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Practice test for Micro1 on viruses for DelTech Owens campus

Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in each of the black spaces below before clicking on it to display the answer.
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Question
Answer
The first step of viral multiplication is ?   attachment  
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The 2nd step of viral multiplication is ?   penetration  
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The 3rd step of viral multiplication is ?   uncoating  
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The 4th step of viral multiplication is ?   biosynthesis  
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The 5th step of viral multiplication is ?   assembly  
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When a virus enters a cell and uses its surface proteins to bind to the host cell's receptors, this is called ?   attachment  
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After attachment, the virus penetrates the host cell by injecting its __ receptors.   DNA  
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Before viral multiplication can begin, the __ must be removed. This is called uncoating.   capsid/protein coat  
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What are the 5 steps of viral multiplication?   1. attachment 2. penetration 3. uncoating 4. biosynthesis 5. assembly  
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Complete virus particles are called ?   virions  
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A capsid is composed of protein units called ?   capsomeres  
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Some viruses have an outer envelope composed of ?   lipids and polysaccharides  
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Unlike living cells, viruses have either __ or __. Living cells have both.   DNA or RNA  
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Unlike living cells, viruses cannot __ on their own.   replicate  
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Living cells replicate by __, __, or __. Viruses don't replicate by any of these methods.   1. binary fission 2. mitosis 3. meiosis  
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Viruses lack the __ and __ needed for energy production.   genes and enzymes  
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Viruses depend on these 3 parts of the host cell for protein and nucleic acid production.   1. ribosomes 2. enzymes 3. metabolites  
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Viruses are classified in several ways, including the type of __ material they possess.   genetic (DNA and RNA)  
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Viruses are classified in several ways, including the __ and __ of the capsid.   shape and size  
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Viruses are classified in several ways. One of which is the number of __ they possess.   capsomeres  
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Viruses are classified in several ways, such as the presence or absence of an ?   envelope  
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Viruses are classified in several ways, such as the type of host they __.   infect  
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Viruses are classified in several ways, including the type of __ thye produce in their hosts.   diseases  
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Viruses are classified in several ways, including the type of cells they __.   target  
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Viruses are classified in several ways, such as their immunologic or __ properties.   antigenic  
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Name the 4 classes of viruses when classified by their genetic material.   1. Double-stranded DNA 2. Single-stranded DNA 3. Double-stranded RNA 4. Single-stranded RNA  
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Viruses escape from their host cells by __ of the cell or by a process called __.   lysis, budding  
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What kind of viruses become enveloped viruses?   Those that escape their host cell by budding  
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What do you call a virus infection where the virus has hidden itself from the host's immune system?   latent viruses  
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Name one group of viruses that can be latent viruses.   Herpes  
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Do all viruses go away once the symptoms have dissipated?   No  
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What does CPE stand for?   cytopathic effect  
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Cell cultures must be examined __ to determine their cytopathic effect.   microscopically  
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Name 3 methods of detecting virus antigens.   1. fluorescence 2. EIA 3. latex  
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Can antibodies to viruses also be detected?   Yes  
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Name 3 types of molecular diagnostics that can be used to detect viruses.   1. nucleic acid probe 2. PCR 3. real time PCR  
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DNA __ is one way of detecting a virus.   microarray  
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Name 2 other departments in a medical facility involved in detecting viruses.   1. histology 2. cytology  
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Antibiotics are (effective or ineffective?) on viruses.   ineffective  
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Antiviral agents can interfere with virus-specific __ and virus __.   enzymes, production  
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Antivirals can disrupt critical phases in viral __.   multiplication  
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Antivirals can inhibit synthesis of viral __, __, or __. (HINT: genetics)   DNA, RNA, proteins  
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Which 2 antivirals affect a virus' ability to penetrate/uncoat?   1. amantadine 2. rimantadine  
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Which 2 antivirals affect a virus' transcription abilities?   1. lamivudine 2. acyclovir  
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Which group of antivirals inhibits viral biosynthesis?   protease inhibitors  
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Which antiviral inhibits a virus at the assembly stage of infection?   Rifampicin  
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Which antivirals affect a virus's ability to release?   1. Zanamivir 2. Oseltamivir  
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Viruses that cause cancer are called ?   oncoviruses  
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Name 3 oncoviruses.   1. Epstien-Barr 2. HPV 3. HTLV-1  
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Herpesviridae viruses have what kind of genetic structure?   DNA double stranded  
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Hepadnaviridae have what kind of genetic structure?   DNA single stranded  
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Poxvidae and Papilamaviridae have what kind of genetic structures?   DNA double stranded  
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Reoviridae viruses have what kind of genetic structure?   RNA double stranded  
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When collecting samples to test for viruses, you should collect them when?   early  
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What kind of swabs should you use when getting samples for viral testing?   Dacron or rayon  
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Why can't you use cotton or calcium alginate swabs for collecting viral samples?   They inhibit replication and NAAT  
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Viral samples should be transported in what 3 types of media?   1. respiratory 2. swabs 3. tissues  
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Do not transport viral samples using these 3 media.   1. blood 2. bone marrow 3. fluids  
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If you cannot test a viral sample for 4 days, you should store the sample at what temperature?   4C  
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If you cannot test a viral sample for more than 4 days, you should store it at what temperature?   -70C  
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3 places to get samples for viral testing from the body are?   1. lesions 2. respiratory secretions 3. stool (GI tract)  
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Cowdry type A bodies from HSV and VZV lesions should be tested using a __ smear.   Tzanck  
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Samples of koilocytosis that come from HPV infections should be examined with what kind of smear?   Papanicolaou  
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What kind of bodies can be found in rabies cases?   Negri (not just the dead kind.) :)  
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DFA (as in a DFA test) stands for ?   Direct Fluorescent Antibody  
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DFA tests are used on what 7 kinds of viruses?   1. flu 2. measles 3. RSV 4. HSV 1 5. HSV 2 6. VZV 7. CMV  
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Serological assays are used to detect __ to viruses.   antibodies  
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What 8 kinds of viruses can be detected using enzyme immunoassays?   1. RSV 2. HIV 3. influenza A 4. influenza B 5. HBV 6. HSV 7. rotavirus 8. WNV  
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Chlamydiacae are generally lacking in an energy __.   metabolism  
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Like viruses, Chlamydiacae are __ __ pathogens.   obligate intracellular  
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Chlamydiacae have a 2 stage life cycle. The infectious form is called ?   elementary bodies  
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Chlamydiacae come in 2 forms, or stages. The noninfectious form is called ?   reticulate bodies  
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During which stage can a Chlamydiacae divert the host cell's metabolism to its needs?   reticulate bodies  
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During which stage can a Chlamydiacae use binary fission to multiply?   reticulate bodies  
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The __ body of a Chlamydiacae is the non-replicating infectious particle that is released when infected cells rupture.   elementary  
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The elementary body of a Chlamydiacae is covered in a rigid ?   cell wall  
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When stained with iodine, reticulate bodies appear as __ in the cell.   inclusions  
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The __ body of a Chlamydiacae is responsible for the bacteria's ability to spread from person to person and is analogous to a spore.   elementary  
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This form of a Chlamydiacae does not have a cell wall.   reticulate  
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After division, the __ body transforms back to the __ form and is released by the cell by exocytosis.   reticulate, elementary  
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MOMP stands for ?   major outer membrane protein  
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Chlamydophylia pneumoniae does not affect children less than __ years of age.   5  
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What percentage of infected people are asymptomatic (or nearly so) who get Chlamydophylia pneumoniae?   90%  
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What age group has the highest incidence of Chlamydophylia pneumoniae?   6-20 year olds  
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What are the symptoms of Chlamydophylia pneumoniae during the first 5-7 days?   sore throat/hoarseness  
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What are the symptoms of Chlamydophylia pneumoniae from days 8-15?   similar to flulike LRT, bronchitis, pneumonia  
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How can the inclusion bodies of Chlamydophylia pneumoniae be detected in the lab?   1. Fluorescent monoclonal antibodies 2. ELISA & micro-IF 3. human lines & HEp2 from respiratory  
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Chlamydophylia psittaci is also known by what 3 names?   1. parrot fever 2. ornithosis 3. Psittacosis  
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Chlamydophylia psittaci is diagnosed using what 2 pieces of information?   1. 4x increase in LPS antigen 2. history of exposure  
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There are (how many?) serovariants of Chlamydophylia trachomatis?   20  
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The #1 cause of preventable blindness in the world is due to ?   Chlamydophylia trachomatis  
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Chlamydophylia trachomatis can be treated with __ and simple __.   antibiotics and simple surgery  
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Diagnosis of Chlamydophylia trachomatis can be done with ?   1. DFA 2. EIA 3. NAAT-PCR  
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Chlamydophylia trachomatis symptoms include ?   1. trachoma (blindness) 2. conjuctivitis 3. GU (genitourinary) infections 4. newborn pneumonia 5. lymphogranuloma venereum  
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Lymphogranuloma venereum is endemic in what 3 continents? There's only about 500 cases in the US every year.   1. Asia 2. Africa 3. South America  
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Lymphogranuloma venereum damages what areas of the body?   genital and rectal  
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What antibiotics are effective against Chamydia infections?   azithrmycin and doxycycline  
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Most Rickettsiaceae are __-borne.   arthropod  
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Can Rickettsiaceae be cultured on medium?   no  
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Rickettsiaceae have __ membranes.   leaky  
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Rickettsiaceae grow in the __ of host cells.   cytoplasm  
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Which kind of Rickettsiaceae DO NOT have arthropods as vectors and reservoirs?   R. prowzekii  
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Symptoms for Rickettsia rickettsii are ?   1. flulike 2. rash on ankles and wrists (none on face) 3. vasculitis in internal organs  
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Rickettsia rickettsii can be treated with ?   tetracycline or chloramphenicol  
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The reservoir for Rickettsia akari is?   house mouse  
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The vector for Rickettsia akari is?   mouse mite  
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The symptoms for Rickettsia akari include?   1. papules 2. flulike 3. rash on face, trunk, extremities  
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A patient with Rickettsia prowazekii and Rickettsia typhi could have what symptoms?   1. fever 2. headache 3. rash on trunk and extremeties (not on face, hands, feet)  
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Rickettsia prowazekii and Rickettsia typhi replicate in the __ and lyse cells to spread.   cytoplasm  
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What is the reservoir for Rickettsia prowazekii?   humans and flying squirrels  
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What is the vector for Rickettsia prowazekii?   human lice and squirrel fleas  
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What is the reservoir for Rickettsia typhi?   rats (even these?? http://jacksgap.com/cute-overload-adorable-rats/)  
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What is the vector for Rickettsia typhi?   rat or cat flea  
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In general, people with Rickettsia won't have a rash on their ?   face, hands, feet  
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The reservoir for Orienta tsutsugamushi is ?   rat  
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The vector for Orienta tsutsugamushi is ?   chigger  
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Black spots, a symptom of Orienta tsutsugamushi, is also known as ?   tache noire  
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Tache noire (black spots) that come from Orienta tsutsugamushi will appear where on the body?   trunk and extremities  
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What is the incubation period for Orienta tsutsugamushi?   2 weeks  
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__ serve as the reservoir and the vector for what microbe?   Anaplasmataceae  
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Anaplasmataceae infect what kind of cells?   WBCs (granulocytes or monocytes)  
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Anaplasmataceae is often misdiagnosed as ?   brain cancer  
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Chronic __ due to Anaplasmataceae infection may lead to leukemia and lymphosarcoma.   ehrlichiosis (disease caused by tick bite)  
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Anaplasmataceae can cause what to happen to your spleen due to dead WBC migration?   splenomegaly  
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How can you treat Anaplasmataceae infections?   tetracycline  
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Anaplasmataceae causes death by ?   1. internal hemorrhage 2. autoimmunity 3. many secondary infections  
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The reservoir for Ehrlicha chaffeensis is ?   dogs and deer  
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The vector for Ehrlicha chaffeensis is ?   the lone star tick  
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The common cold could be caused by a rhinovirus or an __.   adenovirus  
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An adenovirus can cause viral __ through the eyes and respiratory tract.   shedding  
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Types 40 and 41 of adenoviruses cause what kind of issues in children?   GI  
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With adenoviruses, shedding through __ and __ can persist for days after the disease resolved.   stool and urine  
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What are the cytoplasmic effects (CPE) of an adenovirus?   swollen cells in grapelike clusters  
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Unlike HSV1 (herpes type 1 virus), HSV2 primarily causes symptoms in the __ area of the body.   genital  
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Type 3 herpes virus (HHV3) is also called __ virus.   Varicella-zoster  
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The Varicella-zoster causes what disease?   Chickenpox/shingles  
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Unlike HSV2 (herpes type 2 virus), HSV1 primarily causes symptoms in the __ area of the body.   oral  
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The HHV4 (herpes type 4 virus) is known as ?   Epstein-Barr virus  
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What is the disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus called?   infectious mononucleosis  
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The HHV5 (herpes type 5 virus) is known as ?   Cytomegalovirus  
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The Cytomegalovirus causes what disease?   infectious mononucleosis  
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The HHV6 (herpes type 6 virus) is known as ?   roseola or 6th disease  
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The HHV7 (herpes type 7 virus) is known as ?   roseola (just like HHV6)  
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The HHV8 (herpes type 8 virus) is known as ?   Kapos sarcoma-associated herpes virus  
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What kind of viruses can cause infectious mononucleosis?   Cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus  
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Encephalitis is most commonly associated with ?   HSV/herpes virus  
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The HSV1/HHV1 virus is more commonly called ?   herpes simplex 1  
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The HSV2/HHV2 virus is more commonly called ?   herpes simplex 2  
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What are the 4 symptoms of HSV1/oral herpes?   1. burning 2. itching 3. tingling 4. pain  
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What are the 4 areas of the body where symptoms of HSV2/genital herpes will present?   1. female mucosa 2. glans 3. shaft and prepuce of penis 4. urethra of men and women  
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Herpes is both a primary disease and a __ disease.   secondary  
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Herpes Simplex virus 1 and 2 are often spread by contact with __ and by __ __?   lesions and droplet inhalation  
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The Varicella Zoster virus is better known as ?   chickenpox/shingles  
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Varicella Zoster virus (chickenpox) cases what symptoms?   Rash and lesions that start on the head and trunk and spread to the limbs.  
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Cytopathic effects occur with chickenpox/Varicella Zoster virus infections happen within ?   3-7 days  
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How do you test for chickenpox/Varicella Zoster virus?   Tzanck smear  
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What will you see on a Tzanck smear taken from a vesicular lesion from someone infected with Varicella Zoster virus?   Giant multinucleated cells  
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Herpes Zoster affects what organs?   Intercostal and cranial nerves  
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Herpes Zoster presents in what way?   unilaterally  
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The Herpes Zoster can cause postherpetic __.   neuralgia (postherpetic neuralgia PHN)  
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How long does postherpetic neuralgia last?   months or years  
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Epstein-Barr virus has an incubation period that is how long?   2 weeks to 2 months  
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As an oncovirus, name 3 possible consequences of being infected by Epstein-Barr.   1. Burkitts lymphoma 2. Hodgkin disease 3. nasopharyngeal carcinoma  
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What is the name of the most common congenital infection in US?   Cytomegalovirus  
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A Cytomegalovirus infection can be life-threatening if the host is ?   immunocompromised  
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Roseolavirus (HHV6 and HHV7) can cause acute ?   mild febrile infection  
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What happens after the fever that comes from the Roseolavirus has passed?   maculopapular rash  
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Which of the herpes viruses affects both humans and primates?   Kaposi Sarcoma-Associated Herpes (HHV8)  
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Kaposi Sarcoma-Associated Herpes is a sign that you may have what condition?   AIDS  
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Kaposi Sarcoma-Associated Herpes is spread throughout North America and Europe by what means?   sexual contact  
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The Human Papilloma virus causes ?   warts and koilocytes  
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Poxviruses are __ shaped.   brick  
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Some Poxviruses are naked, while others are ?   enveloped  
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Name 3 kinds of Poxviruses.   1. Variola virus (smallpox) 2. Vaccina virus (cowpox) 3. Monkeypox virus (monkeypox)  
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What is the rarest and weakest of the 3 Poxviruses we have talked about?   Monkeypox virus  
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The Kaposi Sarcoma-Associated Herpes virus causes purple __ patches.   cancer  
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The Variola virus has an incubation period of how many days?   10-17 days  
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What are the symptoms of Variola virus?   1. fever 2. oral lesions 3. macular rash 4. progresses to papular, vesicular, and pustular at the same time.  
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How do you treat Variola virus?   Cidofovir  
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Which viruses can also be oncoviruses (according to the class outline)?   1. Epstein-Barr 2. Kaposi Sarcoma 3. Human Papilloma  
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What is the genetic structure of Herpes viruses?   Double Stranded DNA  
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Plant viruses are called ?   viroids  
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An infectious agent composed of protein in a misfolded form is called ?   prion  
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Obligate intracellular pathogens need what to survive and multiply?   host cells  
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Which group of viruses are most susceptible to inactivation by high temperatures, extreme pH, or chemicals?   enveloped  
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Viral envelopes are of __ origin.   host  
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Viruses acquired a __ membrane as they bud from host cells.   lipid  
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Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites because ?   they must be inside a living cell in order to replicate.  
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For infection to occur, a virus must __ to the cell surface.   absorb or attach  
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Absorption/attachment is specific for certain __, most of which are glycoproteins.   cell receptors  
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The virus attaches to the host cell's receptors by means of ?   adhesion molecules  
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Naked virions can directly penetrate the cell membrane, while enveloped viruses may enter the host cell by __ with the cell membrane.   fusion  
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One way that an enveloped virus may enter a host cell is in a cytoplasmic vacuole. This is called ?   endocytosis  
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Once inside of a cell, the virus loses its protein coat and releases the genome. This is called ?   uncoating  
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When uncoating, most RNA viruses release their genome into the ?   cytoplasm  
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When uncoating, most DNA viruses release their genome into the host ?   nucleus  
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Once the viral genome has been inserted into the host cell during uncoating, the host cell begins to ?   make viral proteins and replicate the viral genome.  
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After uncoating is complete, the next step of viral infection is __ of the virus particle.   assembly or maturation  
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After the assembly phase of viral infection, new virions are released by __ of the cell if the infectious agent is a naked virus.   lysis  
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Another method of release of a virus from a host cell is called __ for enveloped viruses.   budding  
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During budding, part of the plasma membrane surrounds the viral __ and becomes the viral envelope (this applies to enveloped viruses).   capsid  
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Viral shedding is usually greatest during the __ stages of infection, making this the best time to collect a specimen.   early  
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The sensitivity of viral cultures may decreases rapidly after __ days after the acute onset of symptoms.   3  
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When collecting a viral specimen, tissue samples must be kept ?   moist  
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Ideally, viral specimens should be processed __ by the lab.   immediately  
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Storage of viral specimens at __ degrees Celsius could cause ice crystals to form, which disrupts host cells and kills off many of the virions.   -20C  
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Characteristic visual changes in infected cell are referred to as ?   cytopathic effect (CPE)  
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Adenovirus is shed in secretions from the __ and __ __.   eyes and respiratory tract  
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Adenovirus shedding can occur in __ and __ for days after the disease has disappeared.   stool and urine  
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What causes infectious mononucleosis?   Epstein-Barr and Cytomegalovirus.  
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What causes genital warts?   Human Papilloma virus (HPV)  
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What do Chlamydia trachomatis serovariants A-C cause?   Trachoma (a characteristic roughening of the inner surface of the eyelids. Also called granular conjunctivitis.)  
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What is the #1 cause of blindness in the world?   Chlamydia trachomatis A-c  
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What 3 things do Chlamydia trachomatis serovariants D-K cause?   1. conjuctivitis 2. genito-urinary infections 3. newborn pneumonia  
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What do Chlamydia trachomatis serovariants L cause?   Lymphogranuloma venereum  
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What causes parrot fever?   Psittacosis from birds  
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Encephalitis is most commonly associated with which virus?   Herpes virus  
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RSV (respiratory syncytial virus) causes what kind of infection?   lower respiratory  
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What group of people are most vulnerable to RSV?   children  
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How can RSV be detected?   A test performed on sample obtained by nasopharyngeal swab  
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Colds are most commonly associated with ?   Rhinovirus (#1) and adenoviruses (#2)  
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What is the CPE for Chlamydia?   McKoy cells  
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Chlamydia can cause __—a discharge of pus from the eyes.   newborn conjunctivitis  
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Chlamydia can cause newborn conjuctivitis or ?   neonatal meningitis  
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The vector for Rickettsia is a __   such as a __.  
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A capsid is made from ?   capsomeres  
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Traditionally   chlamydial infection has been diagnosed by detection of chlamydial __ in tissue culture cells.  
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Chlamydia can be diagnosed by making up a cell ?   culture  
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The primary cause of Ricketts is ?   Vitamin D deficiency  
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Rickettsial fever or disease (Typhoid) is caused by ?   Rickettsia bacteria  
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Ehrlichia spp. and Anaplasma phagocytophilum are __ pathogens.   intraleukocytic  
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Name 3 sources of contamination of cell cultures.   Mycoplasma  
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Ehrlichia spp. live inside of what type of WBC?   macrophages  
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Anaplasma phagocytophilum live inside what type of WBC?   granulocytes  
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Ehrlichia spp. and Anaplasma phagocytophilum can be diagnosed by what 5 means?   1. microscopic identification of morulae in WBCs 2. serology 3. Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) 4. ELISA 5. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) of whole blood  
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Name the 7 oncoviruses.   Human papilloma virus (HPV) Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV or HHV-8) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV or HHV-4) Merkel cell polyomavirus Human cytomegalovirus (CMV or HHV-5) Hepatitis C virus (RNA) Human T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV-1) (RNA)  
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What virus has leaky membranes?   influenza  
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What disease is caused by Varicella-Zoster virus?   chickenpox/shingles  
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What disease is caused by Rickettsia typhi?   Endemic typhus  
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What disease is caused by influenza A and B?   flu  
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What disease is caused by Hepatitis A virus?   Food borne hepatitis  
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What disease is caused by Sin Nombre virus?   Hanta Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)  
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What disease is caused by the Rubeola virus?   Measeles  
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What disease is caused by Chlamydophila psittaci?   Psittacosis  
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What disease is caused by Rickettsial akari?   Rickettsialpox  
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What disease is caused by Orienta tsutsugamushi?   Scrub typhus  
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Variola major and Variola minor cause what disease?   Smallpox  
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How is chickenpox transmitted?   1. droplet inhalation 2. direct contact with lesions  
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What causes chickenpox and shingles?   Varicellovirus  
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What causes Endemic typhus?   Rickettsia typhi  
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What causes the flu?   influenza A and B  
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What causes Food Borne hepatitis?   Hepatitis A virus  
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What causes Hanta Pulmonary Syndrome?   Sin nombre  
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What causes measles?   Rubeola virus  
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What causes Psittacosis?   Chlamydophila psittaci  
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What causes Ricettsialpox?   Rickettsial akari  
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What causes scrub typhus?   Orienta tsutsugamushi  
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What causes smallpox?   Variola major/minor  
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How can the Varicellovirus (which causes chickenpox) be spread?   1. droplet inhalation 2. direct contact with lesions  
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How can Rickettsia typhi (which causes Endemic typhus) be spread?   direct contact with fleas  
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How can Influenza A and B (which cause the flu) be spread?   1. droplet inhalation 2. direct contact 3. indirect contact  
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How can Hepatitis A virus (which causes food borne hepatitis) be spread?   1. fecal oral 2. sex 3. waterborne 4. direct contact 5. indirect contact  
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How can Sin Nombre (which causes Hanta Pulmonary Syndrome) be spread?   1. direct contact with mice 2. indirect contact 3. inhalation  
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How can Rubeola virus (which causes Measles) be spread?   air droplet inhalation  
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How can Chlamydiophila psittaci (which causes Psittacosis) be spread?   droplet inhalation  
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How can Rickettsial akari (which causes Rickettsialpox) be spread?   direct contact with mice mites  
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How can Orienta tsutsugamushi (which causes scrub typhus) be spread?   direct contact with chiggers  
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How can Variola major/minor (which cause smallpox) be spread?   1. droplet inhalation 2. direct contact  
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The flu, food borne hepatitis, Hanta Pulmonary Syndrome, and measles all have what kind of genetic structure?   food borne hepatitis  
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Smallpox and Chickenpox both have what kind of genetic structure?   DD-DNA  
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Created by: IsaacJ
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