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Micro Ex3

QuestionAnswer
List the s. aureus infection characterized by a red bump with hair follicle from least to most severe. folliculitus, furuncle, carbuncle
What are the Gram-positive cocci? S. aureus, S. epidermidis, S. saprophyticus, S. pyogenes, S. pneumoniae, S. algalactiae, S. Viridians, E. faecalis
What are the Gram negative cocci? N. gonorrhea, N. meningitides
What are the Gram-positive rods, spore forming bacteria? Which is anaerobic? Bacillus, Clostridium (anaerobic)
What are the Gram positive regular, non spore forming rods? Lactobacillus, Listeria
What are the Gram-positive irregular, non-spore forming rods? Corynebacterium, Proprionibacterium, Gardnerella vaginalis
What are the Gram-negative rods? Escherichia, Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Serratia, Proteus
What are the Gram negative respiratory rods? Haemophilus, Legionella, Bordetella
What are the Gram-negative rods of Zoonotic origin? Pasteurella, Brucella, Francisella, Bartonella
What are the Gram-negative nonfermenters? Pseudomonas, Vibrio cholera
What are the Gram-negative comma shaped rods? What type of flagella is present? Vibrio; single polar flagella
What are the Gram-negative spiral shaped rods? What type of flagella is present? Campylobacter (single polar) and Helicobacter (multiple flagella)
What are the anaerobic Gram negative rods? Bacteroids, Fusobacterium
What are the Acid-fast, Gram-positive rods? Mycobacterium
What are the Spirochetes? Treponema, Borrelia
What are the Gram-negative obligate intracellular rods? Chlamydia, Rickettsia
Which bacteria does not have a cell wall? Mycoplasma
What is the difference between Staphylococcus and Streptococcus? Staph is catalase positive and forms grape-like clusters and are halophiles found on skin and mucous membranes. Strep is catalase negative and forms short chains found in mouth, URT, GIT, and vagina.
Normal flora of the skin S. epidermidis
What are the superantigens and what bacteria produces them? Toxic shock syndrome 1 and enterotoxin; S. aureus
Produces acute endocarditis S. aureus
What is the toxin that causes scalded skin syndrome? What bacteria releases this? exfoliatin; S. aureus
normal flora of skin and mucous membranes S. aureus
What is alpha hemolysis and what bacteria are here? What color? incomplete hemolysis; S. pneumonia and S. viridans; olive green
What is beta hemolysis and what bacteria are here? What color? complete hemolysis; S. pyogenes and S. algalactiae; clear zone
What is gamma hemolysis and what bacteria are here? no hemolysis; E. faecalis
What are the Group A streptococi? Group B? Group D? S. pyogenes (A), S. algalactiae (B), E. faecalis (D)
What is the major cause of bacterial pneumoniae and meningitis in adults? S. pneumoniae
What is the main virulent factor is S. pneumoniae? large capsule resists phagocytosis
normal flora of the oopharynx S. pneumoniae
lack the C-carbohydrate group-specific antigen S. viridans
cause of dental caries S. viridans
cause of sub-acute endocarditis S. viridans and S. epidermidis
25% of womern have this bacteria as normal flora in vagina S. algalactiae
causes neonatal septicimia and meningitis S. algalactiae
can cause septicimia, endocarditis, UTI, and appendicitis E. faecalis
What are some characteristics of Neisseria? diplococci, kidney-bean shaped, non spore forming, oblgate aerobe
What is the toxin released from N. gonorrhea and its effect? enzyme protease which destroys IgA on mucous membranes
can cause urethritis in men N. gonorrhea, C. trachomatis
can cause scarring of fallopian tube and etopic pregnancies in women N. gonorrhea
What are the lysis toxins released by Streptococcus? erythrogenic toxins (Hemolysin O and S)
can cause Ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns N. gonorrhea, C. trachomatis
bacteria commonly found in adolescents and college dorms N. meningitides
can cause pharyngitis, bacteremia, and meningitis N. meningitides
What is the only known human reservoir of N. meningitides and how is it spread? nasopharynx and spreads from person to person by airborne droplets
attatches to epithelial cells via pilli N. gonorrhea
What are the characteristics of B. anthracis? non-motile, catalase positive, antiphagocytic cpasule, produces powerful anthrax toxin, can be inhaled, ingested, or injected
What is the most common form of cutaneous infection in humans? B. anthracis "malignant pustule"
What are the symptoms of inhaled anthrax? high fever and chest pain, pneumonia, progresses rapidly to systemic hemorrhagic pathology and often fatal
What are the two forms associated with B. cereus infections? emetic: vomitting associated with heat-stable enterotoxin and diarrheal: assoc with heat-labile enterotoxin
What are the characteristics of C. tetani? spores acquired from any type of skin trauma involving an infected device, release tetanospasmin exotoxin, non-motile
How does tetanospasmin function? blcoks action of inhibitory neurons leading to constant muscle spasm, especially in jaw, and respiratory failure
releases neurotoxin to inhibit ACH C. botulinum
part of the normal intestinal flora C. difficile
releases enterotoxin that causes pseudomembranous colitis C. difficile
What is pseudomembrane composed of? dead epithelium, inflmmatory cells, and clotted blood
What bacteria causes gas gangrene and food poisoning and what is the exotoxin released? C. perfringens; alpha toxin that attacks lecithin in cell membranes with swelling and gas produced by fermenting amino acid and muscle glycogen
ferment carbohydrates into lactic acid Lactobacillus
How is L. acidophilus useful? helps reduce levels of harmful bacteria and yeast in the small intestine, produces lactase (milk digestion), involved in production of B vitamins, reduce diarrheal infections
What are characteristics of L. monocytogenes? motile, facultative anaerobe, Beta hemolytic, can grow at 4*, widespread in water and vegetation
newborns are at risk for this disease since it crosses the placenta L. monocytogenes
What is the morphology of Corynebacterium? What toxin is released? pleomorphic shape, produce cardiotoxin
colonizes mucous membrane of respiratory tract and produces neuraminidase C. diphtheriae
What are the symptoms of diptheria? whitish gray membrane forms on tonsils and throat, can result in heart and kidney failure and paralysis
causative agent of acne vulgaris P. acnes (anaerobic)
What factors enhance Proprionibacterium growth? oily secretion, puberty, sebaceous glands, white head, inflmmation, abscess
What is the #1 cause of UTI? #2? #3? E. coli, E. faecalis, S. saprophyticus
Which bacteria are the major cause of CNS infections in neonates younger than 1 month? E. coli and S, algalactiae
What are the characteristics of E. coli? normal flora of intestinal tract, lactose fermenter, produces gas, stereotyped based on somatic (O), capsular (K), or flagellar (H) antigen
causes travelers diarrhea and diarrhea in infants Enetrotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC)
similar to shigella Enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC)
diarrheal outbreaks in hospital nurseries and bottle-fed infeants Enteropathogenic E. coli (EPEC)
associated with bloody diarrhea and hemolytic uremic syndrome Enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEP)
What is Salmonella typically found? reservoir is gall bladder, children fecal-oral spread, contaminated chicken and eggs
What are the unique symptoms of S. typhi infection and what does the FDA recommend for prevention? abdominal pain followed in some cases by intestinal rupture, internal bleeding, shock and death; should not eat raw eggs, undercooked meat or poultry
also known as bacillary dysentery shigella
70% of all infection in children younger than 15 years Shigella
What is the most common form of Shigella in industrial world? S. sonnei
What are the toxins released by Shigella? endotoxin, enterotoxin, shiga toxin
What are the components of the Shigella toxin? A subunit is the toxin which halts protein synthesis and B subunit is the part that determines the receptor to be affected
What are characteristics of Yersenia? facultative intracellular enterobacterium, grows at 28*, plasmids with virulence genes, resist killing by phagocytosis, zoonosis, transmitted to humans via fleas
What are the symptoms of bubonic plague? enlarged and tender lymph nodes (buboes), fever, chils, malaise, muscular pain, bacteremia, septicemia
What are the causes of Pneumonic plague? fever, shock, cough, bloody sputum, highly infectious spread through aerosol with 90% mortality rate if untreated
tends to affect people with underlying diseases such as alcoholism, diabetes, chronic lung disease K. pneumonia
What are the characteristics of K. pneumonia? facultative anaerobe, thick capsule, heat-stable enterotoxin, current jelly sputum with death of tissue and lung abscess
What are some opportunistic infections of Enterobacter? UTI, respiractory tract infection
produces red pigment at 25*C S. marcescens
What are characteristics of S. marcesans? occurs naturally in soil and water and intetstines, release DNAse, lipase, and gelatinase
What are the infection caused by S. marcesans and how are they transmitted? UTI, wound, pneumonia; direct contact, droplets, catheters, saline irrigation solutions
degrade urea to ammonia by production of urease Proteus
What helps Proteus favor the production of UTI? Urease production and high motility
What are characteristics of Haemophilus? non-motile, pleomorphic, aerobic, requires Factors V and X, grown on chocolate agar, facultative anaerobe
present in the nasopharynx of approx 75% of healthy children and adults H. influenzae
main cause of meningitis before vaccine H. influenzae
main cause of middle ear infections in children under 5 years H. influenzae
What is the leading cause of community acquired pneumoniae? second leading? S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae
causes pink eye H. aegyptius
characterized by single or multiple painful, soft chancroid H. ducreyi
What isthe most common sexually transmitted disease? second? N. gonorrhea, H. ducreyi
Where is Legionella commonly found? often found in air conditioners and misters, requires iron, cysteine, and CO2
What is the diseased caused by L. pneumophila and its symptoms? Legionnaires' disease; respiratory infection with fever, chills, dry cough which can spread to GIT and CNS
What are the characteristics of Bordetella? coccobacilli, strict aerobes, secrete pertussis toxin which increases cAMP
What is the diesease caused by B. pertissis? whooping cough disease of infants where bacteria make it way to respiratory tract via inhalation, binds to and destroys epithelial cells of the trachea and bronchi
What are the symptomatic stages of B. pertussis infection? catarrhal: runny nose, paroxysmal: whooping cough, convalescent: cough lasts several weeks sometimes causing blood vessels of the eye to burst
What are the characteristics of Pasteurella multocida? ovoid rod, grown on chocolate agar producing foul odor, normal flora in animals
acquired through scratches or bites from cats or dogs P. multocida
What are the characteristics of Brucella and how are they transmitted? strict aerobes, coccobacillus; consuming unpasteurized contaminated dairy or through contact with animal blood or urine
what are the four species of Brucella and where are they found? B. abortus (cattle), B. suis (swine), B. melitensis (goat and sheep), B. canis (dogs, fox, coyotes)
How does Brucella cause infections? enters body via skin, respiratory tract, or digestive tract, enters blood and lymphatics where it multiplies inside phagocytes and releases endotoxin
What are some symptoms associated with Brucella infection? fever spikes, sweats, malaise, anorexia, headache, myalgia, arthritis, fatigue, depression
What is F. tularensis and how is it acquired? "rabbit fever" widespread among rabbits, muscrats and bobcats; humans can acquire while skinning animals and getting flies or ticks bites or through inhalation
What are some symptoms of F. tularensis? fever, chills, headache, diarrhea, muscle and joint pain, dry cough, weakness
What are some diseases associated with Bartonella hensellae? cat scratch fever, bacillary angiomatosis, visceral peliosis, septicemia, endocarditis
genetically complex with plasmids which make them resistant to antibiotics Pseudomonad
opportunistic pathogen important in burn and immunocompromised patients P. aeruginosa
What is the toxin released by V. cholera and how does it function? cholera toxin activates adenylyl cyclase leading to increased cAMP which causes increased secretion of water, Na, K, Cl and HCO3 in the small intestine (alkaline)
How is V. cholera transmitted and what are the symptoms? contaminated water and seafood with sewage; vomitting, headache, cramps, voluminous diarrhea leading to dehydration
Gullian-Barre' Syndrome complication C. jejuni
What are the characteristics of C. jejuni? motile with single flagella, responsible for 5-14% of world diarrhea, from wild birds and ducks or poultry
What are some diseases caused by C. jejuni and the symptoms seen? Traveler's diarrhea, waterborne illness, mild cases are asymptomatic, severe cases result in dysentery
What are the characteristics of H. pylori? motile with multiple flagella, spiral-shaped, microaerophillic, fecal-oral transmission, colonizes gastric mucosa and epithelial lining
What are the endotoxins released by H. pylori? endotoxin urease
What are the diseases caused by H. pylori? 95% of duodenal ulcers, 80% of gastric ulcers, stomach cancer, gastritis
50% 0f fecal matter is composed of ________ B. fragilis
abscess after severe trauma to the gut and abdominal region B. fragilis
Sinusitis, pulmonary infection and gingivitis F. nucleatum
What are the characteristics of M. leprae? non-motile slow-growing generation time of 13 days, grows at lower temp, mycolic acid in cell wall, obligate aerobes
How does M. leprae cause infections? transmitted from person to person through inhalation or direct contact, attacks the skin peripheral nerves and mucous membranes, reproduce particularly in neuroglia to infect macrophages and Scwann cells
What is Tuberculoid leprosy? stronge cell-mediated immune response to M. leprae (nonprogressive form)
What is Lepramatosus leprosy? weak cell-mediated immune response to M. leprae, strong antibody response, granuloma formation, skin nodules, loss of facial feautures, digits, and body structures
resistant to drying, disinfectants, and strong acids; killed by pasteurization M. tuberculosis
How is M. tuberculosis transmitted and what are the symptoms? inhalinf (few) airborne organisms, chronic fever/cough, weight loss, night sweats, granuloma, caseous necrosis
What are the 3 types of Treponema and what disease do they cause? T. pallidum=syphillus; T. carateum=pinta; T. pertenue=yaws
hard, painless chancre found on genitals primary stage of syphillus
T. pallidum invades blood vessels, skin rash spreads from palms and soles to trunk, white patch on mucous membranes secondary stage of syphillus
gummas formation in CNS and CVS which can be fatal tertiary stage of syphillus
What is the result of a fetus surviving birth with congenital syphillus? normal at birth but later develop Hutchinson's triad which includes interstitial keratitis, notched incisors and eigth nerve deafness
What is pinta? skin infection with raised papule initially then eruption of flat, reddened areas then bluish coloration and subsequent loss of pigmentation
What is yaws? tropical infection of the skin, bones, and joints
causative agent of Lyme disease B. burgdorferi
What are the stages of Lyme disease? 1) erythma migrans, fever, chills, headache, stiff neck/muscles/joints 2) heart and nervous system impaired 3) chronic nervous system impairment with joint pain
most common cause of STD. Chlamydia
What are the two forms of the virulence factor in Chlamydia? elementary body is the infectious form which releases cytokines that provoke intense inflammatory rxn; reticulate body is non-infectious form
What is trachoma and what organism causes this? C. trachomatis form of bilateral keratoconjuctivitis which causes corneal scarring spread by direct contact, flies, and gnats; leading cause of blindness worldwide
What is Lymphogranuloma venereum and what bacteria causes this? C. trachomatis presents with genital ulcer and/or inguinal lymphadenopathy
causes psittacosis (parrot fever) C. psittaci
form of Chlamydia which causes pneumonia, bronchitis, pharyngitis, and sinusitis C. pneumoniae
causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever R. rickettsii
What are the two vectors for the tick borne disease? Dermacentor andersoni = wood tick and Demacentor variabilis = dog tick
heart and kidneys can get involved in which disease of Rickettsia? R. rickettsii
vector is lice and causes epidemic typhus R. prowazekii
vector is fleas and causes endemic typhus R. typhi
vector is mites and causes Rickettsial pox R. akari
What are the characteristics of Mycoplasmas? pleomorphic, cell wall absent, Gram-negative, strict aerobe, typical fried-egg colonies
What diseases are caused by M. pneumoniae and what are the symptoms? walking pneumonia; attach to mucous membranes and secrete toxic substances which cause inflammation
Which bacteria are coagulase positive? S. aureus
Which bacteria can cause UTI? E.coli, S. saprophyticus, S. epidermidis, E. faecalis, K. pneumoniae, E. aerogenes, S. marcesans, P. mirabilis, P. aeruginosa
Which bacteria can cause meningitis? S. pneumoniae(pneumonia), S. algalctiae(neonatal), N. meningitides, L. monocytogenes, E.coli, H. influenzae
Which bacteria can cause pneumoniae? S. pneumoniae, S. algalactiae, E.coli, Y. pestis, K. pneumonia, S. marcesans, H. influenza, P.multocida, C. trachomatis, C. pneumoniae, M. pneumoniae
Which bacteria are normal flora of the intestines? E.coli, Lactobacillus, Enterococci
normal flora of skin and mucous membranes S. aureus, S. epidermidis (skin),
Created by: jtnguyen