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immunology final


the action of CRP can be distinguished from that of an antibody in which of the following ways CRP acts before the antibody appears
which of the following can be attributed to pasteur first attinuated vaccines
the subclasses of IgG differ mainly in the arrangement of disulfide bonds
all of the following are true of IgM except that it can cross into the placenta
in which zone might the antibody screening test be false positive prozone
which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ thymus
which of the following best describes the t-cell receptor antigen alpha and beta chains are unique for each antigen
which best characterizes the membrane attack complex c9 polymerizes to form the transmembrane channel
a heterophile antigen is one that exists in unrelated plants or animals
which of the following best describes the role of TAP they transport peptides into the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum
the structure formed by the fusion of the engulfed material and enzymatic granules within a phagocytic cell is called a phagolysosome
which receptor on the t-cell is responsible for rosetting with sheep red blood cells cd2
which is a distinguishing feature of a pre-b cell u(mu) chains in the cytoplasm
the classical complement pathway is activated by antigen-antibody complex
the CH50 test measures which of the following *dilution of patient serum required to lyse 50% of a standard concentration of sensitized sheep red blood cells *functioning of both the classic and alternative pathways *genetic deficiencies of any of the complement complex
which best describe the law of mass action the equilibrium constant is relating to the strength of an antigen-antibody binding
precipitation differs from agglutination in which way precipitation involves a soluble antigen while agglutination involves a particular antigen
a FAB fragment consists of one L chain and 1/2 a H chain
all of the following are true of IgE except that is heat stable
enhancement of phagocytosis by coating of foreign particles with serum protein is called opsonization
measurement of CRP levels can be used for all of the following except diagnosis of specific bacterial infection
MHC molecules are associated with which of the following graft rejection autoimmune diseases determining to which antigen an individual responds to
which of the following best describes hapten antigenic only when coupled to a carrier
which statement is true of measurements of turbidity it indicates the ratio of incident light to transmitted light
which technique represents a single-diffusion reaction radial immunodiffusion
which of the following is true of nk cells they recognize lack of MHC proteins
where does the major portion of antibody production occur lymph nodes
factor H acts by competing with which of the following for the same binding site factor B
how many antigen binding sites does a typical IgM molecule have 10
which of the following are L chains of antibody molecules k
the presence of normal flora acts as a defense mechanism by which of the following means competing with pathogens for nutrients
which of the following peripheral blood cells plays a key role in killing of parasites eosinophils
if crossed lines result in an ouchterlony immunodiffusion reaction with antigens 1 and 2 what does this indicate the two antigens are unrelated
which of the following statements apply to rate of nephelometry readings are taken before equivalence is achieved it is more sensitive than turbidity measurements are time dependant
which of these are found on a mature B cell IgM and IgD
which of the following would represent a double negative thymocyte CD2 +CD3 -CD4 -CD8
why is complement not activated with anti rh(d)antibodies rh antigens are too far apart on red blood cells
all of the following represent functions of the complement system except decreased clearance of antigen-antibody complexes
which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation IgM
all of the following are characteristic of a good immunogen except found on host cells
which of the following are true of MHC(HLA) class II antigens they are found on B cells and macrophages
Jenner's work with cowpox,which provided immunity against smallpox demonstrates which phenomenon cross-immunity
which technique is typified by radial immunodiffusion combined with electrophoresis rocket electrophoresis
all of the following are characteristic of complement components except present as active enzymes
Bence-Jones proteins are identical to which of the following L chains
all of the following describe an epitope except consists of sequential amino acids only
where are all undifferentiated lymphocytes made bone marrow
skin,lactic acid secretions,stomach acidity,and the motion of cilia represent which type of immunity natural immunity
an individual is recovering from a bacterial infection and tests positive for antibodies to a protein normally found in the cytoplasm of this bacterium.which of the following statements are true of this situation class II molecules have presented bacterial antigen to CD4 and T cells
The following are mechanisms that are thought to contribute to autoimmunity EXCEPT clonal deletion of self reactive T cells
what is the target tissue for good pasture syndrome kidney and lungs
name the key to the pathogenisis to SLE dysunctional processing in the routine immunological clearing of cellular debris
the following autoantibodies have a homogenous immunofloruescent pattern accept anti-ds-dna
antibodies that have a homogenous staining pattern ANTI-DS-DNA,ANTI-HISTONE,ANTI-DNP
what antibody is most specific for SLE Ds-dna
antibodies that are stimulated by DNA complexed to histone are known as DNP
the antibody found in 75% of patients is called RF-IgM isotype
proinflammatory cytokines found in synovial fluid that contribute to inflammation are IL-1,6,8,15,18,tnfa
another name for chronic autoimmune thyroiditis is hashimotos
name the two isotypes for RF IgA,IgM,IgG
name one way self tolerance is maintaned by deleting potentially reactive B and T cells,peripheral tolarance
name the syndrome that is characterized by the presence of autoantibody to glomeruler membranes goodpastures
which type of diabetes has an autoimmune origin type IA
what autoimmune disease affects the intestines crohns
name one treatment for type 1 diabetes mellitus injected insulin
an negative RF test rules out RA (T or F) false
name a disorder associated with a deficiency in the B-cell system Hgb of infancy,IgA deficiency,x linked agammglobunemia,cvi,isolated IgG
name the most common congenital agammaglobilinemias Iga deficiency
what is diagnosed when patients with reoccuring bacterial infections demonstrate a low IgG cvi
name a cellular immunity deficiency that is a result of a developmental abnormality of the third and fourth pharungeal pouches Digeorge
defects in B-cell immunity generally lead to recurrent infections with intracellular pathogens (Tor F) false
what region of a SPE will you find immunoglobulins gamma
how many protein bands are in a SPE 5
what is the most predominent protein in serum protein IgM
name the type of measurement where specific antibody is applied directly to the seperating gel (IFE) immunofixation electrophoresis
what is the suspected disorder if i did a leukocyte adhesion molecule analysis phagocyte defect
name the test for screening of compliment deficiencies CH50,c3 levels
the feature of this disease is decreased platlet number and size and a prolonged bleeding time thrombocytopenia (WAS)
this gene is responsible for the processing of an IL binding signal from the cell membrane to the nucleus Jak 3 gene
the primary molecular defect in this syndrome is CD43 WAS (wiskott-aldrich syndrome)
name the most common aquired spirochete disease in the u.s syphilis
what stage of syphilis causes neurosyphilis tertiary stage
what is the causitive agent of syphilis treponema pallidum
what type of microscopy is used to diagnose the presence of T.pallidum darkfield
another name for inflammation of the liver hepatomegaly
which serological marker is seen first in acute hepatitis ALT(alanine aminotransfertase)
which hepatitis has an incubation period of 7 weeks C
what virus causes chicken pox varicella zoster virus
what virus causes german measels rubella
name one way for HIV to be transmitted sexual contact
once hiv replicates which antigen showes increased levels P24 antigen
name a lab test that has played a significant role in testing for HIV infection CD4
what catagory of hiv shows ITP catagory b
what is the name of the enzyme that has a unique enzyme called reverse transcriptase Hiv
name the three structural genes that make up the genome of hiv gag,env,pol
which of the following is a test for antibody to specific antigen rast
Type II could involve all of the following ADA,AHA,transfusion rejection
compliment is responsible for tissue damage in which of the following reactions type IV
If a coombs test is positive what does that mean invitro binding of rbc
T cell dependant hypersensitivity occurs within what time frame 24-72 hours
which isotype of immunoglobulin is involved in a type I hypersensitivity IgE
in an indirect fluorescent immunoassay such as FTA confirmatory test for syphilis what is true directly proportional to amount of patient antibody
pregnancy testing is based on an increase in which hormone hcg
principle difference between type II and type III are type II reacts with a antigen on cell wall,type IIIreacts with a soluble antigen in tissue
to determine if a patient is allergic to peanuts what test should be done RAST
which of the following best describes a homogenous assay no seperation step,direct proportional relationship
which of the following best describes competitive binding assay radiolabeled analyte competes for limited number of binding sites
an example of type III hypersensitivity is arthus,serum sickness,sle
a positive DAT might indicate what HDN,AHA,transfusion reaction
complement is responsible for tisse damage in which reactions IV,goodpastures
which antibody class may require the use of an enhancement technique to visualize IgG
a hypersensitivity reaction characterized by presence of IgG that reacts with a soluble antigen type II
which is an example of type II hypersensitivity disorder HDN,AHA,goodpastures
reaction to poison ivy is which type of sensitivity IV
anaphylatic reactions are mediated by IgM mast cells
components of a competitive immunoassay include all reactant are mixed simutanously,labeled antigens compete for binding site
radioimmunosorbant assay can be used for the diagnosis of which type of hypersensitivity immediate or type I
what test should be used to determine evidence of HDN DAT
the immune mechanism involved in contact dermatitis is which of the following sensitized cytoxic T cells
cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia is an example of which hypersensitivity type II
the PPD reaction to determine exposure to tuberculosis is based on which of the following sensitized T cells
Created by: jennsabo2010