immunology
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| the action of CRP can be distinguished from that of an antibody in which of the following ways | CRP acts before the antibody appears
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| which of the following can be attributed to pasteur | first attinuated vaccines
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| the subclasses of IgG differ mainly in | the arrangement of disulfide bonds
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| all of the following are true of IgM except that | it can cross into the placenta
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| in which zone might the antibody screening test be false positive | prozone
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| which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ | thymus
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| which of the following best describes the t-cell receptor antigen | alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen
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| which best characterizes the membrane attack complex | c9 polymerizes to form the transmembrane channel
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| a heterophile antigen is one that | exists in unrelated plants or animals
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| which of the following best describes the role of TAP | they transport peptides into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum
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| the structure formed by the fusion of the engulfed material and enzymatic granules within a phagocytic cell is called a | phagolysosome
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| which receptor on the t-cell is responsible for rosetting with sheep red blood cells | cd2
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| which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-b cell | u(mu) chains in the cytoplasm
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| the classical complement pathway is activated by | antigen-antibody complex
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| the CH50 test measures which of the following | *dilution of patient serum required to lyse 50% of a standard concentration of sensitized sheep red blood cells
*functioning of both the classic and alternative pathways
*genetic deficiencies of any of the complement complex
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| which best describe the law of mass action | the equilibrium constant is relating to the strength of an antigen-antibody binding
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| precipitation differs from agglutination in which way | precipitation involves a soluble antigen while agglutination involves a particular antigen
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| a FAB fragment consists of | one L chain and 1/2 a H chain
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| all of the following are true of IgE except that | is heat stable
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| enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum protein is called | opsonization
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| measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except | diagnosis of specific bacterial infection
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| MHC molecules are associated with which of the following | graft rejection
autoimmune diseases
determining to which antigen an individual responds to
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| which of the following best describes hapten | antigenic only when coupled to a carrier
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| which statement is true of measurements of turbidity | it indicates the ratio of incident light to transmitted light
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| which technique represents a single-diffusion reaction | radial immunodiffusion
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| which of the following is true of nk cells | they recognize lack of MHC proteins
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| where does the major portion of antibody production occur | lymph nodes
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| factor H acts by competing with which of the following for the same binding site | factor B
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| how many antigen binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have | 10
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| which of the following are L chains of antibody molecules | k
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| the presence of normal flora acts as a defense mechanism by which of the following means | competing with pathogens for nutrients
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| which of the following peripheral blood cells plays a key role in killing of parasites | eosinophils
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| if crossed lines result in an ouchterlony immunodiffusion reaction with antigens 1 and 2 what does this indicate | the two antigens are unrelated
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| which of the following statements apply to rate of nephelometry | readings are taken before equivalence is achieved
it is more sensitive than turbidity
measurements are time dependant
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| which of these are found on a mature B cell | IgM and IgD
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| which of the following would represent a double negative thymocyte | CD2 +CD3 -CD4 -CD8
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| why is complement not activated with anti rh(d)antibodies | rh antigens are too far apart on red blood cells
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| all of the following represent functions of the complement system except | decreased clearance of antigen-antibody complexes
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| which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation | IgM
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| all of the following are characteristic of a good immunogen except | found on host cells
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| which of the following are true of MHC(HLA) class II antigens | they are found on B cells and macrophages
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| Jenner's work with cowpox,which provided immunity against smallpox demonstrates which phenomenon | cross-immunity
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| which technique is typified by radial immunodiffusion combined with electrophoresis | rocket electrophoresis
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| all of the following are characteristic of complement components except | present as active enzymes
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| Bence-Jones proteins are identical to which of the following | L chains
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| all of the following describe an epitope except | consists of sequential amino acids only
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| where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made | bone marrow
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| skin,lactic acid secretions,stomach acidity,and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity | natural immunity
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| an individual is recovering from a bacterial infection and tests positive for antibodies to a protein normally found in the cytoplasm of this bacterium.which of the following statements are true of this situation | class II molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4 and T cells
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| The following are mechanisms that are thought to contribute to autoimmunity EXCEPT | clonal deletion of self reactive T cells
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| what is the target tissue for good pasture syndrome | kidney and lungs
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| name the key to the pathogenisis to SLE | dysunctional processing in the routine immunological clearing of cellular debris
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| the following autoantibodies have a homogenous immunofloruescent pattern accept | anti-ds-dna
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| antibodies that have a homogenous staining pattern | ANTI-DS-DNA,ANTI-HISTONE,ANTI-DNP
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| what antibody is most specific for SLE | Ds-dna
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| antibodies that are stimulated by DNA complexed to histone are known as | DNP
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| the antibody found in 75% of patients is called | RF-IgM isotype
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| proinflammatory cytokines found in synovial fluid that contribute to inflammation are | IL-1,6,8,15,18,tnfa
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| another name for chronic autoimmune thyroiditis is | hashimotos
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| name the two isotypes for RF | IgA,IgM,IgG
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| name one way self tolerance is maintaned | by deleting potentially reactive B and T cells,peripheral tolarance
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| name the syndrome that is characterized by the presence of autoantibody to glomeruler membranes | goodpastures
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| which type of diabetes has an autoimmune origin | type IA
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| what autoimmune disease affects the intestines | crohns
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| name one treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus | injected insulin
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| an negative RF test rules out RA (T or F) | false
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| name a disorder associated with a deficiency in the B-cell system | Hgb of infancy,IgA deficiency,x linked agammglobunemia,cvi,isolated IgG
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| name the most common congenital agammaglobilinemias | Iga deficiency
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| what is diagnosed when patients with reoccuring bacterial infections demonstrate a low IgG | cvi
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| name a cellular immunity deficiency that is a result of a developmental abnormality of the third and fourth pharungeal pouches | Digeorge
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| defects in B-cell immunity generally lead to recurrent infections with intracellular pathogens (Tor F) | false
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| what region of a SPE will you find immunoglobulins | gamma
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| how many protein bands are in a SPE | 5
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| what is the most predominent protein in serum protein | IgM
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| name the type of measurement where specific antibody is applied directly to the seperating gel | (IFE) immunofixation electrophoresis
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| what is the suspected disorder if i did a leukocyte adhesion molecule analysis | phagocyte defect
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| name the test for screening of compliment deficiencies | CH50,c3 levels
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| the feature of this disease is decreased platlet number and size and a prolonged bleeding time | thrombocytopenia (WAS)
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| this gene is responsible for the processing of an IL binding signal from the cell membrane to the nucleus | Jak 3 gene
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| the primary molecular defect in this syndrome is CD43 | WAS (wiskott-aldrich syndrome)
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| name the most common aquired spirochete disease in the u.s | syphilis
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| what stage of syphilis causes neurosyphilis | tertiary stage
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| what is the causitive agent of syphilis | treponema pallidum
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| what type of microscopy is used to diagnose the presence of T.pallidum | darkfield
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| another name for inflammation of the liver | hepatomegaly
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| which serological marker is seen first in acute hepatitis | ALT(alanine aminotransfertase)
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| which hepatitis has an incubation period of 7 weeks | C
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| what virus causes chicken pox | varicella zoster virus
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| what virus causes german measels | rubella
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| name one way for HIV to be transmitted | sexual contact
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| once hiv replicates which antigen showes increased levels | P24 antigen
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| name a lab test that has played a significant role in testing for HIV infection | CD4
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| what catagory of hiv shows ITP | catagory b
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| what is the name of the enzyme that has a unique enzyme called reverse transcriptase | Hiv
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| name the three structural genes that make up the genome of hiv | gag,env,pol
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| which of the following is a test for antibody to specific antigen | rast
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| Type II could involve all of the following | ADA,AHA,transfusion rejection
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| compliment is responsible for tissue damage in which of the following reactions | type IV
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| If a coombs test is positive what does that mean | invitro binding of rbc
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| T cell dependant hypersensitivity occurs within what time frame | 24-72 hours
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| which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in a type I hypersensitivity | IgE
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| in an indirect fluorescent immunoassay such as FTA confirmatory test for syphilis what is true | directly proportional to amount of patient antibody
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| pregnancy testing is based on an increase in which hormone | hcg
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| principle difference between type II and type III are | type II reacts with a antigen on cell wall,type IIIreacts with a soluble antigen in tissue
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| to determine if a patient is allergic to peanuts what test should be done | RAST
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| which of the following best describes a homogenous assay | no seperation step,direct proportional relationship
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| which of the following best describes competitive binding assay | radiolabeled analyte competes for limited number of binding sites
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| an example of type III hypersensitivity is | arthus,serum sickness,sle
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| a positive DAT might indicate what | HDN,AHA,transfusion reaction
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| complement is responsible for tisse damage in which reactions | IV,goodpastures
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| which antibody class may require the use of an enhancement technique to visualize | IgG
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| a hypersensitivity reaction characterized by presence of IgG that reacts with a soluble antigen | type II
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| which is an example of type II hypersensitivity disorder | HDN,AHA,goodpastures
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| reaction to poison ivy is which type of sensitivity | IV
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| anaphylatic reactions are mediated by | IgM mast cells
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| components of a competitive immunoassay include | all reactant are mixed simutanously,labeled antigens compete for binding site
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| radioimmunosorbant assay can be used for the diagnosis of which type of hypersensitivity | immediate or type I
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| what test should be used to determine evidence of HDN | DAT
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| the immune mechanism involved in contact dermatitis is which of the following | sensitized cytoxic T cells
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| cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an example of which hypersensitivity | type II
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| the PPD reaction to determine exposure to tuberculosis is based on which of the following | sensitized T cells
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