Practice for Immunology test 3 at DelTech Owens campus - post test review
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| The strength of the binding between one FAB with one epitope on an antigen is called ? | affinity
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| The number of binding sites times the affinity is called ? | avidity
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| The higher the affinity, the more of the antibody and antigen that is ? | complexed
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| The higher the affinity, the (more or less?) sensitive the reaction in a precipitation or agglutination test. | more (because less of the antigen and antibody will be in the uncomplexed form - uncomplexed particles can weaken the reaction)
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| During a precipitation reaction, this is what you call it when there is too much ANTIBODY. | prozone
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| During a precipitation reaction, this is what you call it where there aren't enough antibodies. | post-zone
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| During a precipitation reaction, this is what you call it when the ratio of paratopes and epitopes is about equal. | equivalence
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| When would the most precipitation occur? (prozone, post-zone, equivalence) | equivalence
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| During a post-zone reaction, each antibody is bound by 2 __; this means that no bridging of 2 antibodies with an antigen can take place. Without bridging, there can be no precipitation. | antigens
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| During a prozone reaction, there are 2 __ bound to every bivalent antigen and no need to bridge 2 __ molecules to an antibody. | antibodies, antigen
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| If no precipitation forms, the patient did not have enough __ to the antigen to form a precipitation reaction. | antibodies
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| Little to no precipitation would form during a (prozone, post-zone, equivalence?) reaction. | prozone
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| In prozone and postzone reactions, the patient appears to be __ for the antibody. | negative
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| In post-zone reactions, the patient's blood can be drawn again to allow an increase in antibody __ to bring the reaction up to the point of equivalence. | titer
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| In prozone, the patient's serum can be __ and tested again to reach equivalence. | diluted (remember, in prozone, the titer is too high)
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| An Ouchterlony test is a __ gel precipitation test. | double-diffusion
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| Radial Immunodiffusion (RID) is a __ precipitation reaction test. | single-diffusion
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| What are the 3 types of reactions possible during an Ouchterlony test? | identity, partial identity, nonidentity
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| A line that looks like a frown in an Ouchterlony test is called (identity, partial identity, nonidentity?) | identity
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| A line that looks like an X during an Ouchterlony test is called (identity, partial identity, nonidentity?) | nonidentity
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| A line with a spur on it - because half of the line is longer than the other half - is called (identity, partial identity, nonidentity?) in an Ouchterlony test. | partial identity
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| During an Ouchterlony test, the top 2 wells are filled with different __ that then diffuse throughout the gel. | antigens
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| In an Ouchterlony test, if both of the antigen wells are filled with identical antigens, the reaction will be (identity, partial identity, nonidentity?) | identity
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| Ouchterlony tests are (quantitative or qualitative?) | qualitative
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| In an Ouchterlony test, the antigen with the __ concentration would form a precipitin line closer to the antibody well. | higher
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| Radial Immunodiffusion is a (quantitative or qualitative?) immunoprecipitin technique. | quantitative
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| Both nephelometry and turbidometry use __ analysis methods to acquire and analyze antibody and antigen lattice formations. | optical
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| In (nephelometry or turbidometry?) cloudiness of the solution is measured by passing a light straight through it. | turbidometry
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| Turbidometry measures the light that goes directly __ the solution. | across or through
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| Turbidometry measures the amount of light that is __ as it passes through the solution. | lost
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| The amount of light scatter is proportional to the concentration of the molecules in the __ __ during an optical test. | lattice structures
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| Which is more sensitive, nephalometry or turbidometry? | nephalometry
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| In (nephelometry or turbidometry?) the light is measured at a 10-90 degree angle from the light source. | nephalometry
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| In nephalometry, a __ degree angle is typically used to test a sample. | 70
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| Both turbidometry and nephalometry are more sensitive than using the __. | eye
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| Agglutination is (more or less?) sensitive than precipitation. | more
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| Agglutination is more sensitive than precipitation because the larger particles enhance __. | visualization
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| A clumping of bacteria or red cells when held together by antibodies (agglutinins) is called ? | agglutination
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| Precipitation works in cases involving liquid solutions, whereas agglutination involves ? | particles (like RBCs)
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| With agglutination of charged particles (like blood cells) the closer the particles are brought together by antibodies, the stronger their charges will __ each of them from one another. | repel
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| Which antibody works best for agglutination of charged particles? | IgM
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| Why does IgM work better than IgG when agglutination of charged particles is desired? | 1. IgM has a greater reach than IgG (Reach)
2. IgM has more binding sites than IgG (more binding sites)
3. IgM functions well at room temperature (temperature) while IgG does not.
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| What methods can be employed to improve agglutination when running a test? | 1. Change pH 2. use IgM 3. use anti-human immunoglobulins with IgG 4. LISS 5. increase viscosity 6. Temp 7. use enzymes 8. agitate/centrifuge
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| What does LISS stand for? | Low ionic strength solution
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| How does LISS improve agglutination? | It reduces the electrical charge of the particles
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| How can enzymes improve agglutination of RBCs? | Decreases surface charge
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| Agglutination tests using IgG sometimes fail to cause agglutination due to ? | electrical repulsion of the particles
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| To overcome a failure to cause agglutination with IgG antibodies, you can use __ to bind the IgG molecules to one another. | anti-human immunoglobulins
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| Antihuman immunoglobulins can link the __ regions of the IgG molecules so they can bind the particles together. | FC
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| An agglutination reaction involving RBCs is referred to as ? | hemagglutination
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| When the antigen is NATURALLY part of the particle during an agglutination test, this is called __ agglutination. | direct
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| When the antigen is NOT NORMALLY part of the particle during an agglutination test, this is called __ agglutination. | indirect or passive
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| A test that demonstrates the presence of antibodies on an individual's RBCs is called ? | Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
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| A DAT (direct antiglobulin test) could be used to check what 4 kinds of reactions? | 1. autoimmune hemolytic anemia 2. hemolytic disease of the newborn 3. RBC drug sensitization 4. transfusion reactions
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| Why are direct antiglobulin tests (DAT) called direct? | They directly test the cells that have come out of the patient's body
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| Which kind of test looks for the presence of the antibodies against non-host RBCs in a patient? | Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)
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| An immunoassay that requires a step to separate (or wash) the bound antigen-antibody complexes from those that are free is called ? | heterogeneous assay (hetero=different or separate)
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| An immunoassay that does NOT require separation (or washing) of the bound antigen-antibody complexes from those that are free is called ? | homogeneous assay (homo=same)
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| Heterogeneous assays are __ to perform than homogeneous assays, but they work better. | harder
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| A heterogeneous immunoassay that uses a labeled antibody bound to an antigen or a labeled antigen bound to an antibody is called ? | direct immunoassay
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| Direct immunoassays are often used to detect an antigen in a cell __ or __ sample. | preparation or biopsy
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| Name 4 kinds of direct immunoassays. | 1. enzyme 2. fluorescent 3. radioimmunoassay 4. chemiluminescent
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| Enzymes, fluorochromes, radioisotopes, and chemiluminescent compounds are __ used in direct immunoassays. | labels
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| If you don't wash the unbound particles from a heterogeneous assay, the results will be falsely __. | increased
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| Indirect immunoassays typically use __ antigens and antibodies. | unlabeled
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| Direct immunoassays use __ particles, but indirect immunoassays use __ particles. | labeled, unlabeled
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| During a sandwich/capture immunoassay, the first antibody captures an antigen from the sample, while a second labeled antibody is used to __ the reaction. | see or visualize
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| The __ __ test is a heterogeneous adaptation of an enzyme immunoassay that is used to test for HIV. | Western Blot
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| The most frequently used enzyme used when running a heterogeneous enzyme immunoassay is called ? | horseradish peroxidase
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| Immune reactions that are harmful to the host are called ? | hypersensitivity reactions
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| Type I hypersensitivity reactions are __ mediated and involve degranulation of __ cells. | IgE, mast
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| Type II hypersensitivity reactions are __-__ cell surface reactions that cause __ and __ activation. | antibody-mediated, cytotoxicity and complement activation
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| Type III hypersensitivity reactions are __-__ mediated and involve activation of __. | immune-complex, complement
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| Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are cell mediated and involve sensitized __ cells as well as activated __. | T cells, macrophages
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| Which kind of hypersensitivity reaction involves antibody-mediated cell surface reactions that cause cytotoxicity and complement activation? | Type II
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| What class of hypersensitivity reaction involves IgE mediated degranulation of mast cells? | Type I
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| Which class of hypersensitivity reaction is cell mediated and involves sensitized T cells as well as activated macrophages? | Type IV
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| Which class of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune-complex mediated activation of complement? | Type III
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| Which hypersensitivity reaction is also known as "immediate hypersensitivity?" | Type I
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| Which hypersensitivity reactions involve complement activation? | II and III
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| Which kind of hypersensitivity is known as "delayed hypersensitivity"? | Type IV
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| Asthma and hay-fever are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction? | Type I
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| Contact dermatitis from poison ivy and other causes is an example of which hypersensitivity reaction? | Type IV
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| Good pasture's syndrome, arthus reactions, Rheumatic fever, Grave's disease, and Masthenia gravis are all examples of which hypersensitivity reaction? | Type III
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| Hemolytic anemia, HDNBs, and blood transfusions are examples of which hypersensitivity reaction? | Type II
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| How long does a type I hypersensitivity reaction generally take to manifest? | 2-30 mins
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| How long does a type II hypersensitivity reaction generally take to manifest? | 5-8 hours
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| How long does a type III hypersensitivity reaction generally take to manifest? | 2-8 hours
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| How long does a type IV hypersensitivity reaction generally take to manifest? | 24-72 hours
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| HDNB refers to ? | hemolytic disease of the newborn
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| Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDNB) occurs when the mother is Rh__ while the fetus is Rh__. | negative, positive
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| Can HDNB occur if the mother is Rh+ and the fetus is Rh-? | No
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| During HDNB, the mother makes IgG antibodies against the baby's RBCs due to __-__ incompatibility. | blood-antigen
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| Rh+ means positive for the __ antigen. | D
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| How can you prevent HDNB? | administer anti-RhD antibodies to the mother at 6 months gestation
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| Anti-Rh antibodies prevent HDNB by reacting with the RBCs that leak into her system from the baby and __ them before the mother can build up an immunity. | destroying
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| What are the 2 kinds of tests for HDNB? | 1. Indirect antiglobulin testing (IAT) 2. Direct antiglobulin testing (DAT)
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| When using IAT to test for HDNB, you test the __ blood for the antibody to the Rh antigen. | mother's
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| When using DAT to test for HDNB, you test the __ blood cells to see if they are coated with antibody. | baby's
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| In HDNB, the mother produces __ against the baby's RhD+ antigen. | IgG/antibodies
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| Myasthenia gravis, a type III autoimmune disorder, is also called ? | Lou Gehrig's disease
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| This type III hypersensitivity disease is caused by stimulation by antibodies. | Grave's disease
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| This type III hypersensitivity disease happens when antibodies attach to acetylcholine receptors and cause muscle weakness. | Myasthenia gravis/Lou Gehrig's disease
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| This type III hypersensitivity disease is caused by antibodies attaching to basement membranes of the lungs and kidneys. | Goodpasture's syndrome
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| This type III hypersensitivity disease occurs when strep throat cross reacts with the heart, muscle, cartilage, and glomerular basement membranes of the kidney. | Rheumatic fever
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| Serum sickness can cause type __ hypersensitivity reactions. | III
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| Before specific antibiotics and vaccines, some infections were treated by passive transfer of antibodies from animals. This procedure could result in what kind of systemic reaction? | serum sickness
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| Contact dermatitis, a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, can occur when small substances are absorbed through the skin and act as __, causing the skin cells to become immunogenic. | haptens
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| During contact dermatitis, the skin may present with what 5 symptoms? | 1. redness 2. blisters 3. edema 4. itching 5. peeling of skin
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| What kind of test is used to check for TB? | Mantoux/PPD (purified protein derivative)
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| If the Mantoux/PPD test is positive, a __ will form on the skin after injection. | welt or bump
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| DAT tests for antibodies against host __, leading to agglutination. With IAT, you're looking for antibodies against __ RBC's (e.g. anti-Rh antibodies). You put the patient's plasma in with other, non-host RBC's and look for agglutination | RBC's, non-host
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