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immunology final
immunology
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| the action of CRP can be distinguished from that of an antibody in which of the following ways | CRP acts before the antibody appears |
| which of the following can be attributed to pasteur | first attinuated vaccines |
| the subclasses of IgG differ mainly in | the arrangement of disulfide bonds |
| all of the following are true of IgM except that | it can cross into the placenta |
| in which zone might the antibody screening test be false positive | prozone |
| which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ | thymus |
| which of the following best describes the t-cell receptor antigen | alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen |
| which best characterizes the membrane attack complex | c9 polymerizes to form the transmembrane channel |
| a heterophile antigen is one that | exists in unrelated plants or animals |
| which of the following best describes the role of TAP | they transport peptides into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum |
| the structure formed by the fusion of the engulfed material and enzymatic granules within a phagocytic cell is called a | phagolysosome |
| which receptor on the t-cell is responsible for rosetting with sheep red blood cells | cd2 |
| which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-b cell | u(mu) chains in the cytoplasm |
| the classical complement pathway is activated by | antigen-antibody complex |
| the CH50 test measures which of the following | *dilution of patient serum required to lyse 50% of a standard concentration of sensitized sheep red blood cells *functioning of both the classic and alternative pathways *genetic deficiencies of any of the complement complex |
| which best describe the law of mass action | the equilibrium constant is relating to the strength of an antigen-antibody binding |
| precipitation differs from agglutination in which way | precipitation involves a soluble antigen while agglutination involves a particular antigen |
| a FAB fragment consists of | one L chain and 1/2 a H chain |
| all of the following are true of IgE except that | is heat stable |
| enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum protein is called | opsonization |
| measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except | diagnosis of specific bacterial infection |
| MHC molecules are associated with which of the following | graft rejection autoimmune diseases determining to which antigen an individual responds to |
| which of the following best describes hapten | antigenic only when coupled to a carrier |
| which statement is true of measurements of turbidity | it indicates the ratio of incident light to transmitted light |
| which technique represents a single-diffusion reaction | radial immunodiffusion |
| which of the following is true of nk cells | they recognize lack of MHC proteins |
| where does the major portion of antibody production occur | lymph nodes |
| factor H acts by competing with which of the following for the same binding site | factor B |
| how many antigen binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have | 10 |
| which of the following are L chains of antibody molecules | k |
| the presence of normal flora acts as a defense mechanism by which of the following means | competing with pathogens for nutrients |
| which of the following peripheral blood cells plays a key role in killing of parasites | eosinophils |
| if crossed lines result in an ouchterlony immunodiffusion reaction with antigens 1 and 2 what does this indicate | the two antigens are unrelated |
| which of the following statements apply to rate of nephelometry | readings are taken before equivalence is achieved it is more sensitive than turbidity measurements are time dependant |
| which of these are found on a mature B cell | IgM and IgD |
| which of the following would represent a double negative thymocyte | CD2 +CD3 -CD4 -CD8 |
| why is complement not activated with anti rh(d)antibodies | rh antigens are too far apart on red blood cells |
| all of the following represent functions of the complement system except | decreased clearance of antigen-antibody complexes |
| which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation | IgM |
| all of the following are characteristic of a good immunogen except | found on host cells |
| which of the following are true of MHC(HLA) class II antigens | they are found on B cells and macrophages |
| Jenner's work with cowpox,which provided immunity against smallpox demonstrates which phenomenon | cross-immunity |
| which technique is typified by radial immunodiffusion combined with electrophoresis | rocket electrophoresis |
| all of the following are characteristic of complement components except | present as active enzymes |
| Bence-Jones proteins are identical to which of the following | L chains |
| all of the following describe an epitope except | consists of sequential amino acids only |
| where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made | bone marrow |
| skin,lactic acid secretions,stomach acidity,and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity | natural immunity |
| an individual is recovering from a bacterial infection and tests positive for antibodies to a protein normally found in the cytoplasm of this bacterium.which of the following statements are true of this situation | class II molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4 and T cells |
| The following are mechanisms that are thought to contribute to autoimmunity EXCEPT | clonal deletion of self reactive T cells |
| what is the target tissue for good pasture syndrome | kidney and lungs |
| name the key to the pathogenisis to SLE | dysunctional processing in the routine immunological clearing of cellular debris |
| the following autoantibodies have a homogenous immunofloruescent pattern accept | anti-ds-dna |
| antibodies that have a homogenous staining pattern | ANTI-DS-DNA,ANTI-HISTONE,ANTI-DNP |
| what antibody is most specific for SLE | Ds-dna |
| antibodies that are stimulated by DNA complexed to histone are known as | DNP |
| the antibody found in 75% of patients is called | RF-IgM isotype |
| proinflammatory cytokines found in synovial fluid that contribute to inflammation are | IL-1,6,8,15,18,tnfa |
| another name for chronic autoimmune thyroiditis is | hashimotos |
| name the two isotypes for RF | IgA,IgM,IgG |
| name one way self tolerance is maintaned | by deleting potentially reactive B and T cells,peripheral tolarance |
| name the syndrome that is characterized by the presence of autoantibody to glomeruler membranes | goodpastures |
| which type of diabetes has an autoimmune origin | type IA |
| what autoimmune disease affects the intestines | crohns |
| name one treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus | injected insulin |
| an negative RF test rules out RA (T or F) | false |
| name a disorder associated with a deficiency in the B-cell system | Hgb of infancy,IgA deficiency,x linked agammglobunemia,cvi,isolated IgG |
| name the most common congenital agammaglobilinemias | Iga deficiency |
| what is diagnosed when patients with reoccuring bacterial infections demonstrate a low IgG | cvi |
| name a cellular immunity deficiency that is a result of a developmental abnormality of the third and fourth pharungeal pouches | Digeorge |
| defects in B-cell immunity generally lead to recurrent infections with intracellular pathogens (Tor F) | false |
| what region of a SPE will you find immunoglobulins | gamma |
| how many protein bands are in a SPE | 5 |
| what is the most predominent protein in serum protein | IgM |
| name the type of measurement where specific antibody is applied directly to the seperating gel | (IFE) immunofixation electrophoresis |
| what is the suspected disorder if i did a leukocyte adhesion molecule analysis | phagocyte defect |
| name the test for screening of compliment deficiencies | CH50,c3 levels |
| the feature of this disease is decreased platlet number and size and a prolonged bleeding time | thrombocytopenia (WAS) |
| this gene is responsible for the processing of an IL binding signal from the cell membrane to the nucleus | Jak 3 gene |
| the primary molecular defect in this syndrome is CD43 | WAS (wiskott-aldrich syndrome) |
| name the most common aquired spirochete disease in the u.s | syphilis |
| what stage of syphilis causes neurosyphilis | tertiary stage |
| what is the causitive agent of syphilis | treponema pallidum |
| what type of microscopy is used to diagnose the presence of T.pallidum | darkfield |
| another name for inflammation of the liver | hepatomegaly |
| which serological marker is seen first in acute hepatitis | ALT(alanine aminotransfertase) |
| which hepatitis has an incubation period of 7 weeks | C |
| what virus causes chicken pox | varicella zoster virus |
| what virus causes german measels | rubella |
| name one way for HIV to be transmitted | sexual contact |
| once hiv replicates which antigen showes increased levels | P24 antigen |
| name a lab test that has played a significant role in testing for HIV infection | CD4 |
| what catagory of hiv shows ITP | catagory b |
| what is the name of the enzyme that has a unique enzyme called reverse transcriptase | Hiv |
| name the three structural genes that make up the genome of hiv | gag,env,pol |
| which of the following is a test for antibody to specific antigen | rast |
| Type II could involve all of the following | ADA,AHA,transfusion rejection |
| compliment is responsible for tissue damage in which of the following reactions | type IV |
| If a coombs test is positive what does that mean | invitro binding of rbc |
| T cell dependant hypersensitivity occurs within what time frame | 24-72 hours |
| which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in a type I hypersensitivity | IgE |
| in an indirect fluorescent immunoassay such as FTA confirmatory test for syphilis what is true | directly proportional to amount of patient antibody |
| pregnancy testing is based on an increase in which hormone | hcg |
| principle difference between type II and type III are | type II reacts with a antigen on cell wall,type IIIreacts with a soluble antigen in tissue |
| to determine if a patient is allergic to peanuts what test should be done | RAST |
| which of the following best describes a homogenous assay | no seperation step,direct proportional relationship |
| which of the following best describes competitive binding assay | radiolabeled analyte competes for limited number of binding sites |
| an example of type III hypersensitivity is | arthus,serum sickness,sle |
| a positive DAT might indicate what | HDN,AHA,transfusion reaction |
| complement is responsible for tisse damage in which reactions | IV,goodpastures |
| which antibody class may require the use of an enhancement technique to visualize | IgG |
| a hypersensitivity reaction characterized by presence of IgG that reacts with a soluble antigen | type II |
| which is an example of type II hypersensitivity disorder | HDN,AHA,goodpastures |
| reaction to poison ivy is which type of sensitivity | IV |
| anaphylatic reactions are mediated by | IgM mast cells |
| components of a competitive immunoassay include | all reactant are mixed simutanously,labeled antigens compete for binding site |
| radioimmunosorbant assay can be used for the diagnosis of which type of hypersensitivity | immediate or type I |
| what test should be used to determine evidence of HDN | DAT |
| the immune mechanism involved in contact dermatitis is which of the following | sensitized cytoxic T cells |
| cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an example of which hypersensitivity | type II |
| the PPD reaction to determine exposure to tuberculosis is based on which of the following | sensitized T cells |
Created by:
jennsabo2010
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