surg2
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| Perfluoropropane and sulfur hexafluroide are used to | keep pressure on retina
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| which pharmacologic agent constricts pupils | acetylcholine
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| trephine is used in which pricedure | keratoplasty
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| the normal condition of the lens of the eye is | transparent and biconvex
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| name for traction sutures used to manipulate the globe | bridle
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| replacement device for cataract lens | IOL
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| lacrimal gland is located | upper lid, outer angle of orbid
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| where do lacrimal ducts drain tears | nasal cavity
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| procedure with internal malfunction or loss of contents with no recovery of site gives best cosmetic | evisceration
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| which procedure treats glaucoma | iridectomy
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| name for cystic structure caused by inflammatory response to material strapped n meibomian gland | chalazion
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| an inward turning of the eyelid with corneal irritation | entropian
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| instrument to remove cataract lens for lens placement | phacoemulsification hand piece
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| name of locking and unlocking needle holders | castroviejo
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| misalignment or deviation from coordinated movement of the eye is | strabismus
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| right eye of a patient and assigning clock positions 12,3,6,9 to rectus eye muscle which is correct | 12 superior, 3 medial, 6 inferior, 9 lateral
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| which is the term for cross eyed | estropia
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| how many tunics comprise the globe | three
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| which 2 structures form the outer tunic of the eye | cornea and sclera
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| all are methods of intraocular lens insertion except | fan folded
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| how would detached retina be obtained if hemorrhage is in the eye | surgical vitrectomy
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| name of gelatin like fluid that fills the post cavity of the eye | vitreous humor
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| which surgical procedure would an ocutome be used | vitrectomy
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| condition of the lens that is treated by cataract extraction | opacified
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| which procedure would sutures not be necessary | extracapsular cataract extraction
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| name of the opening in outer tunic for vitreous | sclerotomy
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| tetracaine drops are used to | numb surface of the eye
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| which techniques uses a laser to treat retinal tears or proliferative diabetic retinopathy | endophotocoagulation
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| which procedure may be done in conjunction with vitectomy if surgeon is unable to gain visualization of the posterior cavity | lensectomy
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| term for 6 muscles that provide movement of the eye | extrinsic
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| what structure is a vascular, external and function is to refract light rays | cornea
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| cryotherapy uses which to seal retinal tears and holes | cold
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| which procedure involves adjusting sutures after the patient has recovered within 24 hours | recession/restriction
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| what is the name of the narrow, double angle retractor frequently used in oral procedures | mouth prop
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| which countable sponge is used in oral procedures to prevent bone or tooth fragments and other forge in matter from becoming lodged in the pharynx | throat pack
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| coral would be classified as what type of graft material | xenograft
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| all of the following are configurations of fixation plates for maxillofacial fracture reduction except | W
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| strands of wire used to attach arch bars to the upper and lower jaw should be pre stretched and cut to which length | 10 mm
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| which of the following statements regarding arch bars is correct | they are thin, malleable bars with hooks facing up for maxilla and down for mandible
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| which sequence of steps for plate fixation is correct | place plate, drill one hole at a time measure with depth gauge, tap, insert, screw, and repeat steps for remaining holes
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| tapping of the bone is done in fixation procedure to reduce: | torque pressure on screws
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| how many craniofacial bones make up the orbit? | seven
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| irrigation and what other item is used anytime dental drill is used during odontectomy | suction
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| which diameter fixation screw would most likely be used for a fracture of the mandible | 4.0 mm
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| care must be taken when pre auricular and submandibular incisions are made to protect which cranial nerve | seven
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| which of the following must accompany the patient to the PACU who has undergone maxillomandibular fixation | wire cutters
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| which of the following is the most common type of mid facial fracture and is also known as transmaxillary fracture | le fort
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| what should the surgical technologist do before handling a _ to the surgeon for __ orbital floor fracture? | moisten it with saline
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| surgical treatment of which anatomical area might result in a postoperative complication of malocclusion | jaw
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| the hard palate is the | roof of the mouth
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| what orle is the surgical technologist often required to fill during oral and maxillofacial procedures | assistant
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| which hemostatic agent is used during oral and maxxillofacial procedures that requires advising the anesthesiologist provider of its use | epinephrine
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| in which instrument tray would you find a ballenger swivel knife, cottle elevator and takahashi forceps | SMR
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| an otorhinolaryngologist is | ENT
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| what is the name of the structure that separates the outer and middle ear canals from one another | tympanic membrane
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| in mytingotomy procedures what does PE stand for | pressure equalizing
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| what chronically occuring condition is often the reason for placement of myringotomy tubes in both ears | otitis media
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| what is an important step for the surgical technologist to remember to perform when changing burrs on a pneumatic drill | pt hand piece on safety
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| epistaxis is known as an acute | nosebleed
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| what is an alternate name for the boy nasal projections known as turbinates | conchae
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| all of the following are methods of performing a turbinectomy except | percutaneous
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| what is the most common cause of nasal polyps | allergic rhinitis
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| walters, caldwell, lateral and submental are used to establish | sinus cavity
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| which procedure would the surgical tech need to have a spreader and hook for use | tracheostomy
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| a tmj decompression is performed | lateral jaw
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| topical cocaine 4% is used in nasal surgery for | anesthesia
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| antostomy rasps are used in procedures involving which anatomical structures | facial sinuses
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| what is a double action cupped forward angle forcep used to resect portions of the nasal septum | jansen middleton
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| a procedure performed in ICU ER or PACU | tracheotomy
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| how should micro ear instruments be cleaned intraoperative | with a micro sponge wipe
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| baron, frazier and house are | suction
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| davis and mcivor are names of which type of instruments | mouth gags
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| how many degree classifications of skin burns are there | 4
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| split-thickness skin graft are used to cover which type if burned tissue | denuded areas of third degree burns
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| what is the term for the process of removing necrotic tissue or eschar prior to skin grafting | debridment
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| what does a mesh graft device do | expands the size of the skin graft
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| which of the following statements regarding routine prepping for skin graft procedures is correct | donor site is prepped first and considered clean
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| any of the following may be used topically for hemostats for the STSF donor site EXCEPT | phenylephrine
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| relaxtion and hypertrophy of the eyelid skin is also known as | dermatochalasis
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| cheiloplasty and palatoplasty are corrective procedures for which of the following | cleft lip and palate
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| for which would the surgical technologist prepare a tumescent solution | liposuction
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| the pinna, helix, crus, and tragus are all portions of the | ear
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| which type of scissors would most likely be used to trim a full-thickness skin graft FTSG to size | tenotomy
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| which of the following letters represents the incisional configuration most commonly used for scar revision procedures | Z
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| which type of incision is most frequently used to excise excess skin in a blepharoplasty procedure | elliptical
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| in which procedure would the proceures and corrugator muscles be ablated avulsed resected or sparated | endoscopic brow lift
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| which of the following terms is more commonly referred to as a full face lift | rhytidectomy
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| which method of anesthesia is preferred to rhytidectomy procedures | MAC (monitored)
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| a full thickness skin graft may be taken from the inner thigh or labial fold to re create which area | areola
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| crescent, benelli, and benelli lollipop lifts are techniques used during | mastopexy
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| anchor shaped incisions with joining of tissue envelope folds are performed in which procedure | mastopexy
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| which cranial nerve must not be compromised by retractor placement during rhytidectomy | seventh
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| which type of suture would most likely be used during a cleft lip repair | fine absorbable
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| which nerves passes through the carpel tunnel | median
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| what suturing technique would the surgeon use to attach tendons in a toe to thumb transfer procedure | figure 8
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| which of the following terms means surgical fixation of joint, eventually resulting in international bone fusion | arthroplasty
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| wat is the medical term for the congenital deformity commonly called club hand | radial dysplasia
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| a patient scheduled for centralization of radial dysplasia would be about what age | 12 months old
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| which of the following statements describing variations of polydactyly is not correct | the digits of the hands and feet may be involved
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| before closure in augmentation mammoplasty what is done to verify correct size | temporary sizers are placed and filled with saline and the table is raised to siting postion to evaluate appearance
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| why would two separated setps be required for immediate reconstruction following mastectomy | to prevent seeding of cancer cells if same instruments are used for both
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| which sterile device will be used during TRAM flap reconstruction to verify the blood supply of the remains instant | doppler probe
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| which of the following is not a type of liposuction | electrosurgery
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| which muscles are tightened in an abdominoplasty procedure | rectus abdominis
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| under which muscle is the pocket for breast implant often crated for greater support | pectoralis major
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| which type of grafted tissue would have skin sensation preserved | full thickness
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| which type of specialized retractor enhances visualization in many breast and abdominoplasty procedures | fiber optic
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