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Virus Practice test

Practice test for Micro1 on viruses for DelTech Owens campus

The first step of viral multiplication is ? attachment
The 2nd step of viral multiplication is ? penetration
The 3rd step of viral multiplication is ? uncoating
The 4th step of viral multiplication is ? biosynthesis
The 5th step of viral multiplication is ? assembly
When a virus enters a cell and uses its surface proteins to bind to the host cell's receptors, this is called ? attachment
After attachment, the virus penetrates the host cell by injecting its __ receptors. DNA
Before viral multiplication can begin, the __ must be removed. This is called uncoating. capsid/protein coat
What are the 5 steps of viral multiplication? 1. attachment 2. penetration 3. uncoating 4. biosynthesis 5. assembly
Complete virus particles are called ? virions
A capsid is composed of protein units called ? capsomeres
Some viruses have an outer envelope composed of ? lipids and polysaccharides
Unlike living cells, viruses have either __ or __. Living cells have both. DNA or RNA
Unlike living cells, viruses cannot __ on their own. replicate
Living cells replicate by __, __, or __. Viruses don't replicate by any of these methods. 1. binary fission 2. mitosis 3. meiosis
Viruses lack the __ and __ needed for energy production. genes and enzymes
Viruses depend on these 3 parts of the host cell for protein and nucleic acid production. 1. ribosomes 2. enzymes 3. metabolites
Viruses are classified in several ways, including the type of __ material they possess. genetic (DNA and RNA)
Viruses are classified in several ways, including the __ and __ of the capsid. shape and size
Viruses are classified in several ways. One of which is the number of __ they possess. capsomeres
Viruses are classified in several ways, such as the presence or absence of an ? envelope
Viruses are classified in several ways, such as the type of host they __. infect
Viruses are classified in several ways, including the type of __ thye produce in their hosts. diseases
Viruses are classified in several ways, including the type of cells they __. target
Viruses are classified in several ways, such as their immunologic or __ properties. antigenic
Name the 4 classes of viruses when classified by their genetic material. 1. Double-stranded DNA 2. Single-stranded DNA 3. Double-stranded RNA 4. Single-stranded RNA
Viruses escape from their host cells by __ of the cell or by a process called __. lysis, budding
What kind of viruses become enveloped viruses? Those that escape their host cell by budding
What do you call a virus infection where the virus has hidden itself from the host's immune system? latent viruses
Name one group of viruses that can be latent viruses. Herpes
Do all viruses go away once the symptoms have dissipated? No
What does CPE stand for? cytopathic effect
Cell cultures must be examined __ to determine their cytopathic effect. microscopically
Name 3 methods of detecting virus antigens. 1. fluorescence 2. EIA 3. latex
Can antibodies to viruses also be detected? Yes
Name 3 types of molecular diagnostics that can be used to detect viruses. 1. nucleic acid probe 2. PCR 3. real time PCR
DNA __ is one way of detecting a virus. microarray
Name 2 other departments in a medical facility involved in detecting viruses. 1. histology 2. cytology
Antibiotics are (effective or ineffective?) on viruses. ineffective
Antiviral agents can interfere with virus-specific __ and virus __. enzymes, production
Antivirals can disrupt critical phases in viral __. multiplication
Antivirals can inhibit synthesis of viral __, __, or __. (HINT: genetics) DNA, RNA, proteins
Which 2 antivirals affect a virus' ability to penetrate/uncoat? 1. amantadine 2. rimantadine
Which 2 antivirals affect a virus' transcription abilities? 1. lamivudine 2. acyclovir
Which group of antivirals inhibits viral biosynthesis? protease inhibitors
Which antiviral inhibits a virus at the assembly stage of infection? Rifampicin
Which antivirals affect a virus's ability to release? 1. Zanamivir 2. Oseltamivir
Viruses that cause cancer are called ? oncoviruses
Name 3 oncoviruses. 1. Epstien-Barr 2. HPV 3. HTLV-1
Herpesviridae viruses have what kind of genetic structure? DNA double stranded
Hepadnaviridae have what kind of genetic structure? DNA single stranded
Poxvidae and Papilamaviridae have what kind of genetic structures? DNA double stranded
Reoviridae viruses have what kind of genetic structure? RNA double stranded
When collecting samples to test for viruses, you should collect them when? early
What kind of swabs should you use when getting samples for viral testing? Dacron or rayon
Why can't you use cotton or calcium alginate swabs for collecting viral samples? They inhibit replication and NAAT
Viral samples should be transported in what 3 types of media? 1. respiratory 2. swabs 3. tissues
Do not transport viral samples using these 3 media. 1. blood 2. bone marrow 3. fluids
If you cannot test a viral sample for 4 days, you should store the sample at what temperature? 4C
If you cannot test a viral sample for more than 4 days, you should store it at what temperature? -70C
3 places to get samples for viral testing from the body are? 1. lesions 2. respiratory secretions 3. stool (GI tract)
Cowdry type A bodies from HSV and VZV lesions should be tested using a __ smear. Tzanck
Samples of koilocytosis that come from HPV infections should be examined with what kind of smear? Papanicolaou
What kind of bodies can be found in rabies cases? Negri (not just the dead kind.) :)
DFA (as in a DFA test) stands for ? Direct Fluorescent Antibody
DFA tests are used on what 7 kinds of viruses? 1. flu 2. measles 3. RSV 4. HSV 1 5. HSV 2 6. VZV 7. CMV
Serological assays are used to detect __ to viruses. antibodies
What 8 kinds of viruses can be detected using enzyme immunoassays? 1. RSV 2. HIV 3. influenza A 4. influenza B 5. HBV 6. HSV 7. rotavirus 8. WNV
Chlamydiacae are generally lacking in an energy __. metabolism
Like viruses, Chlamydiacae are __ __ pathogens. obligate intracellular
Chlamydiacae have a 2 stage life cycle. The infectious form is called ? elementary bodies
Chlamydiacae come in 2 forms, or stages. The noninfectious form is called ? reticulate bodies
During which stage can a Chlamydiacae divert the host cell's metabolism to its needs? reticulate bodies
During which stage can a Chlamydiacae use binary fission to multiply? reticulate bodies
The __ body of a Chlamydiacae is the non-replicating infectious particle that is released when infected cells rupture. elementary
The elementary body of a Chlamydiacae is covered in a rigid ? cell wall
When stained with iodine, reticulate bodies appear as __ in the cell. inclusions
The __ body of a Chlamydiacae is responsible for the bacteria's ability to spread from person to person and is analogous to a spore. elementary
This form of a Chlamydiacae does not have a cell wall. reticulate
After division, the __ body transforms back to the __ form and is released by the cell by exocytosis. reticulate, elementary
MOMP stands for ? major outer membrane protein
Chlamydophylia pneumoniae does not affect children less than __ years of age. 5
What percentage of infected people are asymptomatic (or nearly so) who get Chlamydophylia pneumoniae? 90%
What age group has the highest incidence of Chlamydophylia pneumoniae? 6-20 year olds
What are the symptoms of Chlamydophylia pneumoniae during the first 5-7 days? sore throat/hoarseness
What are the symptoms of Chlamydophylia pneumoniae from days 8-15? similar to flulike LRT, bronchitis, pneumonia
How can the inclusion bodies of Chlamydophylia pneumoniae be detected in the lab? 1. Fluorescent monoclonal antibodies 2. ELISA & micro-IF 3. human lines & HEp2 from respiratory
Chlamydophylia psittaci is also known by what 3 names? 1. parrot fever 2. ornithosis 3. Psittacosis
Chlamydophylia psittaci is diagnosed using what 2 pieces of information? 1. 4x increase in LPS antigen 2. history of exposure
There are (how many?) serovariants of Chlamydophylia trachomatis? 20
The #1 cause of preventable blindness in the world is due to ? Chlamydophylia trachomatis
Chlamydophylia trachomatis can be treated with __ and simple __. antibiotics and simple surgery
Diagnosis of Chlamydophylia trachomatis can be done with ? 1. DFA 2. EIA 3. NAAT-PCR
Chlamydophylia trachomatis symptoms include ? 1. trachoma (blindness) 2. conjuctivitis 3. GU (genitourinary) infections 4. newborn pneumonia 5. lymphogranuloma venereum
Lymphogranuloma venereum is endemic in what 3 continents? There's only about 500 cases in the US every year. 1. Asia 2. Africa 3. South America
Lymphogranuloma venereum damages what areas of the body? genital and rectal
What antibiotics are effective against Chamydia infections? azithrmycin and doxycycline
Most Rickettsiaceae are __-borne. arthropod
Can Rickettsiaceae be cultured on medium? no
Rickettsiaceae have __ membranes. leaky
Rickettsiaceae grow in the __ of host cells. cytoplasm
Which kind of Rickettsiaceae DO NOT have arthropods as vectors and reservoirs? R. prowzekii
Symptoms for Rickettsia rickettsii are ? 1. flulike 2. rash on ankles and wrists (none on face) 3. vasculitis in internal organs
Rickettsia rickettsii can be treated with ? tetracycline or chloramphenicol
The reservoir for Rickettsia akari is? house mouse
The vector for Rickettsia akari is? mouse mite
The symptoms for Rickettsia akari include? 1. papules 2. flulike 3. rash on face, trunk, extremities
A patient with Rickettsia prowazekii and Rickettsia typhi could have what symptoms? 1. fever 2. headache 3. rash on trunk and extremeties (not on face, hands, feet)
Rickettsia prowazekii and Rickettsia typhi replicate in the __ and lyse cells to spread. cytoplasm
What is the reservoir for Rickettsia prowazekii? humans and flying squirrels
What is the vector for Rickettsia prowazekii? human lice and squirrel fleas
What is the reservoir for Rickettsia typhi? rats (even these?? http://jacksgap.com/cute-overload-adorable-rats/)
What is the vector for Rickettsia typhi? rat or cat flea
In general, people with Rickettsia won't have a rash on their ? face, hands, feet
The reservoir for Orienta tsutsugamushi is ? rat
The vector for Orienta tsutsugamushi is ? chigger
Black spots, a symptom of Orienta tsutsugamushi, is also known as ? tache noire
Tache noire (black spots) that come from Orienta tsutsugamushi will appear where on the body? trunk and extremities
What is the incubation period for Orienta tsutsugamushi? 2 weeks
__ serve as the reservoir and the vector for what microbe? Anaplasmataceae
Anaplasmataceae infect what kind of cells? WBCs (granulocytes or monocytes)
Anaplasmataceae is often misdiagnosed as ? brain cancer
Chronic __ due to Anaplasmataceae infection may lead to leukemia and lymphosarcoma. ehrlichiosis (disease caused by tick bite)
Anaplasmataceae can cause what to happen to your spleen due to dead WBC migration? splenomegaly
How can you treat Anaplasmataceae infections? tetracycline
Anaplasmataceae causes death by ? 1. internal hemorrhage 2. autoimmunity 3. many secondary infections
The reservoir for Ehrlicha chaffeensis is ? dogs and deer
The vector for Ehrlicha chaffeensis is ? the lone star tick
The common cold could be caused by a rhinovirus or an __. adenovirus
An adenovirus can cause viral __ through the eyes and respiratory tract. shedding
Types 40 and 41 of adenoviruses cause what kind of issues in children? GI
With adenoviruses, shedding through __ and __ can persist for days after the disease resolved. stool and urine
What are the cytoplasmic effects (CPE) of an adenovirus? swollen cells in grapelike clusters
Unlike HSV1 (herpes type 1 virus), HSV2 primarily causes symptoms in the __ area of the body. genital
Type 3 herpes virus (HHV3) is also called __ virus. Varicella-zoster
The Varicella-zoster causes what disease? Chickenpox/shingles
Unlike HSV2 (herpes type 2 virus), HSV1 primarily causes symptoms in the __ area of the body. oral
The HHV4 (herpes type 4 virus) is known as ? Epstein-Barr virus
What is the disease caused by the Epstein-Barr virus called? infectious mononucleosis
The HHV5 (herpes type 5 virus) is known as ? Cytomegalovirus
The Cytomegalovirus causes what disease? infectious mononucleosis
The HHV6 (herpes type 6 virus) is known as ? roseola or 6th disease
The HHV7 (herpes type 7 virus) is known as ? roseola (just like HHV6)
The HHV8 (herpes type 8 virus) is known as ? Kapos sarcoma-associated herpes virus
What kind of viruses can cause infectious mononucleosis? Cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus
Encephalitis is most commonly associated with ? HSV/herpes virus
The HSV1/HHV1 virus is more commonly called ? herpes simplex 1
The HSV2/HHV2 virus is more commonly called ? herpes simplex 2
What are the 4 symptoms of HSV1/oral herpes? 1. burning 2. itching 3. tingling 4. pain
What are the 4 areas of the body where symptoms of HSV2/genital herpes will present? 1. female mucosa 2. glans 3. shaft and prepuce of penis 4. urethra of men and women
Herpes is both a primary disease and a __ disease. secondary
Herpes Simplex virus 1 and 2 are often spread by contact with __ and by __ __? lesions and droplet inhalation
The Varicella Zoster virus is better known as ? chickenpox/shingles
Varicella Zoster virus (chickenpox) cases what symptoms? Rash and lesions that start on the head and trunk and spread to the limbs.
Cytopathic effects occur with chickenpox/Varicella Zoster virus infections happen within ? 3-7 days
How do you test for chickenpox/Varicella Zoster virus? Tzanck smear
What will you see on a Tzanck smear taken from a vesicular lesion from someone infected with Varicella Zoster virus? Giant multinucleated cells
Herpes Zoster affects what organs? Intercostal and cranial nerves
Herpes Zoster presents in what way? unilaterally
The Herpes Zoster can cause postherpetic __. neuralgia (postherpetic neuralgia PHN)
How long does postherpetic neuralgia last? months or years
Epstein-Barr virus has an incubation period that is how long? 2 weeks to 2 months
As an oncovirus, name 3 possible consequences of being infected by Epstein-Barr. 1. Burkitts lymphoma 2. Hodgkin disease 3. nasopharyngeal carcinoma
What is the name of the most common congenital infection in US? Cytomegalovirus
A Cytomegalovirus infection can be life-threatening if the host is ? immunocompromised
Roseolavirus (HHV6 and HHV7) can cause acute ? mild febrile infection
What happens after the fever that comes from the Roseolavirus has passed? maculopapular rash
Which of the herpes viruses affects both humans and primates? Kaposi Sarcoma-Associated Herpes (HHV8)
Kaposi Sarcoma-Associated Herpes is a sign that you may have what condition? AIDS
Kaposi Sarcoma-Associated Herpes is spread throughout North America and Europe by what means? sexual contact
The Human Papilloma virus causes ? warts and koilocytes
Poxviruses are __ shaped. brick
Some Poxviruses are naked, while others are ? enveloped
Name 3 kinds of Poxviruses. 1. Variola virus (smallpox) 2. Vaccina virus (cowpox) 3. Monkeypox virus (monkeypox)
What is the rarest and weakest of the 3 Poxviruses we have talked about? Monkeypox virus
The Kaposi Sarcoma-Associated Herpes virus causes purple __ patches. cancer
The Variola virus has an incubation period of how many days? 10-17 days
What are the symptoms of Variola virus? 1. fever 2. oral lesions 3. macular rash 4. progresses to papular, vesicular, and pustular at the same time.
How do you treat Variola virus? Cidofovir
Which viruses can also be oncoviruses (according to the class outline)? 1. Epstein-Barr 2. Kaposi Sarcoma 3. Human Papilloma
What is the genetic structure of Herpes viruses? Double Stranded DNA
Plant viruses are called ? viroids
An infectious agent composed of protein in a misfolded form is called ? prion
Obligate intracellular pathogens need what to survive and multiply? host cells
Which group of viruses are most susceptible to inactivation by high temperatures, extreme pH, or chemicals? enveloped
Viral envelopes are of __ origin. host
Viruses acquired a __ membrane as they bud from host cells. lipid
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites because ? they must be inside a living cell in order to replicate.
For infection to occur, a virus must __ to the cell surface. absorb or attach
Absorption/attachment is specific for certain __, most of which are glycoproteins. cell receptors
The virus attaches to the host cell's receptors by means of ? adhesion molecules
Naked virions can directly penetrate the cell membrane, while enveloped viruses may enter the host cell by __ with the cell membrane. fusion
One way that an enveloped virus may enter a host cell is in a cytoplasmic vacuole. This is called ? endocytosis
Once inside of a cell, the virus loses its protein coat and releases the genome. This is called ? uncoating
When uncoating, most RNA viruses release their genome into the ? cytoplasm
When uncoating, most DNA viruses release their genome into the host ? nucleus
Once the viral genome has been inserted into the host cell during uncoating, the host cell begins to ? make viral proteins and replicate the viral genome.
After uncoating is complete, the next step of viral infection is __ of the virus particle. assembly or maturation
After the assembly phase of viral infection, new virions are released by __ of the cell if the infectious agent is a naked virus. lysis
Another method of release of a virus from a host cell is called __ for enveloped viruses. budding
During budding, part of the plasma membrane surrounds the viral __ and becomes the viral envelope (this applies to enveloped viruses). capsid
Viral shedding is usually greatest during the __ stages of infection, making this the best time to collect a specimen. early
The sensitivity of viral cultures may decreases rapidly after __ days after the acute onset of symptoms. 3
When collecting a viral specimen, tissue samples must be kept ? moist
Ideally, viral specimens should be processed __ by the lab. immediately
Storage of viral specimens at __ degrees Celsius could cause ice crystals to form, which disrupts host cells and kills off many of the virions. -20C
Characteristic visual changes in infected cell are referred to as ? cytopathic effect (CPE)
Adenovirus is shed in secretions from the __ and __ __. eyes and respiratory tract
Adenovirus shedding can occur in __ and __ for days after the disease has disappeared. stool and urine
What causes infectious mononucleosis? Epstein-Barr and Cytomegalovirus.
What causes genital warts? Human Papilloma virus (HPV)
What do Chlamydia trachomatis serovariants A-C cause? Trachoma (a characteristic roughening of the inner surface of the eyelids. Also called granular conjunctivitis.)
What is the #1 cause of blindness in the world? Chlamydia trachomatis A-c
What 3 things do Chlamydia trachomatis serovariants D-K cause? 1. conjuctivitis 2. genito-urinary infections 3. newborn pneumonia
What do Chlamydia trachomatis serovariants L cause? Lymphogranuloma venereum
What causes parrot fever? Psittacosis from birds
Encephalitis is most commonly associated with which virus? Herpes virus
RSV (respiratory syncytial virus) causes what kind of infection? lower respiratory
What group of people are most vulnerable to RSV? children
How can RSV be detected? A test performed on sample obtained by nasopharyngeal swab
Colds are most commonly associated with ? Rhinovirus (#1) and adenoviruses (#2)
What is the CPE for Chlamydia? McKoy cells
Chlamydia can cause __—a discharge of pus from the eyes. newborn conjunctivitis
Chlamydia can cause newborn conjuctivitis or ? neonatal meningitis
The vector for Rickettsia is a __ such as a __.
A capsid is made from ? capsomeres
Traditionally chlamydial infection has been diagnosed by detection of chlamydial __ in tissue culture cells.
Chlamydia can be diagnosed by making up a cell ? culture
The primary cause of Ricketts is ? Vitamin D deficiency
Rickettsial fever or disease (Typhoid) is caused by ? Rickettsia bacteria
Ehrlichia spp. and Anaplasma phagocytophilum are __ pathogens. intraleukocytic
Name 3 sources of contamination of cell cultures. Mycoplasma
Ehrlichia spp. live inside of what type of WBC? macrophages
Anaplasma phagocytophilum live inside what type of WBC? granulocytes
Ehrlichia spp. and Anaplasma phagocytophilum can be diagnosed by what 5 means? 1. microscopic identification of morulae in WBCs 2. serology 3. Indirect fluorescent antibody (IFA) 4. ELISA 5. polymerase chain reaction (PCR) of whole blood
Name the 7 oncoviruses. Human papilloma virus (HPV) Kaposi's sarcoma-associated herpesvirus (KSHV or HHV-8) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV or HHV-4) Merkel cell polyomavirus Human cytomegalovirus (CMV or HHV-5) Hepatitis C virus (RNA) Human T-lymphotropic virus (HTLV-1) (RNA)
What virus has leaky membranes? influenza
What disease is caused by Varicella-Zoster virus? chickenpox/shingles
What disease is caused by Rickettsia typhi? Endemic typhus
What disease is caused by influenza A and B? flu
What disease is caused by Hepatitis A virus? Food borne hepatitis
What disease is caused by Sin Nombre virus? Hanta Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)
What disease is caused by the Rubeola virus? Measeles
What disease is caused by Chlamydophila psittaci? Psittacosis
What disease is caused by Rickettsial akari? Rickettsialpox
What disease is caused by Orienta tsutsugamushi? Scrub typhus
Variola major and Variola minor cause what disease? Smallpox
How is chickenpox transmitted? 1. droplet inhalation 2. direct contact with lesions
What causes chickenpox and shingles? Varicellovirus
What causes Endemic typhus? Rickettsia typhi
What causes the flu? influenza A and B
What causes Food Borne hepatitis? Hepatitis A virus
What causes Hanta Pulmonary Syndrome? Sin nombre
What causes measles? Rubeola virus
What causes Psittacosis? Chlamydophila psittaci
What causes Ricettsialpox? Rickettsial akari
What causes scrub typhus? Orienta tsutsugamushi
What causes smallpox? Variola major/minor
How can the Varicellovirus (which causes chickenpox) be spread? 1. droplet inhalation 2. direct contact with lesions
How can Rickettsia typhi (which causes Endemic typhus) be spread? direct contact with fleas
How can Influenza A and B (which cause the flu) be spread? 1. droplet inhalation 2. direct contact 3. indirect contact
How can Hepatitis A virus (which causes food borne hepatitis) be spread? 1. fecal oral 2. sex 3. waterborne 4. direct contact 5. indirect contact
How can Sin Nombre (which causes Hanta Pulmonary Syndrome) be spread? 1. direct contact with mice 2. indirect contact 3. inhalation
How can Rubeola virus (which causes Measles) be spread? air droplet inhalation
How can Chlamydiophila psittaci (which causes Psittacosis) be spread? droplet inhalation
How can Rickettsial akari (which causes Rickettsialpox) be spread? direct contact with mice mites
How can Orienta tsutsugamushi (which causes scrub typhus) be spread? direct contact with chiggers
How can Variola major/minor (which cause smallpox) be spread? 1. droplet inhalation 2. direct contact
The flu, food borne hepatitis, Hanta Pulmonary Syndrome, and measles all have what kind of genetic structure? food borne hepatitis
Smallpox and Chickenpox both have what kind of genetic structure? DD-DNA
Created by: IsaacJ