 d. Phase 1, 2, and 5 d. Phase 1, 2, and 5
Which step in the SMART goal setting process is focused on creating goals that are challenging but not too extreme?a. Specific b. Measurable c. Attainable d. Realistic c. Attainable
Who must supervise a client when they are following an 800- 1000 calorie per day diet?a. Personal Trainer b. Nutritionist c. Fitness Nutrition Specialist d. Medical Professional d. Medical Professional
You have a client with obstructive lung disease, which of the following training system is most appropriate?a. Circuit Training b. Vertical Loading c. Horizontal Loading d. Peripheral Heart Action d. Peripheral Heart Action
Today approximately what percentage of adults are estimated to be obese 30%
A proprioceptively enriched environment is one that challenges the internal balance & stabilization mechanisms of the body(true/false) True
Name the three building blocks of training Stabilization, Strength & Power
In which building block does the phase of Hypertrophy Training belong (Power/Stabilization/Strength) Strength
Which phase of training enhances prime mover strength and improves the rate of force production concurrently (Power/Stabilization/Strength) Power
Sense length & rate of length change, causing contraction Muscle spindles
Sense tension & rate of tension developed & cause relaxation Golgi tendon organs
Sense pressure, acceleration & deceleration of joint Joint receptors
Type of joint - Carpals of the hand Gliding joint
Type of joint - Elbow Hinge Joint
Type of joint - Carpometacarpal joint of thumb Saddle joint
Type of joint - Shoulder Ball-and-socket joint
In a Hip Extension - Glutues Maximus are the (Agonist/Synergist/Stabilizer/Antagonist) Agonist
In a Hip Extension - Hamstrings are the (Agonist/Synergist/Stabilizer/Antagonist) Synergist
In a Hip Extension - Transversus abdominus are the (Agonist/Synergist/Stabilizer/Antagonist) Stabilizer
In a Hip Extension - Psoas are the (Agonist/Synergist/Stabilizer/Antagonist) Antagonist
Which kind of muscle fibers are fast twitch Type II
All movement is directly dictated by the nervous system True
What are three components of the cardiovascular system Heart, blood & blood vessels
Which system(s) of the bioenergetic continuum is (are) aerobic Oxidative
Which pathway of the bioenergetic continuum would most likely be used during heavy weight training ATP-CP
Which atrium gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the entire body Right
Which atrium gathers reoxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs Left
Abduction & adduction occur in which plane of motion Frontal
Lowering a barbell down toward the chest during a bench press is an example of which kind of muscle contraction Eccentric
Which is (are) considered internal feedback used by the body to monitor movement Length-tension relationships, Force-couple relationships & Arthrokinematics
Sensorimotor integration requires proprioception True
A heart rate monitor is an example of which type of feedback External
If a client spends a lot of time sitting at his or her job, it can lead to tightness in the Hip flexors
Which four sites of the body are used to determine a sum for the Durnin-Womersley formula Biceps, triceps, iliac crest & subscapular
Which type of postural observations should relate to movements such as squatting, bending, pulling, pushing & balancing Dynamic
What heart rate zone should a 50 year old male client be in if he achieved a recovery pulse of 90 after performing the 3-minute step test Zone 1
When performing the Shark Skill test, how much time do you add to the completion time for each fault 0.10 seconds
The kinetic chain is made up of Nervous system, Muscular system & skeletal system
What is the process in which the body initiates the repair of dysfunction within the connective tissue____________ ____________ ____________ Cumulative injury cycle
Active flexibility uses the principle of ____________ __________ Reciprocal inhibition
Which type of stretching stimulates the Golgi tendon organ and produces autogenic inhibition Static, SMR
A latissimus dorsi stretch is a good static stretch for which movement compensation during an overhead squat assessment Arms fall forwards
One adaptive benefit of cardiorespiratoy exercise is that it ________ resting heart rate & _________ exercising heart rate Decreases, decreases
It has been shown that performing three 10-minute bouts of exercise is just as effective as one 30-minutte continuous bout of the same exercise (true/false) True
Law of Thermodynamics states that body fat reduction can only take place where there are more _______ being burned than consumed Calories
Circuit weight training produces greater levels of EPOC (true/false) True
Circuit weight training produce near-identical caloric expenditure for the same given time span, when compared to walking at a fast pace & produces greater levels of EPOC (true/false) True
Clients with an anterior pelvic tilt (low back arches) should use bicycles and steppers to place the hips into flexion (true/false) False
The movement system should be trained before the stabilization system False
In core stabilization training, exercises involve little motion through the spine & pelvis (true/false) True
Back extension is a (Power/Stabilization/Strength) exercise Stabilization exercise
Woodchop throws a (Power/Stabilization/Strength) exercise Power exercise
Floor bridges a (Power/Stabilization/Strength) exercise Stabilization exercise
Ball crunchs a (Power/Stabilization/Strength) exercise Strength exercise
What kind of exercises would you choose for a client in phase 3 (hypertrophy training) Core strength
Research shows that individuals who have chronic low back pain display an increased activation of the transversus abdominus, internal oblique, pelvic floor muscles, multifidus, diaphragm and deep erector spinae (true/false) False
The integrated performance paradigm demonstrates that adequate force reduction and stabilization are required for optimum force production (true/false) True
Joint dysfunction may lead to Synergistic dominance, muscle inhibition & decreased neuromuscular control
What kind of exercises would you choose for a client in phase 3 Balance-strength exercises
What type of training is a Single leg balance (Power/Stabilization/Strength) Stabilization training
What type of training is a Multiplanar hop with stabilization (Power/Stabilization/Strength) Power training
What type of training is a Single leg squat (Power/Stabilization/Strength) Strength training
What type of training is a Lunge to balance Strength training
What kind of reactive exercise would you choose for a client in phase 2 of the OPT model (Power/Stabilization/Strength) Strength
Reactive training aims to generate ______ force output in a ______ amount of time Maximum, minimal
What type of exercise is the Ice Skater (Power/Stabilization/Strength) Power
What type of exercise is the Box jump-up with stabilization (Power/Stabilization/Strength) Stabilization
What type of exercise is the Proprioceptive plyometrics (Power/Stabilization/Strength) Power
What type of exercise is the Power step-ups (Power/Stabilization/Strength) Strength
Which safety guidelines must be taken into consideration when designing a reactive-training program Progressive & performed with supportive shoes
Research has found that optimum stride length at maximum velocity is approximately how many times leg length 2.1 - 2.5
Proper agility training can help to prevent injury by improving the structural integrity of connective tissue (true/false) True
Includes the actions of ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, hip extension & keeping the lumbar spine neutral Backside mechanics
In which category does the specific adaptation of muscular endurance fall Stability
Connective tissues (such as ligaments and tendons) adapt just as quickly as muscles (true/false) False
This type of training is promoted as being more beneficial for strength & hypertrophy gains in advanced clients Multiple-set
This type of loading refers to performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part Horizontal
Strength endurance allows the body to use lower levels of force with lower repititions and fewer sets (true/false) False
The OPT model has been extremely successful in helping all populations to reduce body fat, increase lean muscle mass & strength, improve performance & improve overall health (true/false) True
A typical client with the goal of improving general performance should specifically be cycled through which phases Phases 1, 2 & 5
Beginning clients should perform lower repitition schemes (true/false) False
How long does it take for the body to replenish 100% of its ATP & CP supplies (30-60 seconds / 1-2 minutes / 3 minutes) 3 minutes
Training volume is always inversely related to intensity (true/false) True
Which phase of training uses superset techniques Phase 2: Strength endurance & Phase 5: Power
In youth populations, the progression of aerobic training volume should not exceed what percentage per period of adaptation 10%
The following will decrease with age in older adults Maximum oxygen uptake, maximum exercise heart rate, bone mass, measures of pulmonary function, lean body mass
In overweight or obese adults, exercise capacity should be no greater than 60 to 80% of work capacity
Clients who take Beta Blockers may display a skewed heart rate response to exercise (true/false) True
Because of lack of insulin in type I diabetes, blood sugar is not optimally delivered to the cells, which results in Hypoglycemia
Symptoms should always supersede anything else as a sign to decrease or stop exercising (true/false) True
Which kind of fatty acids are considered to have a favorable effects on blood lipid profiles and may play a role in the treatment & prevention of heart disease, hypertension, arthritis & cancer Monounsaturated & polyunsaturated fatty acid
What is the rise in a metabolic rate that occurs after the food is ingested The thermic effect of a food
A study of type 2 diabetics (with insulin resistance) & people of normal weight found that 3 weeks of high-carbohydrate, low-fat diet & exercise program significantly lowered insulin levels (true/false) True
Water constitutes approximately what percentage of the adult human body by weight 60%
When exercising for less than 60 minutes, water is the experts' choice for fluid replacement (true/false) True
Recommended protein intake for athletes & exercisers is 15-30% of total caloric intake
Recommended carbohydrate intake for adults is ________ of total caloric intake, according to preference, performance & satiety 50 - 70%
Foods with a higher glycemic index lead to fat storage regardless of caloric intake (true/false) False
Today there are separate regulations for dietary supplements from the regulations for foods & drugs (true/false) True
Excess calcium consumed with other minerals inhibits the absorption of some important trace minerals (true/false) True
Which of the following nutrients are not advised as a dietary supplement Germanium & cobalt
Those who are certain about what they want to accomplish are up to _____ times more likely to successfully make life changes than those who are less certain 6
Jointly reviewing past workout data helps clients build confidence by seeing the progress they have made & helps motivate them to achieve more (true/false) True
Setting achievable goals at the _____ end of the clients ability will inspire more effort & build more confidence when accomplished Upper
Success in life is rare because most people are lazy, lack willpower or have a fear of success (true/false) False
What are most buying decisions based on Emotion
In the client's mind, the value of a health & fitness professional's services must outweigh their cost (true/false) True
What percentage of communication is based on physiology 55%
A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called? a. Multiple set b. Pyramid system c. Peripheral heart action d. Super set . c. Peripheral heart action
A squat, curl, to two-arm press exercise is an example of an exercise from which phase in the OPT model? a. Stabilization b. Strength c. Power d. Reactive b. Strength
The dividing of a training program into smaller, progressive stages is termed? a. Annual plan b. Mesocycle c. Macrocycle d. Periodization d. Periodization
What is a goal of Phase Five: Power Training? a. Enhance neuromuscular efficiency b. Increase lean body mass c. Improve muscular endurance d. Enhance control of posture a. Enhance neuromuscular efficiency
What is the best definition of neuromuscular efficiency?a. Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion. b. The cumulative neural input to the central nervous system from mechanoreceptors that a. Ability of neuromuscular system to enable all muscles to efficiently work together in all planes of motion.
What is the best example of performing an exercise in a proprioceptively enriched environment? a. Machine chest press b. Leg press exercise c. Dumbbell chest press on stability ball d. Seated military press c. Dumbbell chest press on stability ball
What is the immediate progression of the two-arm ball squat, curl to press exercise? a. Step-up to curl to press b. One-arm ball squat, curl to press c. Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press d. Squat, curl to press exercise c. Alternating-arm ball squat, curl to press
What is the proper method of progression for the stabilization phase?Choose one answer. a. Volume b. Load c. Speed d. Proprioception d. Proprioception
Which of the following is a regression of the two-leg, alternating-arm standing cable row exercise? a. Seated cable row exercise b. Single-leg, one-arm standing cable row exercise c. Two-leg, one-arm standing cable row exercise d. Single-leg, alternati a. Seated cable row exercise
Which term refers to the energy demand placed on the body? a. Mechanical specificity b. Neuromuscular specificity c. Metabolic specificity d. Cognitive specificity c. Metabolic specificity
During a pushing assessment your client's shoulders elevate, which of the following muscles would most likely be underactive? a. Mid and lower trapezius b. Upper trapezius c. Levator scapulae d. Latissimus dorsi a. Mid and lower trapezius
During a single-leg squat assessment your client's knees move inward, which of the muscles would most likely be overactive? a. Gluteus medius b. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO) c. TFL d. Medial hamstrings c. TFL
What describes the alignment of the musculoskeletal system that allows our center of gravity to be maintained over our base of support?a. Posture b. Structural efficiency c. Postural equilibrium d. Neuromuscular efficiency b. Structural efficiency
Which of the following would be for best for measuring body fat percentages in an obese client?a. Circumference measurements b. Body mass index c. Skin fold measurements d. Waist to hip ratio a. Circumference measurements
What is the gastrocnemius responsible for concentrically accelerating?a. Dorsiflexion b. Plantar flexion c. Foot inversion d. Foot eversion b. Plantar flexion
What muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation?a. Gluteus medius b. Gluteus minimus c. Tensor fascia latae d. Gluteus maximus d. Gluteus maximus
What time of day is it best to teach clients to record their resting heart rate?a. Before their workout b. Just after their workout c. Upon waking in the morning d. Just before bed at night c. Upon waking in the morning
When performing the overhead squat assessment from the anterior view, which areas should the fitness professional focus on?a. Lumbo-pelvic-hip complex b. Feet, ankles, and knees c. Shoulders and cervical complex d. Low back and arms b. Feet, ankles, and knees
Which of the following is considered objective information?a. Body composition testing b. Asking client if they wear shoe's with elevated heels c. Inquiring about client's current injuries d. Asking client about past surgeries a. Body composition testing
Which of the following assessments is used to gauge lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control?a. Davies test b. Overhead squat assessment c. Shark skill test d. Lower extremity strength assessment: squat c. Shark skill test
Prolonged Golgi tendon organ stimulation provides an inhibitory action to muscle spindles within the same muscles; this phenomenon is called?a. Reciprocal inhibition b. Override mechanismc. Autogenic inhibition d. Neural inhibition c. Autogenic inhibition
What is the best example of a zone two cardiorespiratory workout?a. Walking at a medium pace b. Taking a group exercise class c. Sprinting d. Jogging at a slow pace b. Taking a group exercise class
What is the low-end percentage of maximum heart rate used in zone three?a. 65%-75% b. 76%-79% c. 91%-94% d. 86%-90% d. 86%-90%
What is the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint?a. Extensibility b. Dynamic range of motion c. Flexibility d. Neuromuscular efficiency c. Flexibility
What is the tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns?a. Postural distortion patterns b. Relative flexibility c. Muscle imbalance d. Arthrokinetic dysfunction b. Relative flexibility
What muscle is part of the local stabilization system?a. External oblique b. Internal oblique c. Psoas major d. Rectus abdominis b. Internal oblique
When performing a squat, an overactive hip flexor complex can decrease neural drive to the gluteus maximus; this is an example of?a. Neuromuscular inefficiency b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Synergistic dominance d. Arthokinetic dysfunction b. Altered reciprocal inhibition
Which level of core training exercise prepares an individual to dynamically stabilize and generate force at more functionally applicable speeds?a. Core-Stabilization b. Core Strength c. Core-Power d. Core-Reactive c. Core-Power
Which of the following is an example of a Core-Stabilization level exercise?a. Ball crunch b. Back extensions c. Two-leg floor bridge d. Rotation chest pass c. Two-leg floor bridge
With the movement compensation of arms fall forward, for what area would a client use foam rolling and static stretching techniques?a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rhomboids c. Lower trapezius d. Upper trapezius a. Latissimus dorsi
Acute variables determine which of the following? a. Progression of the exercise b. What type of workout is being done c. The amount of stress placed on the body d. Proper kinetic chain alignment c. The amount of stress placed on the body
During a Phase 3: Hypertrophy workout, what is the recommended rest interval? a. 1-2 minutes b. 45-90 seconds c. 0-60 seconds d. 3-5 minutes c. 0-60 seconds
During the stabilization phase, which tempo would be most appropriate for resistance training exercises? a. 4/2/1 b. 3/2/1 c. 1/1/1 d. 2/0/2 a. 4/2/1
In Phase 2: Strength Endurance, how many sets per exercise should be completed? a. 1-3 b. 2-4 c. 0-4 d. 3-5 b. 2-4
In Phase 3: Hypertrophy training, what is the appropriate tempo to use for a core exercise? a. Slow b. Fast c. Explosive d. Medium d. Medium
In the power phase, which of the following supersets would be the most appropriate? a. Barbell squat followed by step-up b. Step-up followed by tuck jump c. Step-up followed by barbell squat d. Barbell squat followed by tuck jump d. Barbell squat followed by tuck jump
In the strength endurance phase, which exercise superset would be most appropriate? a. Push-up followed by a seated cable row b. Bench press followed by a soccer throw c. Bench press followed by a push-up d. Push-up followed by bench press c. Bench press followed by a push-up
The adaptation of muscular endurance is achieved by which of the following? a. 1-3 sets, 12-20 reps at 75% to 85% of the 1RM b. 2-4 sets, 12-25 reps at 75% to 85% of the 1RM c. 2-4 sets, 12-25 reps at 50% to 70% of the 1RM d. 1-3 sets, 12-20 reps at 50 d. 1-3 sets, 12-20 reps at 50% to 70% of the 1RM
When working with loads exceeding 90 percent of maximum a client would not exceed a workout volume of? a. 60 reps b. 10 reps c. 30 reps d. 20 reps c. 30 reps
When performing a Phase 4 workout, how many repetitions per exercise should be performed? a. 1-5 b. 8-12 c. 4-8 d. 6-10 a. 1-5
Arterioles branch out into vessels know as: a. Venules b. Capillaries c. Blood vessels d. Veins b. Capillaries
What term describes the number of heart beats per minute and the amount of blood pumped per beat? a. Cardiac output b. Heart rate c. Stroke volume d. Blood pressure a. Cardiac output
What time is most effective to have your clients take their resting heart rates? a. Before bed b. Before a workout c. After a workout d. Upon waking in the morning d. Upon waking in the morning
Where does reoxygenated blood leave the heart and go to the entire body? a. Right ventricle b. Left ventricle c. Right atrium d. Left atrium b. Left ventricle
Which of the following are the two most important functions of the skeletal system? a. Transference of energy and support b. Transference of energy and movement assistance c. Leverage and movement assistance d. Leverage and support d. Leverage and support
Which of the following energy pathways is used for activities lasting between 30 and 50 seconds? a. ATP-CP b. Glycolysis c. Oxidative d. Krebs cycle b. Glycolysis
Which of the following is an example of a force-couple relationship? a. Posterior deltoid & pectoralis major during a bench press b. Gluteus maximus & psoas during a lunge c. Internal & external oblique during a medicine ball side throw d. Deltoid and c. Internal and external oblique during a medicine ball side throw
Which of the following is responsible for movement of bones around a joint? a. Velocity b. Acceleration c. Leverage d. Torque d. Torque
Which of the following is the outermost layer of muscular connective tissue? a. Fasiculius b. Endomysium c. Epimysium d. Perimysium c. Epimysium
Which of the following is the primary function of the muscular system? a. Control center for movement b. Structural framework c. Is commanded to move the skeletal system d. Receive sensory input c. Is commanded to move the skeletal system
Which of the following muscles aids in breathing after a set of max effort sprints? a. Pectoralis minor b. Lower trapezius c. Serratus anterior d. Rhomboids a. Pectoralis minor
All buying decisions are based on which of the following: a. Price b. Knowledge c. Pressure d. Emotion d. Emotion
During which of the following exercises is fat the preferred form of energy? a. Marathon b. Power clean c. 200-yard dash d. High jump a. Marathon
Obesity, insulin resistance, and hypertension are all symptoms of which of the following? a. Coronary heart disease b. Peripheral edema condition c. Restrictive lung disease d. Metabolic syndrome d. Metabolic syndrome
To be absorbed effectively, how should calcium supplements be taken? a. With other minerals b. Within a multivitamin c. With meals, spread throughout the day d. With one meal a day c. With meals, spread throughout the day
What is the best method of training for a client with obstructive lung disease? a. Vertical loading b. Horizontal loading c. Split-routine d. Peripheral heart action d. Peripheral heart action
What should a trainer share with a client regarding carbohydrate intake and weight gain? a. Limit carbohydrates to prevent weight gain b. Excess intake of any nutrient will cause weight gain c. Increase the intake of high glycemic index foods d. Increa b. Excess intake of any nutrient will cause weight gain
When is it alright for a client to follow a diet that allows consumption of only 800 - 1000 calories per day? a. Under the supervision of a certified personal trainer b. Under the supervision of a medical professional c. Under the supervision of a stren b. Under the supervision of a medical professional
Which of the following defines SMART? a. Specific, Measurable, Accountable, Relevant, Time Bound b. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely c. Specific, Meaningful, Accountable, Realistic, Time Bound d. Specific, Meaningful, Attainable, Rel b. Specific, Measurable, Attainable, Realistic, Timely
Which of the following factors is used to determine progression when working with a youth client? a. Postural control b. Speed c. Strength d. Muscle hypertrophy a. Postural control
Which of the following is a preferred exercise when working with a hypertensive client? a. Prone cobra b. Floor bridge c. Standing torso cable iso-rotation d. Isometric squat c. Standing torso cable iso-rotation
Which of the following is an example of a non-directive question? a. What would you like to achieve? b. Have you ever worked with a personal trainer before? c. Have you consulted your physician? d. Have you previously been a member of a gym? a. What would you like to achieve?
Which of the following is the fourth step in the stages of change model? a. Contemplation b. Precontemplation c. Action d. Preparation c. Action
You have a client with the goal of increasing his lean body mass; which of the following is the best recommendation for protein intake? a. 0.9 to 1.1 g/lb b. 0.9 to 1.1 g/kg c. 0.5 to 0.8 g/lb d. 0.5 to 0.8 g/kg c. 0.5 to 0.8 g/lb
A client's shoulder elevates when perfoming a pushing assessment, what is a probable underactive muscle? a. Lower trapezius b. Upper trapezius c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Levator scapulae a. Lower trapezius
A multiplanar single-leg box hop-up with stabilization is categorized as an exercise in which of the following? a. Leg-power b. Leg-stabilization c. Balance-stabilization d. Balance-power d. Balance-power
A prolonged intolerable stressor that produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury is called? a. Overworking b. Alarm reaction c. Exhaustion d. Resistance development c. Exhaustion
A seated cable row is an example of which level of training in the NASM OPT model? a. Stabilization b. Strength c. Power d. Reactive b. Strength
Diastolic blood pressure represents which of the following? a. The top number in the blood pressure reading b. Pressure within the arterial system after the heart contracts c. The larger of the two numbers d. Pressure within the arterial syst d. Pressure within the arterial system when the heart is resting and filling with blood
During the pushing assessment, you notice your client's shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise would you perform with them? a. Chin tuck b. Quadruped arm/ opposite leg raise c. Ball wall squats d. Ball cobra d. Ball cobra
For a client who demonstrates their low back arching as a movement compensation, which method of cardio would you initially avoid? a. Treadmills b. Bicycles c. Elliptical trainers d. Group exercise classes b. Bicycles
How long does NASM suggest the cardiorespiratory portion of the warm-up should last? a. 0-3 minutes b. 3-5 minutes c. 5-10 minutes d. 10-15 minutes c. 5-10 minutes
How long does pressure need to be held on the tender spot while using self-myofascial release? a. 15 seconds minimum b. 20 seconds minimum c. 25 seconds minimum d. 30 seconds minimum d. 30 seconds minimum
If a client's feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive? a. Soleus b. Biceps femoris (short head) c. Medial gastrocnemius d. TFL c. Medial gastrocnemius
In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is lengthened? a. Gastrocnemius b. Soleus c. Internal oblique d. Erector spinae c. Internal oblique
In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened? a. Scalenes b. Rhomboids c. Teres minor d. Deep cervical flexors a. Scalenes
Increasing weight with each set is an example of which type of resistance-training system? a. Multiple set b. Pyramid c. Circuit training d. Vertical loading b. Pyramid
The gluteus maximus is responsible for which of the following? a. Concentrically accelerating hip abduction and internal rotation b. Concentrically accelerating hip abduction and external rotation c. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and d. Concentrically accelerating hip extension and external rotation
The latissimus dorsi is responsible for concentrically accelerating which of the following movements? a. Shoulder flexion, abduction, and external rotation b. Shoulder extension, adduction, and external rotation c. Shoulder flexion, abduction, a d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation
The tendency of the body to seek the path of least resistance during functional movement patterns is known as: a. Relative flexibility b. Corrective flexibility c. Dynamic flexibility d. Active flexibility a. Relative flexibility
What assessment is used to assess upper extremity agility and stability? a. Shark skill b. Upper extremity strength c. Davies d. Overhead squat c. Davies
What effect do beta-blockers have on a client's blood pressure? a. No effect b. Decrease c. Increase d. Outside scope of practice for personal trainer b. Decrease
What exercise is considered a total-body strength level exercise? a. Squat, curl, to two-arm press b. Two- arm push press c. Barbell clean d. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press a. Squat, curl, to two-arm press
What is a potential drawback to the horizontal loading system? a. Useful for hypertrophy phase only b. The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time than the workout c. Less effective when compared to vertical loading d. b. The amount of time typically spent resting can add up to more time than the workout
What is the appropriate percentage to increase after each set when performing an upper extremity strength assessment? a. 1%-2% b. 5%-10% c. 10%-15% d. 15%-20% b. 5%-10%
What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate? a. Right before bed b. Right before workout c. Just after workout d. Upon waking in the morning d. Upon waking in the morning
What is the immediate progression of an alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press? a. Two-arm ball dumbbell chest press b. Barbell bench press c. Alternating-arm dumbbell chest press on bench d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press d. Single-arm ball dumbbell chest press
What is the most appropriate heart rate percentage range for a client just starting into zone 3? a. 75-79% b. 80-85% c. 86-90% d. 91-94% c. 86-90%
What is the next immediate progression for the ball two-arm dumbbell chest press? a. Two-arm dumbbell chest press on a bench b. Single-leg ball dumbbell chest press c. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press d. Single-arm ball dumbbell ches c. Alternating-arm ball dumbbell chest press
What type of exercise is a single-leg power step-up categorized as? a. Plyometric-strength b. Leg-strength c. Plyometric-power d. SAQ c. Plyometric-power
When a client is performing the overhead squat assessment from the lateral view, which of the following kinetic chain checkpoints are you observing? a. Feet and knees b. Lumbo pelvic hip complex, feet, and knees c. Lumbo pelvic hip complex and s c. Lumbo pelvic hip complex and shoulder complex
When determining a client's heart rate for zone 2, which equation would you use? a. (200 - Clients age) x (65% and 75%) b. (200 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%) c. (220 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%) d. (220 - Clients age) x (65% and 75%) c. (220 - Clients age) x (76% and 85%)
When first starting out with a brand new client, which of the following training systems is most appropriate? a. Circuit training b. Single set c. Split set d. Multiple set b. Single set
When performing a peripheral heart action workout for strength, immediately after a barbell squat, which exercise would you perform? a. Romanian deadlift b. Squat Jump c. Seated row d. Single-leg cable row c. Seated row
When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle? a. Gluteus medius b. Adductor complex c. Medial gastrocnemius d. Vastus medialis oblique (VMO) b. Adductor complex
When performing the overhead squat assessment, your client's arms fall forward, which muscle would be considered most likely overactive? a. Rhomboids b. Supraspinatus c. Teres major d. Teres minor c. Teres major
When performing the single-leg dumbbell scaption, what is the immediate regression? a. Single-leg, alternating arm b. Single-leg, single-arm c. Two legs d. Seated c. Two legs
When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following? a. Balance-power b. Balance-strength c. Balance-stabilizatio b. Balance-strength
When training for speed, agility, and quickness, the foot and ankle complex should be in which of the following positions when it hits the ground? a. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed b. Externally rotated and dorsiflexed c. Internally rot a. Pointing straight ahead and dorsiflexed
When training in Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance, what is the main method of progression? a. Increasing speed of movement b. Increasing proprioception c. Increasing volume d. Increasing load b. Increasing proprioception
Which muscle is responsible for concentrically accelerating plantar flexion? a. Semitendinosis b. Anterior tibialis c. Gastrocnemius d. Bicep femoris c. Gastrocnemius
Which of the following core exercises is appropriate for a new client? a. Floor prone cobra b. Ball crunch c. Reverse crunch d. Cable rotation a. Floor prone cobra
Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise? a. Seated cable row b. Standing cable row c. Medicine ball pull over throw d. Seated lat pull down b. Standing cable row
Which of the following exercises is the best example of a stabilization level exercise? a. Lunge to two-arm press b. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press c. Barbell squat d. Squat jumps to stabilization b. Multiplanar step-up to balance, curl, to overhead press
Which of the following is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill? a. Tuck jump b. One-ins c. Ice skaters d. Power step-ups b. One-ins
Which of the following is characterized by flat feet and adducted and internally rotated knees? a. Pronation distortion syndrome b. Lower crossed syndrome c. Upper crossed syndrome d. Lower extremity movement syndrome a. Pronation distortion syndrome
Which of the following is considered a core power exercise? a. Cable rotation b. Back extension c. Rotation chest pass d. Marching c. Rotation chest pass
Which of the following is considered subjective information? a. Taking radial pulse b. Lifestyle questions c. Overhead squat assessment d. Circumference measurements b. Lifestyle questions
Which of the following is the best example of zone 3 cardio? a. 3 rep bench press max b. Sprinting c. Fast walking d. Group exercise class b. Sprinting
Which of the following muscles is considered part of the global stabilization system? a. Internal oblique b. External oblique c. Diaphragm d. Hip flexors b. External oblique
Which of the following training systems can be just as beneficial as traditional forms of cardiorespiratory training? a. Pyramid b. Supersets c. Circuit training d. Vertical loading c. Circuit training
You have a client working in Phase 3: Hypertrophy, what type of flexibility would you use? a. Self-myofascial release and dynamic stretching b. Self-myofascial release only c. Self-myofascial release and static stretching d. Self-myofascial r d. Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching
You observe that your client's knee moves inward during the single-leg squat assessment; what muscle would you foam roll and static stretch? a. TFL b. Glute medius c. VMO d. Medial hamstring a. TFL
What zone would a client start in if they had an average score on the YMCA step test? a. Zone 1 b. Zone 2 c. Zone 3 d. Zone 4 b. Zone 2
The hip flexor complex, erector spine, and lats are all muscles that are implicated as being overactive when what movement compensation occurs during an overhead squat assessment? A)Arms fall forward B)Excessive forward lean C)Low back arches D)Low back Low back arches
When conducting the waist-to-hip ratio, what is the ratio for women and for men above which may put these individuals at risk for a number of diseases? A).75-.80 B).80-.75 C).80-.95 D).95-.80 .80-.75
What type of blood pressure signifies the minimum pressure within the arteries through a full cardiac cycle and what is the normal range? A)Diastolic 80-85 B)Systolic 80-85 C)Diastolic 120-130 D)Systolic 120-130 Diastolic 80-85
What are the average resting heart rates for a male and female?? A)65 and 70 B)70 and 75 C)70 and 80 D)75 and 80 70 and 75
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following stretches would be most appropriate for this movement compensation? A)Static kneeling hip flexor stretch B)Static Piriformis stretch C)Static Gastrocne Static Kneeling hip flexor stretch
All of the following items serve as guidelines for the health and fitness prof. when performing an overhead squat assessment EXECPT: A)Instruct client to stand with abdomen drawn in. B)Instruct client to stand with feet shoulder width apart. C)Give client Give client technique corrections as he/she performs the squat.
What is the appropriate weight increase, following warmup, when performs a lower extremity strength assessment (squat)? A)10-20 POUNDS B)20-30 POUNDS C)30-40 POUNDS D)50-60 POUNDS 30-40 POUNDS
What is the name of the assessment that tests upper extremity neuromuscular efficiency? A)Pushing assessment B)Upper extremity strength assessment C)1 RM bench press D)Davies test Pushing assessment
When conducting the overhead squat assessment how low should the health and fitness prof. instruct the client to squat? A)As low as possible B)Until the upper leg is parallel with the floor. C)No instruction should be given. D)About to the height of a cha About to the height of a chair.
Gathering a client circumference measurements during the initial assessment is valuable for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: A)They can be used to calculate waist to hip ration. B)They can be used to calculate lean body mass. C)They can be used to cal They can be used to calculate BMI.
Which of the following tests assess cardiorespiratory capability? A)Shark skill and step test. B)Step test and rockport walk test. C)Davis and shark skill assessments. D)Overhead squat and single-leg squat test. Step test and rockport walk test.
During a single-leg squat assessment, a client knees move inward. This indicates which of the following muscles as being underactive? A)Biceps Femoris B)Vastus lateralis C)Gluteus medius D)Adductor complex Gluteus medius
Using the Durin-Womersley formula to assess and measure body fat percentage requires the health and fitness professional to test which of the following four skin-fold sites? A)Biceps, triceps, iliac crest, quads B)Biceps, triceps, subscapular, abdomen C)B Biceps, triceps, subscapular, iliac crest
Knowing that a client wears dress shoes to work is helpful for the health and fitness prof. to know during an assessment because: A)It indicates that the client will likely possess an anterior pelvic tilt. B)It indicates that the clients ankle complex wil It indicates that the clients ankle complex will be in a plantar flexed position for extended periods of time.
When conducting an overhead squat assessment, how many total reps are performed? A)3 total B)5 total C)6 total D)10 total 10 total
Posture is the alignment and function of all components of the kinetic chain and is under the control of which of the following systems? A)Central Nervous System (CNS) B)Appendicualr skeletal system C)Periphearl nervous system D)Axial Skeletal system. Central Nervous System (CNS)
Which of the following measurements is NOT a good indicator of body fat vs. lean body mass? A)Body Mass Index B)Hydrostatic weighing C)Bioelectrical impedance D)Skin-fold calipers Body Mass Index
Performing a single-leg balance Reach is an ideal example of a strengthening exercise when which of the following movement compensations are present? A)Excessive forward lean B)Feet turn out C)Low back arches D)Knees move inward Feet turn out
Which of the following assessments best measures lower extremity agility and neuromuscular control? A)Lower extremity strength assessment B)Single-leg squat assessment. C)Shark Skill test D)Overhead squat assessment. Shark Skill test
An example of an objective assessment would include which of the following? A)Heart rate B)Dietary intake C)General and Medical history D)PAR-Q Heart Rate
Knowing a client occupation is helpful becuase it can provide the health and fitness prof. with insight into movement capacity. All of the following info. is helpful in understanding the clients work environment EXCEPT: A)Annual income B)Repetitive moveme Annual Income
If a clients low back arches while pressing overhead it could be indicative of which of the following? A)Overactive intrinsic core stabilization B)Overactive lats C)Underactive hip flexors D)Overactive biceps femoris Overactive lats
According to the text, a squat to row is an ideal example of a strengthing exercise when which of the following movement compensations are observed during aan overhead squat assessment? A)Arms fall forward B)Shoulders elevate C)forward head D)Low back arc Arms fall forward
How many reps are performed before failure on the upper extremity strength assessment? A)2-4 B)3-5 C)8-10 D)10-12 3-5
After conducting a single-leg squat assessment on a client, it is discovered that the clients knee moves inward during the motion. This finding implicates which of the following muscles as being underactive? A)Tensor Fascailatae B)Biceps femoris C)Vastus Vastus medials Oblique
Which of the Following bioenergetics pathways primarily breakdown carbohydrates rapidly to produce ATP? A)Oxidative B)ATP-CP C)Aerobic D)Glycolysis Glycolysis
What is the name of the movement of a body part away from the middle of the body? A)Adduction B)Medial C)Lateral D)Abduction Abduction
Balance and neuromuscular efficiency are improved through repetitive exposure to a variety of which of the following kinds of conditions? A)Progressive conditions B)Motor conditions C)Unusual conditions D)Multisensory conditions Multisensory Conditions
What is the name of the sensory afferents that are responsible for sensing distortions of body tissue? A)Peripheral nerves B)Nociceptors C)Chemoreceptors D)Mechanoreceptors Mechanoreceptors
Altered length-tension relationships, force-couple relationships, and joint arthrokinematics are effects of which of the following? A)Poor posture B)Wearing orthopedic shoes C)Unhealthy eating habits D)Increased physical activity Poor Posture
A front Med ball oblique throw is what type of exercise? A)Core-strength B)Balance-Power C)Balance-Strength D)Core-Power Core-Power
Efficient movement of the kinetic chain requires all of the following EXCEPT: A)Proper force-couples B)Proper force-velocity C)Proper length-tension relationship D)Proper arthrokinematics Proper Force-Velocity
Resistance training can become a hindrance if the following factor(s) occur: A)Over training and plateau B)proper neuromuscular efficiency is developed C)client notices a lower resting heart rate D)improper assessment and poor flexibility protocol Improper assessment and poor flexibility
Which pathway of the bioenergetics continuum would most likely be used during heavy weight lifting? A)Oxidaive B)ATP-CP C)Glycolysis D)Glycogensis ATP-CP
What is the term for the ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production in all three planes of motion, from all body positions, during functional activities? A)Speed B)Agility C)Functional Speed D)Quickness Quickness
When a muscle is exerting less force than is being placed on it, resulting in the lengthening of the muscle, this is known as what type of contraction? A)Acceleration B)Isometeric C)Concentric D)Eccentric Eccentric
What is the anatomical location that refers to position above a reference point? A)Proximal B)Anteriror C)Superior D)Distal Superior
What is the muscle that concentrically accelerates hip external rotation, abduction, and extension? A)Rectus Femoris B)Sartorius C)Piriformis D)Gluteus Maximus Piriformis
What is the term given to the ability to start, stop, and change direction quickly while maintain proper posture? A)Agility B)Quickness C)Speed D)Lateral Speed Agility
When a client is performing the static lat stretch, his back arches. This is an example of what? A)Extensibility B)Relative flexibility C)Altered reciprocal inhibition D)Synergistic dominance Relative Flexibility
The state where the body's metabolism is elevated following exercise is known as: A)Respiratory exchange ratio B)Excess postexercise oxygen consumption C)Exercise post oxygen consumption D)Excess post oxygen consumption Excess postexercise oxygen consumption
The core is divided into the stabilization system and the movement system. Which of the following muscles is not part of the core-stabilization system? A)Rectus abdominus B)Multifidus C)Transverse abdominus D)Pelvic floor muscles Rectus Abdominus
What is the term given to the ability of the nervous and muscular system to move in the most efficient manner while placing the least amount of stress on the kinetic chain? A)Functional efficiency B)Neuromuscular efficiency C)Structural integrity D)struc Functional Efficiency
The ability of the neuromuscular system to allow optimal levels of motor unit recruitment and synchronization within a muscle is known as: A)Intramuscular coordination B)Intermuscular coordination C)Sensorimotor integration D)Neuromuscular efficiency Intramuscular coordination
What is the name of the reflex that helps to maintain the eyes on a level plane? A)Pelvo-cranial reflex B)Lumbo-pelvic reflex C)Lumbo-ocular reflex D)Pelvo-ocular reflex Pelvo-ocular reflex
When a muscle is exerting more force than is being placed on it, resulting in the shortening of the muscle, what is the type of contraction? A)Acceleration B)Concentric C)Isometric D)Eccentric Concentric
The functional unit of the muscle formed by repeating sections of actin and myosin and lies in the space between two Z lines is known as: A)Actin and myosin B)Sarcomere C)Myofibril D)Sarcolemma Sarcomere
Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the rest of the body? A)Left Ventricle B)Right Atrium C)Right Ventricle D)Left Atrium Right Artrium
When all of the components of the kinetic chain are functioning properly, the results include: appropriate length-tension relationships, force-couple relationships, and which of the following? A)Joint relative flexibility B)Joint arthrokinematics C)Joint Joint Arthrokinematics
Alterations in length-tension relationships, force-couple relationships, and arthrokinematics can decrease which of the following? A)Serial distortion pattern B)Cumulative injury C)Sensorimotor integration D)Neuromuscular control Neuromuscular control
Research has demonstrated that higher volume training (3-4 sets at 9-20 reps) prdoces what type of training adaptions? A)Neural B)Cellular C)Endurance D)Metabolic Cellular
According to the Optimum Performance Training Model, an Ice Skater is considered what type of exercise? A)Reactive-Power B)Reactive-strength C)Functional-Power D)Reactive-Functional Reactive-Power
What is the recommended tempo for core exercises when performed in the Maximal Strength Training Phase of the Strength Level of the OPT Model? A)1/1/1 B)2/0/2 C)4/2/1 D)Repeating 1/1/1
Utilizing multiple set systems of training versus single set systems of training have been shown to be: A)Dangerous B)Superior C)Inferior D)Equal Superior
Exercises that emphasizes an agonist immediately followed by an exercise that emphasizes the antagonist are known as: A)Split routine B)Compound set C)Super set D)Peripheral heart action Compound Set
Regressions for a Prone IS0-Ab include: A)Perform with hip extension B)Perform with forearms on bench C)Perform on toes D)Ball Crunch Perform with forearms on bench
Which of the following exercise positions should be avoided in the 2nd and 3rd trimesters of pregnancy? A)Prone and supine B)Prone only C)Standing and seated D)Side lying Prone and Supine
The Optimum Performance Training Model (OPT Model) categorizes three adaptions into which three building blocks (in order)? A)Stabilization, Endurance, and Strength B)Strength, Stabilization, and Power C)Strength, Endurance, and Power D)Stabilization, Str Stabilization, Strength, and Power
In the integrated flexibility continuum, static stretching is considered what type of flexibility? A)Functional B)Active C)Neuromuscular D)Corrective Corrective
What repetition is appropriate in order to achieve the adaption of strength? A)1-5 only B)6-8 only C)1-12 D)12-25 only 1-12
According to research, endurance is best achieved by performing what number of reps at 50-70% of the 1RM? A)1-5 B)8-12 C)5-7 D)12-25 12-25
The following items are all adaptions seen in the strength level of the Optimum Performance Training Model EXCEPT: A)Hypertrophy B)Maximal Strength C)Stabilization Endurance D)Strength Endurance Stabilization Endurance
A Squat Jump with Stabilization is considered what type of exercise? A)Reactive-Strength B)Functional-Power C)Reactive-Stabilization D)Reactive-Functional Reactive-Stabilization
The preferred resistance training system for using the Optimum Performance Training Model is: A)Vertical loading B)Superset C)Peripheral heart action D)Horizontal loading Vertical Loading
An example of a chest-strength exercise according to the text and OPT Model would be: A)Barbell Bench Press B)Barbell Clean C)Cable Chest Press D)Dumbbell Chest Press on Stability ball Barbell Bench Press
What is the name of the plane of motion that divides the body into two halves of front and back, thereby allowing for side to side movement? A)Sagittal B)Frontal C)Transverse D)Axis Frontal
A Single-Leg Romanian Deadlift is an example of what type of exercise? A)Balance-Stabilization B)Core-strength C)Balance-Strength D)Resistance-Strength Balance-Strength
All of the following items are physiologic benefits obtained from following the OPT Model EXCEPT: A)Increased tissue tensile strength B)Decreased body fat C)Increased bone density D)Improved cardiorespiratory efficiency Decreased Body fat
In a balance training program, which of the following most accurately describes proper proprioceptive challenge progressions? A)Half Foam roll, Airex pad, DynaDisc B)Half foam roll, Airex pad, floor C)Half foam roll, DynaDisc, floor D)DynaDisc, Airex pad, Half foam roll, Airex pad, DynaDisc
Which of the following MOST accurately describes a typical client with Type II diabetes? A)Female, age 30, BMI of 22, exercises regularly takes insulin shot B)Female, age 56, BMI of 35, sedentary lifestyle, regulates nutrition C)Male, age 27, BMI of 20, e Female, age 56, BMI of 35, sedentary lifestyles, regulates nutrition
An example of a Zone three cardiorespiratory exercise is: A)Sprinting B)Low intensity cycling C)Jogging D)Brisk walking Sprinting
The Reverse Crunch is considered what type of exercise? A)Core-Strength B)Core-Stabilization C)Balance-Strength D)Core-Balance Core-Strength
Which shoulder exercise is appropriate for a client training in phase 3 of the OPT Model? A)Seated Stability Ball Military Press B)Seated Dumbbell Shoulder Press C)Standing Dumbbell Scaption D)Medicine Ball Scoop Toss Seated Dumbbell Shoulder Press
The most appropriate chest exercise to use during a Phase 1 Stabilization Endurance Training program would be: A)Push-Ups B)Medicine Ball Chest Pass C)Standing Cable Chest Press D)Barbell Bench Press Standing Cable Chest Press
Which of the following flexibility techniques are used in all parts of the integrated flexibility continuum? A)Myofibril B)Endomysium C)SMR D)Fascicle SMR
Six useful principles of effective goal setting are summarized by the acronym SCAMPI, which stands for: A)Specific, challenging, approach, measurable, proximal, improvement oriented. B)Short, challenging, approach, measurable, proximal, improvement orient Specific, challenging, approach, measurable, proximal, inspirational.
The most positive messages that a health and fitness professional can send are represented by: A)Confidence, enthusiasm, and professionalism B)Fitness level, confidence, and professionalism C)Education, enthusiasm, and professionalism D)Education, account Confidence, enthusiasm, and professionalism
Which of the following actions is not one of the recommended items trainers should do in attempting to approach potential clients? A)Offer active members towels or water. B)Educate to become established as the professional. C)Roam the floor and clean up e Educate to become established as the professional
Excess calcium intake can result in: A)Gastrointestinal irritation. B)Heart failure. C)Development of kidney stones. D)Calcification of blood vessels. Development of kidney stones
The amino acid that is missing or present in the smallest amount is termed: A)Essential amino acid. B)Limiting factor. C)Incomplete protein. D)Lacking factor. Limiting factor
A method of asking questions on a step-by-step basis to discover the initial cause of a fault is called: A)Persistence. B)Interrogation. C)Positive psychology. D)Root cause analysis. Root cause analysis
What is the daily-recommended intake of fiber? A)10 grams B)15 grams C)20 grams D)25 grams 25 grams
Belief is a powerful predictor of success and comes in many forms. All of the following are forms of belief EXECPT: A)Locus of control. B)Motivation. C)Self-efficacy. D)Hope. Motivation
After becoming a credentialed personal trainer, how many CEU's are required per two year time period? A)1.5 B)1.8 C)2.0 D)2.5 2.0
What percentage of communication is tone of voice? A)7% B)38% C)55% D)85% 38%
The health and fitness professional should have clients weigh and measure food for a minimum of how long? A)3 days B)1 week C)2 weeks D)1month 1 week
How many calories does one gram of CHO yield? A)2 B)9 C)8 D)4 4
What percentage of communication is based on words? A)7% B)17% C)37% D)57% 7%
Why is measuring progress toward goals important for a client? A)It allows the client to set more specific goals. B)It allows the client to think in all-or-none terms. C)It allows the client to set more challenging goals. D)It minimizes the client thinkin It minimizes the client thinking in all-or-none terms
During a negative energy balance, amino acids are used to assist in energy production. What is this called? A)Glucogensis B)Conversion C)Glycogenesis D)Thermogenesis Glucogenesis
Which of the following compounds are considered the chief source of energy for all bodily functions and muscular exertion? A)CHO B)Protein C)Fat D)Water CHO
Consumption of which of the following are associated with lower incidence of heart disease, lower incidence of cancer, maintain good intestinal motility, and helps regulate the body's absorption of glucose? A)CHO B)Protein C)Fiber D)Water Fiber
Water constitutes approximately what percentage of the human body? A)50% B)60% C)70% D)80% 60%
Health and fitness professionals need to "reinterpret" unintentionally misleading responses about client's goals. Examples of these types of responses include all of the following EXCEPT: A)I want better energy levels. B)I want to get in shape. C)I want t I want to lose 8% body fat.
When performing chest compressions while administering CPR, the depth of the compressions should be delivered at a depth of: A)0.5 to 1 inch. B)1 to 1.5 inches. C)1.5 to 2 inches. D)2 to 2.5 inches. 1.5 to 2 inches
Amino acids that are manufactured by the body from dietary nitrogen and fragments of CHO and fat are termed: A)Essential. B)Monosaccharide. C)Non-essential. D)Monounsaturated Non-essential
All of the following are reasons why the body needs CHO EXCEPT: A)They efficiently burn and use fat and protein. B)Parts of the CNS rely exclusively on them. C)They assist in building muscle. D)They are the perfect and preferred form of energy. They assist in building muscle
When setting goals, why is it important to set proximal, short-term goals? A)Allows the client to move toward the goals. B)Raises sense of confidence and determination. C)Lets a client know whether the strategy is working. D)Improves ideals and ambitions Raises senses of confidence and determination
What percentage of fat from total caloric intake is recommended for clients with a goal of fat loss or enhanced overall health? A)1%-9% B)10%-30% C)31%-40% D)41%-50% 10%-30%
The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all healthy individuals who are in a particular life stage and gender group is termed: A)Dietary Reference Intake. B)Estimated average Requirement. C)Da Recommended Dietary Allowance
1) Today, approximately what percentages of adults are estimated to be obese? (Chp.1) 30%. 2) A proprioceptively enriched environment is one that challenges the internal balance and stabilization mechanisms of the body. (T/F) (Chp.1)
1) Match up the mechanoreceptors to heir functions (Chp.2): A) Muscle Spindles B) Golgi Tendon Organs C) Joint Receptors Sense length and rate of length change, causing contraction. Sense tension and rate of tension developed and cause relaxation. Sense p Muscle spindles- Sense length and rate of length change, causing contraction. Golgi Tendon Organs- Sense tension and rate of tension developed and cause relaxation. Joint Receptors- Sense pressure, acceleration, and deceleration at a joint.
2) Match the Synovial joint with an example (Chp.2): A) Gliding Joint B) Hinge Joint C) Saddle Joint D) Ball-and-Socket Joint Carpals of the hand. Elbow. Carpometacarpal joint of thumb. Shoulder. Gliding Joint- Carpals of the hand. Hinge Joint- Elbow. Saddle Joint- Carpometacarpal joint of thumb. Ball-and-Socket Joint- Shoulder.
3) Match up the muscle with its appropriate action during hip extension. (Chp.2) A) Gluteus Maximus B) Hamstring C) Transverse Abdominis D) Psoas Agonsit. Synergist Stabilizer. Antagonist. Gluteus Maximus- Agonsit. Hamstring- Synergist. Transverse Abdominis- Stabilizer. Psoas- Antagonist.
4) Which kind of muscle fibers are "fast twitch"? (Chp.2) Type II
5) All movement is directly dictated by their nervous system. (T/F) (Chp.2) True
1) What are the three components of the cardiovascular system? (Chp.3) Heart, blood, and blood vessels.
2) Which systems of the Bioenergetic continuum is (are) aerobic? (Chp.3) Oxidative
3) Which pathway of the Bioenergetic continuum would most likely be used during heavy weight training? (Chp.3) ATP-CP System
4) The_____atrium gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the entire body, whereas the_____atrium gathers reoxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs. Right and Left
1) Abduction (OUT) and adduction (IN) occur in which plane of motion? A)Frontal B)Sagitual C)Transverse (Chp.4) Frontal Plane
2) Lowering a barbell down toward the chest during a bench press is an example of what kind of muscle contraction? (Chp. 4) A) Concentric B) Eccentric C) Isometric Eccentric is lowering the weight (negative movement)
3) Which is considered internal feedback used by the body to monitor movement? A)Length Tension Relationship B)Force Couple Relationship C)Arthrokienmatics D)All of the Above (Chp.4) Length-Tension Relationship, Force-Couple Relationship, and Arthrokinematics
4) Sensorimotor integration requires proprioception. (T/F) (Chp.4) True
5) A heart rate monitor is an example of which type of feedback? (Chp.4) External
1) If a client spends a lot of time sitting at his or her job, it can lead to tightness in the: (Chp.5) Hip Flexors
2) Which four sites of the body are used to determine a sum for the Durnin-Womersley formula? (Chp.5) Biceps, Triceps, Iliac Crest, and Subscapular.
3) Static/Dynamic postural observations should relate to movements such as squatting, bending, pulling, pushing, and balancing. (Chp.5) Dynamic
4) What heart rate zone should a 50-years-old male client be in if he achieved a recovery pulse of 90 after performing the 3-mintue step test? (Chp.5) 180 (seconds) x 100/90 x 5.6 Poor This is ZONE 1
5) When performing the Shark skill test, how much time do you add to the completion time for each fault? (Chp.5) .10 Seconds
1) The kinetic chain is made up of what? (Chp.6) Nervous System, Muscular System, and Skeletal System
2) What is the process in which the body initiates the repair of dysfunction within the connective tissue? (Chp.6) Cumulative Injury Cycle
3) Active flexibility uses the principle of Reciprocal or Autogenic Inhibition? (Chp.6) Reciprocal Inhibition
4) Which type of stretching stimulates the Golgi tendon organ and produces autogenic inhibition? (Chp.6) Static Stretching, Self-myofascial release
5) A latissimus dorsi stretch is a good static stretch for which movement compensation during an overhead squat assessment? (Chp.6) Arms Fall forward
1) One adaptive benefit of cardio exercise is that increase/decrease resting heart rate and increase/decrease exercising heart rate.(CHP.7) Decrease and Decrease
2) It has been shown that performing three 10-mintue bouts of exercise is just as effective as one 30-mintue continuous bout of the same exercise. (T/F) (Chp.7) True
3) The Law of Thermodynamics states that body fat reduction can only take place when there is more______being burned than consumed. (Chp.7) Calories
4) Which of the following are true about circuit training? (T/F) (Chp.7) A) It is not as beneficial as traditional forms of cardio exercise. B) It produces greater levels of EPOC. C) It produces near identical caloric expenditure for the same given time s A and B are true
5) Clients with an anterior pelvic tilt (low back arches) should use bicycles and steppers to place the hips into flexion? (T/F) (Chp.7) False
1) The movement system should be trained before the stabilization system. (T/F) (Chp.8) False
2) In core stabilization training, exercise involve little motion through the spine and pelvis. (T/F) (Chp.8) True
3) Indicate whether the following exercises are stabilization, strength, or power exercises. (Chp.8) I) Stabilization II) Strength III) Power A)Back Extension B)Woodchop throw C)Floor Bridge D)Ball Crunch I= Floor Bridge, II= Back Extension and Ball Crunch, III=Woodchop throw
4) What kind of exercises would you choose for a client in phase 3 (hypertrophy training)? A) Core Stabilization B) Core Strength C) Core Power (Chp.8) Core Strength
5) Research shows that individuals who have chronic low back pain display an increased activation of the transversus abdominis, internal oblique, pelvic floor muscles, multifidus, diaphragm, and deep erector spinae. T/F (Chp.8) False
1) The integrated performance paradigm demonstrates that adequate force reduction and stabilization are required for optimum force production. (T/F) (Chp.9) True
2) Joint dysfunction may lead to what: (Chp.9) Synergistic dominance, Muscle inhibition, and decrease neuromuscular control
3) What kind of exercises would you choose for a client in phase 3? (Chp.9) Balance-strength exercises
4-7) Match the exercise to either stabilization, strength, or power levels of training: A)Stabilization B)Strength C)Power 4) Single-leg balance 5) Multiplanar hop with stabilization 6) Single-leg squat 7) Lunge to balance Stabilization= single leg balance, Strength= Single-leg squat and Lunge to balance, Power= Multiplanar hop with stabilization.
1)What kind of reactive exercise would you choose for a client in phase 2 of the OPT model? Strength
2) Reactive training aims to generate minimal/maximal force output in a minimal/maximal amount of time. Maximal and minimal
3-6) Match the exercises to stabilization, strength, or power levels of training: A)Stabilization B)Strength C)Power 3)Ice Skater 4)Box jump-up with stabilization 5)Proceptive plyometrics 6) Power step-ups Stabilization= Box jump-up with stabilization, Strength= Power step-ups, and Power= Ice Skater and Proceptive plyometric
7) Circle which safety guidelines must be taken into consideration when designing a reactive-training program? Progressive and Performed with supportive shoes
1) Research has found that optimum stride length at maximum velocity is approximately how many times leg length? (CHP.11) 2.1-2.5
2) Proper agility training can help to prevent injury by improving the structural integrity of connective tissue. (T/F) (CHP.11) True
3) Select one: Frontside mechanic/backside mechanics includes the actions of ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, hip extension, and keeping the lumbar spine neutral. (CHP.11) Backside mechanics
1) In which category does the specific adaption of muscular endurance fall? (CHP.12) Stability
2) Connective tissues (such as ligaments and tendons) adapt just as quickly as muscles (T/F) (CHP.12) False
3)______ training is promoted as being more beneficial for strength and hypertrophy gains in advanced clients (CHP.12) Multiple-set
4)_______loading refers to performing all sets of an exercise or body part before moving on to the next exercise or body part. (CHP.12) Horizontal
5) Strength endurance allows the body to use lower levels of force with lower reps and fewer sets. (T/F) (CHP.12) False
1) The OPT model has been extremely successful in helping all populations to reduce body fat, increase lean muscle mass and strength, improve performance, and improve overall health. (T/F) (CHP.13) True
2) A typical client with the goal of improving general performance should specifically be cycled through which phases? (CHP.13) Phase 1 Stabilization; phase 2 Strength Endurance, and Phase 5 Power
3) Beginning clients should perform lower reps schemes. (T/F) (CHP.13) False
4) How long does it take for the body to replenish 100% of its ATP and creatine phosphate (CP) supplies? (CHP.13) 3 Minutes
5) Training volume is always inversely related to intensity. (T/F) (CHP.13) True
6) Which phases of training uses superset techniques? (CHP.13) A) Phase 1- Stabilization endurance B) Phase 2- Strength Endurance C) Phase 3- Hypertrophy Training D) Phase 4- Maximal Strength E) Phase 5- Power Phase 2- Strength and Phase 5- Power
1) In youth populations, the progression of aerobic training volume should not exceed what percentage per period of adaption? (CHP.14) 10%
2) Select which of the following items will decrease with age in older adults. (CHP.14) A) Maximum oxygen uptake B) Percentage of Body fat C) Maximum exercise heart rate D) Bone mass E) Measures of pulmonary function F) Lean body mass Maximum oxygen uptake, Maximum exercise heart rate, Bone mass, measures of pulmonary function, and lean body mass
3) In overweight or obese adults exercise capacity should be no greater than: (CHP.14) 60-80% of work capacity
4) Clients who take Beta-Blockers may display a skewed heart rate response to exercise. (T/F) (CHP.14) True
5) Because of a lack of insulin in type 1 diabetes, blood sugar is not optimally delivered to the cells, which results in: (CHP.14) Hyperglycemia
6) Symptoms should always supersede anything else as a sign to decrease or stop exercising. (T/F) (CHP.14) True
1) Which kind of fatty acids is considered to have favorable effects on blood lipid profiles and may play a role in the treatment and prevention of heart disease, hypertension, arthritis, and cancer? (CHP.15) A) Monounsaturated fatty acids B) Polyunsatura Monounsaturated fatty acid and polyunsaturated fatty acid
2) The______ of a food is the rise in metabolic rate that occurs after the food is ingested. (CHP.15) Thermic Effect
3) A study of type 2 diabetics (with insulin resistance) and people of normal weight found that 3 weeks of a high-CHO, low fat diet and exercise program significantly lowered insulin levels. (T/F) (CHP.15) True
4) Water constitutes approximately what percentage of the adult human body by weight? (CHP.15) 60%
5) When exercising for less than 60 minutes, water is the experts choice for fluid replacement. (T/F) (CHP.15) True
6) Recommended protein intake for athletes and exercisers is: (CHP.15) 15-30% of total caloric intake
7) Recommended CHO intake for adult's is_____ of total caloric intake, according to preference, performance, and satiety. (CHP.15) 50-70%
8)Foods with a higher glycemic index lead to fat storage regardless of caloric intake. (T/F) (CHP.15) False
1) Today there are separate regulations for dietary supplements from the regulations for foods and drugs. (T/F) (CHP.16) True
2) Excess calcium consumed with other minerals inhibits the absorption of some important trace minerals. (T/F) (CHP.16) True
3) Which of the following nutrients are not advised as a dietary supplement (choose all that apply)? (CHP.16) A) Riboflavin B) Germanium C) Biotin D) Cobalt E) Calcium F) Vitamin B12 Germanium and Cobalt
1) Those who are certain about what they want to accomplish are up to______ times more likely to successfully make life changes than those who are less certain. (CHP.17) Six
2) Jointly reviewing past workout data helps clients build confidence by seeing the progress they have made and helps motivate them to achieve more. (T/F) (CHP.17) True
3) Setting achievable goals at the upper/lower and of a client's ability will inspire more effort, and build more confidence when accomplished. (CHP.17) Upper
4) Success in life is rare because most people are lazy, lack willpower, or have a fear of success. (T/F) (CHP.17) False
1) What are most buying decisions based on? (CHP.18) A) Price B) Emotion C) Recommendation Emotion
2) In the client's mind, the value of a health and fitness professional's services must outweigh their cost. (T/F) (CHP.18) True
3) What percentage of communication is based on physiology? (CHP.18) A) 7 B) 38 C) 55 55% is based on physiology
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following stretches would be most appropriate for this movement compensation? A)Static Pec wall stretch B)Static Piriformis stretch C)Static Gastrocnemius stretc Static Lats Dorsi Stretch
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following stretches would be most appropriate for this movement compensation? A)SMR Soleus B)SMR Upper Trapezius C)SMR Biceps Femoris (short head)D)SMR Latissimu SMR Latissimus Dorsi
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely over active? a) Erector Spinae b) Abdominal Complex c)Teres Major d)TFL a) Erector Spinae
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely over active? a) Rotator Cuff b) Abdominal Complex c)Teres Major d)Latissimus Dorsi Latissimus Dorsi
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Lower Trapizius b)Gracils c)Hip flexor complex d)Gluteus maximus d)Gluteus maximus
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Hamstring complex b)Gracils c)Hip flexor complex d)Latissimus Dorsi a)Hamstring complex
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)TFL b)Intrinsic core stabilizers c)Hip flexor complex d)Latissimus Dorsi b)Intrinsic core stabilizers --transverse abdominis, multifuldus, transversospinalis, internal oblique, pelvic floor
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Lower trapizius b)Teres Major c)Hip flexor complex d)Latissimus Dorsi a)Lower trapizius
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Soleus b)Teres Major c)Rhomboids d)Latissimus Dorsi c)Rhomboids
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Rotator cuff b)Teres Major c)Pectoralis Minor d)Latissimus Dorsi a)Rotator cuff
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely OVERactive?a)Rhomboids b)Latissimus dorsi c)Erector spinae d)Rotator cuff b)Latissimus dorsi
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely OVERactive?a)Erector spinae b)Rotator cuff c)Gluteus maximus d)Teres Major d)Teres Major
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely OVERactive?a) Rhomboids b)Pectoralis major/minor c)Hip flexor complex d)Rotator cuff b)Pectoralis major/minor
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)TFL b)Adductor complex c)Soleus d)VMO c)Soleus
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)Sartorius b)Hip flexor complex c)VMO d)Lateral Gastrocnemius d)Lateral Gastrocnemius
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)Biceps Femoris b)Gluteus Medius c)Gracilis d)VMO a)Biceps Femoris
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)Medial gastrocnemius b) VMO c)Vastus Lateralis d)TFL a)Medial gastrocnemius
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)VMO b)Vastus Lateralis c)Gracilis d)Adductor complex TFL Soleus c)Gracilis
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)Soleus b)Sartorius c) VMO d)Biceps Femoris (short head) b)Sartorius
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a) VMO b)Adductor complex c)Medial Hamstring complex d)Tensor fascia latae c)Medial Hamstring complex
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)Popliteus b)Gastrocnemius c)VMO d)Adductor complex a)Popliteus
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that knees move inward. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)VMO b)Latissimus Dorsi c)Gluteus Medius d)Vastus Lateralus d)Vastus Lateralus
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which stretch would be most appropriate for this movement compensation? A)Static Pec wall stretch B)Static Piriformis stretch C)Static Gastrocnemius stretch D)Static Lats Dor Static Lats Dorsi Stretch
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which stretch would be most appropriate for this movement compensation? A)SMR Soleus B)SMR Upper Trapezius C)SMR Biceps Femoris (short head)D)SMR Latissimus Dorsi SMR Latissimus Dorsi
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely over active? a) Erector Spinae b) Abdominal Complex c)Teres Major d)TFL a) Erector Spinae
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely over active? a) Rotator Cuff b) Abdominal Complex c)Teres Major d)Latissimus Dorsi Latissimus Dorsi
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Lower Trapizius b)Gracils c)Hip flexor complex d)Gluteus maximus d)Gluteus maximus
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Hamstring complex b)Gracils c)Hip flexor complex d)Latissimus Dorsi a)Hamstring complex
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)TFL b)Intrinsic core stabilizers c)Hip flexor complex d)Latissimus Dorsi b)Intrinsic core stabilizers --transverse abdominis, multifuldus, transversospinalis, internal oblique, pelvic floor
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Lower trapizius b)Teres Major c)Hip flexor complex d)Latissimus Dorsi a)Lower trapizius
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Soleus b)Teres Major c)Rhomboids d)Latissimus Dorsi c)Rhomboids
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Rotator cuff b)Teres Major c)Pectoralis Minor d)Latissimus Dorsi a)Rotator cuff
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely OVERactive?a)Rhomboids b)Latissimus dorsi c)Erector spinae d)Rotator cuff b)Latissimus dorsi
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely OVERactive?a)Erector spinae b)Rotator cuff c)Gluteus maximus d)Teres Major d)Teres Major
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely OVERactive?a) Rhomboids b)Pectoralis major/minor c)Hip flexor complex d)Rotator cuff b)Pectoralis major/minor
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)TFL b)Adductor complex c)Soleus d)VMO c)Soleus
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)Sartorius b)Hip flexor complex c)VMO d)Lateral Gastrocnemius d)Lateral Gastrocnemius
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)Biceps Femoris b)Gluteus Medius c)Gracilis d)VMO a)Biceps Femoris
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)Medial gastrocnemius b) VMO c)Vastus Lateralis d)TFL a)Medial gastrocnemius
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)VMO b)Vastus Lateralis c)Gracilis d)Adductor complex TFL Soleus c)Gracilis
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)Soleus b)Sartorius c) VMO d)Biceps Femoris (short head) b)Sartorius
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a) VMO b)Adductor complex c)Medial Hamstring complex d)Tensor fascia latae c)Medial Hamstring complex
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)Popliteus b)Gastrocnemius c)VMO d)Adductor complex a)Popliteus
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that knees move inward. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)VMO b)Latissimus Dorsi c)Gluteus Medius d)Vastus Lateralus d)Vastus Lateralus
If the arms fall forward, what stretch is most appropriate? <SMR Upper Trapezius><Static Rhomboids><SMR Scalene><SMR Thoracic Spine> SMR Thoracic Spine
If the arms fall forward, what stretch is most appropriate? <SMR Latissimus Dorsi><SMR Pectoralis Major><Static Upper Trapezius><Static Scalene> SMR Latissimus Dorsi
If the arms fall forward, what stretch is most appropriate? <SMR Upper Trapezius><Static Pec wall stretch><Static Lower Trapezius><SMR Scalene> Static Pec wall stretch
If the arms fall forward, what stretch is most appropriate? <SMR Upper Trapezius><Static Lat Dorsi Ball stretch><Static Lower Trapezius><SMR Scalene> Static Lat Dorsi Ball stretch
What is the best exercise if the clients arms fall forward? [Chin tuck][Squat row][Ball Wall squat][Ball Cobra] Squat row
What is the best exercise if the clients feet turn out? [Single Leg Balance reach][Tube Walking][Ball Wall squat][Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise] Single Leg Balance reach
What is the best exercise if the clients knees move inward? [Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise][Tube Walking][ ][Single Leg Balance reach] Tube Walking
What is the best exercise if the client has excessive forward lean? [ Squat row ][Ball Wall squat][Tube Walking][ ] Ball Wall squat
What is the best exercise if the clients lower back arches? [Tube Walking][Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise][Single Leg Balance reach][ Squat row ] Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise
What is the best exercise if the clients shoulders elevate? [Ball Cobra][Ball Wall squat][ Squat row ][Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise] Ball Cobra
What is the best exercise if the clients head protrudes forward? [ Squat row ][Ball Wall squat][Chin Tuck][Single Leg Balance reach] Chin Tuck
If the clients head protrudes forward, what muscles is likely to be underactive ? [Mid/Lower Trapezius][Pectoralis Minor][Deep Cervical Flexors][Rhomboids] Deep Cervical Flexors
If the clients shoulders elevate, what muscles is likely to be underactive ? [Mid/Lower Trapezius][Pectoralis Minor][Deep Cervical Flexors][Rhomboids] Mid/Lower Trapezius
In a clients with excessive forward lean, what muscles are probably overactive? [Gluteus Maximus][Hamstring Complex][Soleus][Erector Spinae] Soleus
In a clients with excessive forward lean, what muscles are probably overactive? [Latissimus Dorsi][Gluteus Maximus][Gastrocnemius][Adductor Complex] Gastrocnemius
In a clients with excessive forward lean, what muscles are probably overactive? [Vastus Medialus Oblique][Hip Flexor Complex][Gluteus Maximus][Adductor Complex] Hip Flexor Complex
In a clients with excessive forward lean, what muscles are probably overactive? [Abdominal Complex][Latissimus Dorsi][Vastus Medialus Oblique][Gluteus Maximus] Abdominal Complex
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably overactive? [Gastrocnemus] [Adductor Complex] [Gluteus Medius/maximus] [Hamstring Complex] Adductor Complex
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably overactive? [Hip Flexor] [Gastrocnemus] [Vastus Medius Oblique] [Biceps Femoris (short head)] Biceps Femoris (short head)
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably overactive? [TFL] [Soleus] [Hamstring Complex] [Hip Flexor] Tensor Fascia Latae
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably overactive? [Vastus Lateralis] [Gluteus Medius/maximus] [Hamstring Complex] [Vastus Medius Oblique] Vastus Lateralis
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably underactive? [Gluteus Medius/maximus] [Adductor Complex] [Biceps Femoris (short head)] [Tensor Fascia Latae] Gluteus Medius/maximus
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably underactive? [Adductor Complex] [Vastus Medius Oblique] [Biceps Femoris (short head)] [Tensor Fascia Latae] Vastus Medius Oblique
If a clients shoulders elevate, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Latissimus Dorsi] [Rotator Cuff] [Upper Trapezuis] [Mid/lower Trapezius] Upper Trapezuis
If a clients shoulders elevate, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Rhomboids] [Latissimus Dorsi] [Teres Major] [Pectoralis Major] Sternocleidomastoid
If a clients shoulders elevate, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Pectoralis Major] [Levator Scapulae] [Mid/lower Trapezius] [Teres Major] Levator Scapulae
If a clients head protrudes forward, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Upper Trapezuis] [Latissimus Dorsi] [Erector Spinae] [Mid/lower Trapezius] Upper Trapezuis
If a clients head protrudes forward, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Sternocleidomastoid] [Rhomboids] [Teres Major] [Pectoralis Major] Sternocleidomastoid
If a clients head protrudes forward, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Rotator Cuff] [Rhomboids] [Levator Scapulae] [Erector Spinae] Levator Scapulae
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which stretch would be most appropriate for this movement compensation? A)Static Pec wall stretch B)Static Piriformis stretch C)Static Gastrocnemius stretch D)Static Lats Dor Static Lats Dorsi Stretch
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which stretch would be most appropriate for this movement compensation? A)SMR Soleus B)SMR Upper Trapezius C)SMR Biceps Femoris (short head)D)SMR Latissimus Dorsi SMR Latissimus Dorsi
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely over active? a) Erector Spinae b) Abdominal Complex c)Teres Major d)TFL a) Erector Spinae
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely over active? a) Rotator Cuff b) Abdominal Complex c)Teres Major d)Latissimus Dorsi Latissimus Dorsi
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Lower Trapizius b)Gracils c)Hip flexor complex d)Gluteus maximus d)Gluteus maximus
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Hamstring complex b)Gracils c)Hip flexor complex d)Latissimus Dorsi a)Hamstring complex
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)TFL b)Intrinsic core stabilizers c)Hip flexor complex d)Latissimus Dorsi b)Intrinsic core stabilizers --transverse abdominis, multifuldus, transversospinalis, internal oblique, pelvic floor
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Lower trapizius b)Teres Major c)Hip flexor complex d)Latissimus Dorsi a)Lower trapizius
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Soleus b)Teres Major c)Rhomboids d)Latissimus Dorsi c)Rhomboids
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Rotator cuff b)Teres Major c)Pectoralis Minor d)Latissimus Dorsi a)Rotator cuff
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely OVERactive?a)Rhomboids b)Latissimus dorsi c)Erector spinae d)Rotator cuff b)Latissimus dorsi
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely OVERactive?a)Erector spinae b)Rotator cuff c)Gluteus maximus d)Teres Major d)Teres Major
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely OVERactive?a) Rhomboids b)Pectoralis major/minor c)Hip flexor complex d)Rotator cuff b)Pectoralis major/minor
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)TFL b)Adductor complex c)Soleus d)VMO c)Soleus
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)Sartorius b)Hip flexor complex c)VMO d)Lateral Gastrocnemius d)Lateral Gastrocnemius
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)Biceps Femoris b)Gluteus Medius c)Gracilis d)VMO a)Biceps Femoris
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)Medial gastrocnemius b) VMO c)Vastus Lateralis d)TFL a)Medial gastrocnemius
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)VMO b)Vastus Lateralis c)Gracilis d)Adductor complex TFL Soleus c)Gracilis
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)Soleus b)Sartorius c) VMO d)Biceps Femoris (short head) b)Sartorius
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a) VMO b)Adductor complex c)Medial Hamstring complex d)Tensor fascia latae c)Medial Hamstring complex
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)Popliteus b)Gastrocnemius c)VMO d)Adductor complex a)Popliteus
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that knees move inward. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)VMO b)Latissimus Dorsi c)Gluteus Medius d)Vastus Lateralus d)Vastus Lateralus
If the arms fall forward, what stretch is most appropriate? <SMR Upper Trapezius><Static Rhomboids><SMR Scalene><SMR Thoracic Spine> SMR Thoracic Spine
If the arms fall forward, what stretch is most appropriate? <SMR Latissimus Dorsi><SMR Pectoralis Major><Static Upper Trapezius><Static Scalene> SMR Latissimus Dorsi
If the arms fall forward, what stretch is most appropriate? <SMR Upper Trapezius><Static Pec wall stretch><Static Lower Trapezius><SMR Scalene> Static Pec wall stretch
If the arms fall forward, what stretch is most appropriate? <SMR Upper Trapezius><Static Lat Dorsi Ball stretch><Static Lower Trapezius><SMR Scalene> Static Lat Dorsi Ball stretch
What is the best exercise if the clients arms fall forward? [Chin tuck][Squat row][Ball Wall squat][Ball Cobra] Squat row
What is the best exercise if the clients feet turn out? [Single Leg Balance reach][Tube Walking][Ball Wall squat][Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise] Single Leg Balance reach
What is the best exercise if the clients knees move inward? [Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise][Tube Walking][ ][Single Leg Balance reach] Tube Walking
What is the best exercise if the client has excessive forward lean? [ Squat row ][Ball Wall squat][Tube Walking][ ] Ball Wall squat
What is the best exercise if the clients lower back arches? [Tube Walking][Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise][Single Leg Balance reach][ Squat row ] Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise
What is the best exercise if the clients shoulders elevate? [Ball Cobra][Ball Wall squat][ Squat row ][Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise] Ball Cobra
What is the best exercise if the clients head protrudes forward? [ Squat row ][Ball Wall squat][Chin Tuck][Single Leg Balance reach] Chin Tuck
If the clients head protrudes forward, what muscles is likely to be underactive ? [Mid/Lower Trapezius][Pectoralis Minor][Deep Cervical Flexors][Rhomboids] Deep Cervical Flexors
If the clients shoulders elevate, what muscles is likely to be underactive ? [Mid/Lower Trapezius][Pectoralis Minor][Deep Cervical Flexors][Rhomboids] Mid/Lower Trapezius
In a clients with excessive forward lean, what muscles are probably overactive? [Gluteus Maximus][Hamstring Complex][Soleus][Erector Spinae] Soleus
In a clients with excessive forward lean, what muscles are probably overactive? [Latissimus Dorsi][Gluteus Maximus][Gastrocnemius][Adductor Complex] Gastrocnemius
In a clients with excessive forward lean, what muscles are probably overactive? [Vastus Medialus Oblique][Hip Flexor Complex][Gluteus Maximus][Adductor Complex] Hip Flexor Complex
In a clients with excessive forward lean, what muscles are probably overactive? [Abdominal Complex][Latissimus Dorsi][Vastus Medialus Oblique][Gluteus Maximus] Abdominal Complex
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably overactive? [Gastrocnemus] [Adductor Complex] [Gluteus Medius/maximus] [Hamstring Complex] Adductor Complex
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably overactive? [Hip Flexor] [Gastrocnemus] [Vastus Medius Oblique] [Biceps Femoris (short head)] Biceps Femoris (short head)
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably overactive? [TFL] [Soleus] [Hamstring Complex] [Hip Flexor] Tensor Fascia Latae
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably overactive? [Vastus Lateralis] [Gluteus Medius/maximus] [Hamstring Complex] [Vastus Medius Oblique] Vastus Lateralis
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably underactive? [Gluteus Medius/maximus] [Adductor Complex] [Biceps Femoris (short head)] [Tensor Fascia Latae] Gluteus Medius/maximus
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably underactive? [Adductor Complex] [Vastus Medius Oblique] [Biceps Femoris (short head)] [Tensor Fascia Latae] Vastus Medius Oblique
If a clients shoulders elevate, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Latissimus Dorsi] [Rotator Cuff] [Upper Trapezuis] [Mid/lower Trapezius] Upper Trapezuis
If a clients shoulders elevate, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Rhomboids] [Latissimus Dorsi] [Teres Major] [Pectoralis Major] Sternocleidomastoid
If a clients shoulders elevate, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Pectoralis Major] [Levator Scapulae] [Mid/lower Trapezius] [Teres Major] Levator Scapulae
If a clients head protrudes forward, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Upper Trapezuis] [Latissimus Dorsi] [Erector Spinae] [Mid/lower Trapezius] Upper Trapezuis
If a clients head protrudes forward, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Sternocleidomastoid] [Rhomboids] [Teres Major] [Pectoralis Major] Sternocleidomastoid
If a clients head protrudes forward, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Rotator Cuff] [Rhomboids] [Levator Scapulae] [Erector Spinae] Levator Scapulae
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which stretch would be most appropriate for this movement compensation? A)Static Pec wall stretch B)Static Piriformis stretch C)Static Gastrocnemius stretch D)Static Lats Dor Static Lats Dorsi Stretch
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which stretch would be most appropriate for this movement compensation? A)SMR Soleus B)SMR Upper Trapezius C)SMR Biceps Femoris (short head)D)SMR Latissimus Dorsi SMR Latissimus Dorsi
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely over active? a) Erector Spinae b) Abdominal Complex c)Teres Major d)TFL a) Erector Spinae
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely over active? a) Rotator Cuff b) Abdominal Complex c)Teres Major d)Latissimus Dorsi Latissimus Dorsi
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Lower Trapizius b)Gracils c)Hip flexor complex d)Gluteus maximus d)Gluteus maximus
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Hamstring complex b)Gracils c)Hip flexor complex d)Latissimus Dorsi a)Hamstring complex
During the overhead squat assessment a client demonstrates an arched lower back. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)TFL b)Intrinsic core stabilizers c)Hip flexor complex d)Latissimus Dorsi b)Intrinsic core stabilizers --transverse abdominis, multifuldus, transversospinalis, internal oblique, pelvic floor
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Lower trapizius b)Teres Major c)Hip flexor complex d)Latissimus Dorsi a)Lower trapizius
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Soleus b)Teres Major c)Rhomboids d)Latissimus Dorsi c)Rhomboids
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely UNDER active? a)Rotator cuff b)Teres Major c)Pectoralis Minor d)Latissimus Dorsi a)Rotator cuff
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely OVERactive?a)Rhomboids b)Latissimus dorsi c)Erector spinae d)Rotator cuff b)Latissimus dorsi
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely OVERactive?a)Erector spinae b)Rotator cuff c)Gluteus maximus d)Teres Major d)Teres Major
During the overhead squat assessment a client’s arms fall forward. Which of the following muscles are likely OVERactive?a) Rhomboids b)Pectoralis major/minor c)Hip flexor complex d)Rotator cuff b)Pectoralis major/minor
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)TFL b)Adductor complex c)Soleus d)VMO c)Soleus
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)Sartorius b)Hip flexor complex c)VMO d)Lateral Gastrocnemius d)Lateral Gastrocnemius
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)Biceps Femoris b)Gluteus Medius c)Gracilis d)VMO a)Biceps Femoris
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)Medial gastrocnemius b) VMO c)Vastus Lateralis d)TFL a)Medial gastrocnemius
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)VMO b)Vastus Lateralis c)Gracilis d)Adductor complex TFL Soleus c)Gracilis
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)Soleus b)Sartorius c) VMO d)Biceps Femoris (short head) b)Sartorius
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a) VMO b)Adductor complex c)Medial Hamstring complex d)Tensor fascia latae c)Medial Hamstring complex
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that her feet turn out. What muscles are UNDERactive ? a)Popliteus b)Gastrocnemius c)VMO d)Adductor complex a)Popliteus
While viewing a client doing the overhead squat, you notice that knees move inward. What muscles are OVERactive ? a)VMO b)Latissimus Dorsi c)Gluteus Medius d)Vastus Lateralus d)Vastus Lateralus
If the arms fall forward, what stretch is most appropriate? <SMR Upper Trapezius><Static Rhomboids><SMR Scalene><SMR Thoracic Spine> SMR Thoracic Spine
If the arms fall forward, what stretch is most appropriate? <SMR Latissimus Dorsi><SMR Pectoralis Major><Static Upper Trapezius><Static Scalene> SMR Latissimus Dorsi
If the arms fall forward, what stretch is most appropriate? <SMR Upper Trapezius><Static Pec wall stretch><Static Lower Trapezius><SMR Scalene> Static Pec wall stretch
If the arms fall forward, what stretch is most appropriate? <SMR Upper Trapezius><Static Lat Dorsi Ball stretch><Static Lower Trapezius><SMR Scalene> Static Lat Dorsi Ball stretch
What is the best exercise if the clients arms fall forward? [Chin tuck][Squat row][Ball Wall squat][Ball Cobra] Squat row
What is the best exercise if the clients feet turn out? [Single Leg Balance reach][Tube Walking][Ball Wall squat][Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise] Single Leg Balance reach
What is the best exercise if the clients knees move inward? [Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise][Tube Walking][ ][Single Leg Balance reach] Tube Walking
What is the best exercise if the client has excessive forward lean? [ Squat row ][Ball Wall squat][Tube Walking][ ] Ball Wall squat
What is the best exercise if the clients lower back arches? [Tube Walking][Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise][Single Leg Balance reach][ Squat row ] Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise
What is the best exercise if the clients shoulders elevate? [Ball Cobra][Ball Wall squat][ Squat row ][Quadruped arm/opposite leg raise] Ball Cobra
What is the best exercise if the clients head protrudes forward? [ Squat row ][Ball Wall squat][Chin Tuck][Single Leg Balance reach] Chin Tuck
If the clients head protrudes forward, what muscles is likely to be underactive ? [Mid/Lower Trapezius][Pectoralis Minor][Deep Cervical Flexors][Rhomboids] Deep Cervical Flexors
If the clients shoulders elevate, what muscles is likely to be underactive ? [Mid/Lower Trapezius][Pectoralis Minor][Deep Cervical Flexors][Rhomboids] Mid/Lower Trapezius
In a clients with excessive forward lean, what muscles are probably overactive? [Gluteus Maximus][Hamstring Complex][Soleus][Erector Spinae] Soleus
In a clients with excessive forward lean, what muscles are probably overactive? [Latissimus Dorsi][Gluteus Maximus][Gastrocnemius][Adductor Complex] Gastrocnemius
In a clients with excessive forward lean, what muscles are probably overactive? [Vastus Medialus Oblique][Hip Flexor Complex][Gluteus Maximus][Adductor Complex] Hip Flexor Complex
In a clients with excessive forward lean, what muscles are probably overactive? [Abdominal Complex][Latissimus Dorsi][Vastus Medialus Oblique][Gluteus Maximus] Abdominal Complex
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably overactive? [Gastrocnemus] [Adductor Complex] [Gluteus Medius/maximus] [Hamstring Complex] Adductor Complex
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably overactive? [Hip Flexor] [Gastrocnemus] [Vastus Medius Oblique] [Biceps Femoris (short head)] Biceps Femoris (short head)
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably overactive? [TFL] [Soleus] [Hamstring Complex] [Hip Flexor] Tensor Fascia Latae
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably overactive? [Vastus Lateralis] [Gluteus Medius/maximus] [Hamstring Complex] [Vastus Medius Oblique] Vastus Lateralis
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably underactive? [Gluteus Medius/maximus] [Adductor Complex] [Biceps Femoris (short head)] [Tensor Fascia Latae] Gluteus Medius/maximus
When a clients knees move inward, what muscles are probably underactive? [Adductor Complex] [Vastus Medius Oblique] [Biceps Femoris (short head)] [Tensor Fascia Latae] Vastus Medius Oblique
If a clients shoulders elevate, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Latissimus Dorsi] [Rotator Cuff] [Upper Trapezuis] [Mid/lower Trapezius] Upper Trapezuis
If a clients shoulders elevate, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Rhomboids] [Latissimus Dorsi] [Teres Major] [Pectoralis Major] Sternocleidomastoid
If a clients shoulders elevate, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Pectoralis Major] [Levator Scapulae] [Mid/lower Trapezius] [Teres Major] Levator Scapulae
If a clients head protrudes forward, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Upper Trapezuis] [Latissimus Dorsi] [Erector Spinae] [Mid/lower Trapezius] Upper Trapezuis
If a clients head protrudes forward, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Sternocleidomastoid] [Rhomboids] [Teres Major] [Pectoralis Major] Sternocleidomastoid
If a clients head protrudes forward, which muscles are most likely overactive? [Rotator Cuff] [Rhomboids] [Levator Scapulae] [Erector Spinae] Levator Scapulae
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