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293 Oral Prep

The FADEC will automaticly SHUT OFF FUEL in order to protect the engine if N2 exceeds or drops below what two RPMs? 105.6% (ultimate over-speed) or 54% (sub-idle range)
If either the electricl input from the throttle to the FADEC as failed or if the engines main metering valve has failed, the engine's response to throttle movement is the sam. What is the response? The engine will not respond to throttle movement unless the throttle is moved to cutoff (in which case the engine will shut down).
An airstart of the engine (windmilling or starter-assisted) has two N2 limitations, one a minimum and one a maximum. What are those limits and when does each apply? 10% minimum for windmilling airstart, and 25% maximum for starterassist.
The Citation X uses two different bleed air supplies (HP and LP) for several functions on the aircraft. Where in the engine do they come from? LP is tapped from the 8th stage of the compressor, HP from the 14th stage
What supplies power to the engine FADEC units and the ignitions? One permanent magnet alternator (PMA) on each engine.
Where is engine oil level monitored in the Citation X? In the EICAS screen, ENGINES display, lower right corner of the display, it is displayed in quarts below full.
What is the minimum battery voltage for APU start? 22 Volts
The APU should not be operated or started above what altitude? 31,000 feet
If the boost pump switches are both in the NORMAL position, what will happen when the APU is started? Would this be any different if both engines are already running? The left Boost Pump will operate. It will not operate if the Left Engine is operating.
What are the normal annunciations and displays when the APU TEST button is pushed and held, prior to APU start? The APU FIRE switchlight will illuminate, APU RELAY ENGAGED and APU FAIL annunciators will illuminate, READY TO LOAD and BLEED VAL OPEN will illuminate, and the three sets of digits will indicate 50, 500 and 28, respectively.
The APU TEST button is released after a test prior to APU start. What does APU FAIL remaining illuminated mean? It means that some parameter of the APU has been detected by the ECB that will prevent the APU from being started.
How many seconds after illumination of the APU FIRE annunciator will the APU fire bottle automatically discharge? It will not discharge automatically. The annunciator must be pushed by the crew to discharge the bottle.
What conditions will cause the electric fuel boost to activated when the switch is in the NORM position? Low fuel pressure (aprox<=9 psi) engine start & fuel crossfeed & when the APU is in operation (w/o LH eng running)
What is the approximate fuel capacity of the Citation X ? 13,030 LBS / ( 1,930 GALl); 3517 lbs. /wing, 6000 lbs. Center tanks
How is ice formation prevented in the pressurized fuel which could block the main fuel filter? Fuel is routed through an oil/fuel heat exchanger, which heats the fuel.
Is there any indication in the cockpit of an impending or actual fuel filter by-pass? CAS message FUEL FILTER BYPASS L-R
IF (SPPR) single point refueling is not available how can the center tank be fueled? Using overwing fueling and pulling the “T” under the wing near the SPRR fueling panel. This allows gravity flow from the right wing to the center tanks.
When would the FUEL LEVEL LOW amber EICAS message appear and what triggers it? WING fuel quantity is approx. 500 lbs or less; float switch
How many ejector pumps are located in each side’s fuel system? What powers them? Three; Primary ejector, center-to-wing transfer, and wing to hopper transfer. They are powered by the engine-driven motive flow pump
Is there a way of determining our fuel quantities Without DC power? 4 magnetic fuel indicators ( DIP-STICKS ) are located under the wings and center fuel tanks.
How many alternators are installed in the Citation X? What do they power? One on each engine powers Windshield Anti-Ice, and one PMA powers Ignition and FADECs (N1>50%)
What is the main electrical consequence of and response to a left engine failure @ FL350? The right MAIN and EMER bus are powered from the #2 BATT until the pilot closes the XTIE.
The APU draws electrical power from what bus for starting? Once it is operating, what bus does it power? Starting power is taken from the Right Emergency Bus. APU electrical power is applied to the Right Main Bus.
What are the primary functions of the 3 GCUs? They regulate generator output to 28.5 Vs, provide feeder fault, overvoltage, reverse current and overload protection.
A GPU that has variable volt and amp settings should be set to what values to start the APU? 28V/1000 amps.
Under what conditions can the batteries be charged by the GPU, if any? Both batteries must be charged together, BATT Voltage must be > 23V, SAT must be <100 deg. F and for a maximum of 4 hours.
What items does the standby-bus power? STBY ALT./VIB; STBY Airspeed indicator; STBY ATTIITUDE INDICATOR; STBY Directional Gyro, BACK LIGHTING for all 4 standby instruments.
What critical avionics are powered from the L. EMER BUS? COM 1, NAV 1, RMU 1, and the STBY HSI.
What is the main purpose of the crosstie relay? Allows a single GEN, APU or GPU to power both L & R MAIN buses.
Under normal conditions, in flight, what would happen if you pressed the BUS 1 isolation switch light (selecting EMER)? BATT 1 is removed from its charging source and would power the L EMER bus.
On walk around preflight, how can you determine if any hydraulic filters need to be changed? A red POP-UP indicator will be showing on the filter housing.
Which hydraulic filters are non-bypass filters? Both high pressure filters.
Approximately what percentage of the flow rates (GPM) of the main system pumps does the A-AUX pump provide and when does that become an important issue? Approximately 6.5% ( 1/15 ). If both main system pumps fail, the A Aux Pump cannot adequately provide power for Landing Gear and Flight Controls, for example.
If you have a failure of only the main A-system PUMP, what items would you lose on that side and why? None, the PTU and A-AUX pump will provide complete redundancy.
After starting the right engine (first start), what should you observe on the pilots MFD EICAS for HYD Pressures? A-2800-3000; RSS-cycling between 2300 and 3000; B-3000 PSI
What are the 3 HYD-Systems on the A system side that are not redundant on the B side? Brakes, Landing Gear, NW Steering.
Under normal operation what is the A-AUX Hydraulic pump used for? To set the parking before engine start
What activates the PTU and which HYD systems does it power? The PTU functions all the time that there is B System hydraulic pressure; it will continue to provide All A-System functions if hydraulic pressure is no longer supplied by the Left Engine Hydraulic Pump.
What is the logic (what switches must make/break) for raising the landing gear handle? The nose squat switch and at least one main gear squat switch must indicate weight-off-wheels to raise the gear handle.
Assuming an emergency gear extension has been done, what will happen if the LND GR BLOW DOWN is pushed back in? The nitrogen bottle valve is locked in the open position, though the knob may be pushed back in.
Is Anti-skid still available with the A Aux pump running? Yes. Per AOM 2-58.
Taxiing to the ramp on a snowy, icy taxiway, we wonder if the anti-skid function works at all taxi speeds. Does it? Yes, below 12 knots the ant-skid will work, but with slightly degraded performance. AOM 2-57
We have had a dual hydraulic failure due to a loss of both pumps, however, the A aux pump functions. Can we expect the brakes to work? Yes. The brake metering valve receives system pressure from the aux pump. AOM 2-57
Following an aborted takeoff, we taxi off the runway and set the parking brake to talk with ground control. Is there any special consideration that we should give to this situation as it relates to the brakes? Yes, setting the parking brake may melt the thermal relief valves in the wheels and deflate the tire. AOM 2-58
In flight, the parking brake handle is pulled up. Is there any indication of this condition in the cockpit? Yes, an amber PARK BRAKE ON CAS message appears and a chime. AOM 2-58
If an EICAS PARK BRAKE/LOW PRESS appeared prior to starting engines, what crew action would you take? Turn on the Aux A pump and repressurize the parking brake by stepping on the toe brakes. AOM 2-63.
If braking failed on roll-out and we resorted to the use of the emergency brake, what technique should be used with this emergency device? A constant pull to bring the aircraft to a stop. Each time the lever is released, it vents nitrogen overboard. There are 6 pulls available in 2 nitrogen bottles. AOM 2-63
When using emergency braking, is it possible to apply enough initial pressure to lock the wheels? Not normally. The pressure is metered and set so that a max pull results in stopping power just short of skidding the tires. AOM 2-63.
The gear-up warning horn will sound in flight if the radio altitude is less than 2500 feet, the gear is up and flaps are extended beyond how many degrees? 24
With a total loss of A system hydraulic fluid, how can the main gear uplocks be released? By pulling the main gear uplock release, located under the sink in the lav.
What are the primary actuators called by which the flight surfaces are controlled/moved and what powers them? Power Control Units – PCUs; A/B Systems Hydraulics.
What is the main purpose of the flight control shut off switch lights? To shut off hydraulic pressure to that flight control.
What is a Force Fight when referring to a flight control? Paired Paired PCU’s pressures are not the same, a mechanical failure has occurred, or an internal fault exist as monitored by the FWC
In the event that PITCH/ROLL disconnect handle is pulled and not reconnected, which pilot controls what? Pilot – L. ELEV & Ailerons,Co-pilot – R. ELEV & Roll Spoilers
Should you lose either system A or B hydraulics how would the ailerons and roll controls be affected? No major effect will be noticed since either system provides pressure to its PCUs and roll spoilers.
What power is required to trim the ailerons? 28V DC Electric.
When does a pilot have any control of the upper rudder? When Flaps/Slats are => 5o or greater
What does the rudder limiter do and what is its primary factor of limitation? Restricts the amount of Rudder travel and is primarily a function of Airspeed.
When in automatic flight mode (NORM on ALT SEL) How is the secondary outflow valve controlled? An interconnect tube between the primary and secondary outflow valves makes the secondary outflow duplicate the actions of the primary.
When the system is not being controlled by the digital controller (loss of DC Electric Power, or by placing the system in manual) What is the position of the primary outflow valve? The outflow valve stays in the last position until the “cherry picker” is moved.
Placing the cabin dump switch in the dump position the cabin act will climb to what altitude? 13,500 + or – 1500
With a malfunctioning pressurization controller, how is the system controlled? Select MANUAL mode and use the manual control valve (cherry picker)
What is Service air used for? Door seals, baggage heat, pressurization, RAT,and AOA aspiration
What time should operation of APU in MAX COOL be limited to in order to prevent PAC bearing overheat? 15 min on, 30 min off.
What is the major difference between the primary and secondary outflow valves? The primary outflow valve has an electric solenoid controlling operation, and the secondary outflow valve operates by a vacuum line from the primary.
What conditions must be met for the EDM mode to activated? Cabin altitude – appx. 14,000; Aircraft altitude – above 30,000 and the autopilot engaged.
Why must the CKPT and CABIN TEMP SEL be in the AUTO mode when electrical power is applied? So the controller will properly complete its automatic power up checks
What system reaction occurs when an EICAS message “COCKPIT PAC O’TEMP” is displayed? Cockpit ECU has overheated and automatically shut down.
What does a white PAC HP VLV OPN R message indicate? Right HP/LP crossover valve is open, and the PAC is receiving HP bleed air.
The temperature of the conditioned air in the water separator is kept above freezing by _________. A regulating valve which mixes bleed air before the water separator.
How does the air routed through the WEMACs differ from the air routed through the footwarmers? WEMAC air is routed directly from the water separators, and the footwarmer air has had bleed air mixed to increase the temperature.
With the ISOLATION VLV in the CLOSED position and the APU BLEED in the ON position, the APU will supply bleed air to which PAC? Cabin.
What is DC electrical power is used to ANTI-ICE? RAT probes, Pitot and static probes, AOA probe, wing cuff, drains.
What is AC electrical current used to provide protection for? Windshield and forward side windows, from an alternator mounted on the each- engine
How is windshield current monitored? It is monitored by the controller computer, and is not displayed to the crew.
Anytime a cold EICAS message occurs in flight, the best procedure is to? Exit the icing conditions and increase power on the affected side.
Operators are responsible for monitoring holdover times. When does the Holdover time start? When the last application has begun.
Operation of the various ice and rain protection systems is monitored by what system? The EICAS System
In flight, with one engine shut down, how are both wings protected? By opening the WING XOVER switch, allowing the opposite bleed air to anti-ice the wing.
The citation X uses bleed air to anti-ice which surfaces? Fixed Leading Edges, Slats, ENG Nacelle Inlets, Horizontal Stabilizer, and landing Lights.
How do you turn on the two ice detection lights that are located on top of the glareshield? DAY/NIGHT DIM Switch
In the event of a loss of all DC power, how will the bleed air anti ice systems be affected? Valves are normally open (N/O) and will open.
How can you initially check operation of bleed-air anti-ice when first turning them on? ITT Rise; N1 Decrease.
Below what power setting are Stab and Slat anti-ice automatically turned off? N1 POWER Setting < 48%
When is the W/S Air Blower most effective? During taxi and when stopped.
Placing the windshield LH/RH switches in the O’RIDE position causes WS heating to Heat the windshield more rapidly (but to the same temperature).
Does the Engine Fire Protection system still work when flying at FL350 with a dual-generator failure? Yes, the Fire Protection system is on the EMER Bus.
How many seconds after illumination of the APU FIRE annunciator will the fire bottle automatically discharge? Never. It must be pushed manually to discharge the bottle.
During a normal test of the APU before starting, you notice that the APU FIRE annunciator does not illuminate. What does this mean? The fire detect system is faulty.
After a test of the APU before starting, the APU FAIL annunciator remains illuminated. What does this mean? The APU fire bottle is low, or some other fault has been detected by the ECB which will not allow APU start.
The EROS quick-donning mask can be used continuously at a maximum cabin altitude of? 40,000
Automatic passenger oxygen mask deployment occurs at what cabin altitude? 14,500 + or – 500
What does the top of the AMBER arc on the oxygen pressure gage represent? The minimum pressure that will allow a successful emergency descent
When RON in cold weather with temperature –10oC or below the Eros masks should be? Removed and stored in a warmer place.
What action must be taken if the oxygen system pressure is completely discharged? The bottle must be reconditioned, due to contaminants being drawn into the regulator and/or tank
From how many different locations can the COM #1 frequency be tuned? Name them. RMU 1, RMU 2, FMS 1, FMS 2, Standby (clearance delivery) head.
You and your copilot are trying to talk pre-flight and you can hear him, but he can’t hear you. What is probably wrong? Set the INPH button on the co-pilot’s ACP to the out (on) position, and turn this button clockwise for a comfortable listening level.
What is the difference between MAYDAY and PAN when used in communication? Mayday indicates distress, Pan indicates urgency.
Describe the procedure to announce to the passengers through your headset microphone. Push the transmit button labeled CABIN (top row, just left of the EMER button). This will announce over the cabin speakers whenever you press your push-to-talk switch.
What is the source of information for the pilot’s - side flight instruments? The #1 IRS. This system uses laser-ring “gyros” and accelerometers to feed updated attitude information to the EFIS, through IAC #1.
Assuming you have red “X”s through your airspeed and altitude locations on your PFD, what has failed, and how would you expect to recover this information? MADC (#1) has failed. You would press the ADC REV button on the PFD reversionary panel.
You are flying along at FL330 and DU 4 and DU 5 both go blank. You also notice that the co-pilot’s FMS CDU has blanked. What has happened and how would you recover information for the missing screens? IAC #2 has failed. You can revert information to the co-pilot’s PFD and MFD by switching the EICAS reversionary panel to SG!. The #2 FMS is not recoverable.
The standby airspeed/altimeter vibrator and standby gyro both receive power from the same source. What is it? The Standby Gyro Battery Pack.
How would you present navigation information from FMS #2 on your PFD CDI? Press the FMS button on the pilot’s source controller until the CDI displays FMS #2 information (in amber).
You wish to display the (North-up) Map mode on your MFD. How do you do this? What information cannot be displayed in this mode? Press the MFD MAP button on the Display Controller. TCAS and WX cannot be displayed in this mode.
You are flying on FMS nav to a fix on the final approach course to an ILS. How can you pre-set the final approach course on your PFD screen for the ILS and ensure that the Flight Director will capture the ILS nav and change to VHF (green needle) NAV Press the PRE button on the Source Controller, set the course with the CRS knob and press APP on the Mode Selector Panel.
You have just noticed that DU #2 has blanked. Can this navigation information be recovered? Yes. Although the MFD itself cannot be “reverted”, the navigation information that was displayed (FMS #1 or Nav #1) can be selected onto MFD #2 (DU #4) by the co-pilot’s Source Controller.
We are told to expect an RNAV approach. What special consideration should we take to assure that we will be able to complete this approach? Predictive RAIM should be checked by selecting NAV, POS SENSORS, NEXT, GPS 1, PRED RAIM and look for the word “Yes”.
The standby battery pack supplies lighting power to which items? Standby Airspeed/Altimeter, Standby gyro, Standby engine instruments, and Standby HSI.
How is the condition of the Emergency Lighting Battery Pack checked? Turn on the EMERG LT switch to the ON position, then check the brightness of any of the following lights: 4 reading lights, exit lights, two exterior lights on right side.
What switches power to the taxi lights? The nosegear downlock switch and the TAXI LIGHT switch.
When operating with Emergency DC power only, what lighting is available for the main instrument panel? The AUX PANEL LIGHTS are powered from the Emergency Bus. The standby gyro battery pack also provides lighting for the standby instruments.
The amber light next to the EMERGENCY LIGHTS switch is illuminated. What condition would cause this? Aircraft power is on and the EMERGENCY LIGHTS switch is not in the ARM position.
When the TAXI LIGHT switch is turned on, what lights will illuminate? Two lights on the nose strut and one under each wing tip (downwash lights).
Where is the FGC physically located? In the IAC.
What is the minimum altitude for autopilot engagement on a Cat I ILS? Cat II ILS? 170 ft., 80 ft.
You are flying level with Autopilot engaged and are tracking an FMS navigation source. You press NAV on your source controller. What will be displayed in the top, center of the PFD for modes? ROL and ALT.
You are flying level with Autopilot engaged and your co-pilot presses the PFD SELECT button on the Mode Selector Panel. What will happen to the Autopilot and its modes? The Autopilot will remain engaged and the modes displayed are ROL and PIT (basic autopilot modes).
There are left and right arrows illuminated on the Autopilot control panel that selects the operating PFD that drives the Flight Guidance Computer. Is this a fault, or if not, what does this mean? This is a situation that would occur when both nav receivers were tuned to the same ILS frequency. This tells the pilot that if either the localizer or the glideslope fails on either side, information provided to both sides by the unfailed component.
Created by: cmarshall3050



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