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Immun PostRev 3
Practice for Immunology test 3 at DelTech Owens campus - post test review
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| The strength of the binding between one FAB with one epitope on an antigen is called ? | affinity |
| The number of binding sites times the affinity is called ? | avidity |
| The higher the affinity, the more of the antibody and antigen that is ? | complexed |
| The higher the affinity, the (more or less?) sensitive the reaction in a precipitation or agglutination test. | more (because less of the antigen and antibody will be in the uncomplexed form - uncomplexed particles can weaken the reaction) |
| During a precipitation reaction, this is what you call it when there is too much ANTIBODY. | prozone |
| During a precipitation reaction, this is what you call it where there aren't enough antibodies. | post-zone |
| During a precipitation reaction, this is what you call it when the ratio of paratopes and epitopes is about equal. | equivalence |
| When would the most precipitation occur? (prozone, post-zone, equivalence) | equivalence |
| During a post-zone reaction, each antibody is bound by 2 __; this means that no bridging of 2 antibodies with an antigen can take place. Without bridging, there can be no precipitation. | antigens |
| During a prozone reaction, there are 2 __ bound to every bivalent antigen and no need to bridge 2 __ molecules to an antibody. | antibodies, antigen |
| If no precipitation forms, the patient did not have enough __ to the antigen to form a precipitation reaction. | antibodies |
| Little to no precipitation would form during a (prozone, post-zone, equivalence?) reaction. | prozone |
| In prozone and postzone reactions, the patient appears to be __ for the antibody. | negative |
| In post-zone reactions, the patient's blood can be drawn again to allow an increase in antibody __ to bring the reaction up to the point of equivalence. | titer |
| In prozone, the patient's serum can be __ and tested again to reach equivalence. | diluted (remember, in prozone, the titer is too high) |
| An Ouchterlony test is a __ gel precipitation test. | double-diffusion |
| Radial Immunodiffusion (RID) is a __ precipitation reaction test. | single-diffusion |
| What are the 3 types of reactions possible during an Ouchterlony test? | identity, partial identity, nonidentity |
| A line that looks like a frown in an Ouchterlony test is called (identity, partial identity, nonidentity?) | identity |
| A line that looks like an X during an Ouchterlony test is called (identity, partial identity, nonidentity?) | nonidentity |
| A line with a spur on it - because half of the line is longer than the other half - is called (identity, partial identity, nonidentity?) in an Ouchterlony test. | partial identity |
| During an Ouchterlony test, the top 2 wells are filled with different __ that then diffuse throughout the gel. | antigens |
| In an Ouchterlony test, if both of the antigen wells are filled with identical antigens, the reaction will be (identity, partial identity, nonidentity?) | identity |
| Ouchterlony tests are (quantitative or qualitative?) | qualitative |
| In an Ouchterlony test, the antigen with the __ concentration would form a precipitin line closer to the antibody well. | higher |
| Radial Immunodiffusion is a (quantitative or qualitative?) immunoprecipitin technique. | quantitative |
| Both nephelometry and turbidometry use __ analysis methods to acquire and analyze antibody and antigen lattice formations. | optical |
| In (nephelometry or turbidometry?) cloudiness of the solution is measured by passing a light straight through it. | turbidometry |
| Turbidometry measures the light that goes directly __ the solution. | across or through |
| Turbidometry measures the amount of light that is __ as it passes through the solution. | lost |
| The amount of light scatter is proportional to the concentration of the molecules in the __ __ during an optical test. | lattice structures |
| Which is more sensitive, nephalometry or turbidometry? | nephalometry |
| In (nephelometry or turbidometry?) the light is measured at a 10-90 degree angle from the light source. | nephalometry |
| In nephalometry, a __ degree angle is typically used to test a sample. | 70 |
| Both turbidometry and nephalometry are more sensitive than using the __. | eye |
| Agglutination is (more or less?) sensitive than precipitation. | more |
| Agglutination is more sensitive than precipitation because the larger particles enhance __. | visualization |
| A clumping of bacteria or red cells when held together by antibodies (agglutinins) is called ? | agglutination |
| Precipitation works in cases involving liquid solutions, whereas agglutination involves ? | particles (like RBCs) |
| With agglutination of charged particles (like blood cells) the closer the particles are brought together by antibodies, the stronger their charges will __ each of them from one another. | repel |
| Which antibody works best for agglutination of charged particles? | IgM |
| Why does IgM work better than IgG when agglutination of charged particles is desired? | 1. IgM has a greater reach than IgG (Reach) 2. IgM has more binding sites than IgG (more binding sites) 3. IgM functions well at room temperature (temperature) while IgG does not. |
| What methods can be employed to improve agglutination when running a test? | 1. Change pH 2. use IgM 3. use anti-human immunoglobulins with IgG 4. LISS 5. increase viscosity 6. Temp 7. use enzymes 8. agitate/centrifuge |
| What does LISS stand for? | Low ionic strength solution |
| How does LISS improve agglutination? | It reduces the electrical charge of the particles |
| How can enzymes improve agglutination of RBCs? | Decreases surface charge |
| Agglutination tests using IgG sometimes fail to cause agglutination due to ? | electrical repulsion of the particles |
| To overcome a failure to cause agglutination with IgG antibodies, you can use __ to bind the IgG molecules to one another. | anti-human immunoglobulins |
| Antihuman immunoglobulins can link the __ regions of the IgG molecules so they can bind the particles together. | FC |
| An agglutination reaction involving RBCs is referred to as ? | hemagglutination |
| When the antigen is NATURALLY part of the particle during an agglutination test, this is called __ agglutination. | direct |
| When the antigen is NOT NORMALLY part of the particle during an agglutination test, this is called __ agglutination. | indirect or passive |
| A test that demonstrates the presence of antibodies on an individual's RBCs is called ? | Direct antiglobulin test (DAT) |
| A DAT (direct antiglobulin test) could be used to check what 4 kinds of reactions? | 1. autoimmune hemolytic anemia 2. hemolytic disease of the newborn 3. RBC drug sensitization 4. transfusion reactions |
| Why are direct antiglobulin tests (DAT) called direct? | They directly test the cells that have come out of the patient's body |
| Which kind of test looks for the presence of the antibodies against non-host RBCs in a patient? | Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) |
| An immunoassay that requires a step to separate (or wash) the bound antigen-antibody complexes from those that are free is called ? | heterogeneous assay (hetero=different or separate) |
| An immunoassay that does NOT require separation (or washing) of the bound antigen-antibody complexes from those that are free is called ? | homogeneous assay (homo=same) |
| Heterogeneous assays are __ to perform than homogeneous assays, but they work better. | harder |
| A heterogeneous immunoassay that uses a labeled antibody bound to an antigen or a labeled antigen bound to an antibody is called ? | direct immunoassay |
| Direct immunoassays are often used to detect an antigen in a cell __ or __ sample. | preparation or biopsy |
| Name 4 kinds of direct immunoassays. | 1. enzyme 2. fluorescent 3. radioimmunoassay 4. chemiluminescent |
| Enzymes, fluorochromes, radioisotopes, and chemiluminescent compounds are __ used in direct immunoassays. | labels |
| If you don't wash the unbound particles from a heterogeneous assay, the results will be falsely __. | increased |
| Indirect immunoassays typically use __ antigens and antibodies. | unlabeled |
| Direct immunoassays use __ particles, but indirect immunoassays use __ particles. | labeled, unlabeled |
| During a sandwich/capture immunoassay, the first antibody captures an antigen from the sample, while a second labeled antibody is used to __ the reaction. | see or visualize |
| The __ __ test is a heterogeneous adaptation of an enzyme immunoassay that is used to test for HIV. | Western Blot |
| The most frequently used enzyme used when running a heterogeneous enzyme immunoassay is called ? | horseradish peroxidase |
| Immune reactions that are harmful to the host are called ? | hypersensitivity reactions |
| Type I hypersensitivity reactions are __ mediated and involve degranulation of __ cells. | IgE, mast |
| Type II hypersensitivity reactions are __-__ cell surface reactions that cause __ and __ activation. | antibody-mediated, cytotoxicity and complement activation |
| Type III hypersensitivity reactions are __-__ mediated and involve activation of __. | immune-complex, complement |
| Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are cell mediated and involve sensitized __ cells as well as activated __. | T cells, macrophages |
| Which kind of hypersensitivity reaction involves antibody-mediated cell surface reactions that cause cytotoxicity and complement activation? | Type II |
| What class of hypersensitivity reaction involves IgE mediated degranulation of mast cells? | Type I |
| Which class of hypersensitivity reaction is cell mediated and involves sensitized T cells as well as activated macrophages? | Type IV |
| Which class of hypersensitivity reaction involves immune-complex mediated activation of complement? | Type III |
| Which hypersensitivity reaction is also known as "immediate hypersensitivity?" | Type I |
| Which hypersensitivity reactions involve complement activation? | II and III |
| Which kind of hypersensitivity is known as "delayed hypersensitivity"? | Type IV |
| Asthma and hay-fever are examples of which type of hypersensitivity reaction? | Type I |
| Contact dermatitis from poison ivy and other causes is an example of which hypersensitivity reaction? | Type IV |
| Good pasture's syndrome, arthus reactions, Rheumatic fever, Grave's disease, and Masthenia gravis are all examples of which hypersensitivity reaction? | Type III |
| Hemolytic anemia, HDNBs, and blood transfusions are examples of which hypersensitivity reaction? | Type II |
| How long does a type I hypersensitivity reaction generally take to manifest? | 2-30 mins |
| How long does a type II hypersensitivity reaction generally take to manifest? | 5-8 hours |
| How long does a type III hypersensitivity reaction generally take to manifest? | 2-8 hours |
| How long does a type IV hypersensitivity reaction generally take to manifest? | 24-72 hours |
| HDNB refers to ? | hemolytic disease of the newborn |
| Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDNB) occurs when the mother is Rh__ while the fetus is Rh__. | negative, positive |
| Can HDNB occur if the mother is Rh+ and the fetus is Rh-? | No |
| During HDNB, the mother makes IgG antibodies against the baby's RBCs due to __-__ incompatibility. | blood-antigen |
| Rh+ means positive for the __ antigen. | D |
| How can you prevent HDNB? | administer anti-RhD antibodies to the mother at 6 months gestation |
| Anti-Rh antibodies prevent HDNB by reacting with the RBCs that leak into her system from the baby and __ them before the mother can build up an immunity. | destroying |
| What are the 2 kinds of tests for HDNB? | 1. Indirect antiglobulin testing (IAT) 2. Direct antiglobulin testing (DAT) |
| When using IAT to test for HDNB, you test the __ blood for the antibody to the Rh antigen. | mother's |
| When using DAT to test for HDNB, you test the __ blood cells to see if they are coated with antibody. | baby's |
| In HDNB, the mother produces __ against the baby's RhD+ antigen. | IgG/antibodies |
| Myasthenia gravis, a type III autoimmune disorder, is also called ? | Lou Gehrig's disease |
| This type III hypersensitivity disease is caused by stimulation by antibodies. | Grave's disease |
| This type III hypersensitivity disease happens when antibodies attach to acetylcholine receptors and cause muscle weakness. | Myasthenia gravis/Lou Gehrig's disease |
| This type III hypersensitivity disease is caused by antibodies attaching to basement membranes of the lungs and kidneys. | Goodpasture's syndrome |
| This type III hypersensitivity disease occurs when strep throat cross reacts with the heart, muscle, cartilage, and glomerular basement membranes of the kidney. | Rheumatic fever |
| Serum sickness can cause type __ hypersensitivity reactions. | III |
| Before specific antibiotics and vaccines, some infections were treated by passive transfer of antibodies from animals. This procedure could result in what kind of systemic reaction? | serum sickness |
| Contact dermatitis, a type IV hypersensitivity reaction, can occur when small substances are absorbed through the skin and act as __, causing the skin cells to become immunogenic. | haptens |
| During contact dermatitis, the skin may present with what 5 symptoms? | 1. redness 2. blisters 3. edema 4. itching 5. peeling of skin |
| What kind of test is used to check for TB? | Mantoux/PPD (purified protein derivative) |
| If the Mantoux/PPD test is positive, a __ will form on the skin after injection. | welt or bump |
| DAT tests for antibodies against host __, leading to agglutination. With IAT, you're looking for antibodies against __ RBC's (e.g. anti-Rh antibodies). You put the patient's plasma in with other, non-host RBC's and look for agglutination | RBC's, non-host |
Created by:
IsaacJ
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