Practice for Immunology test 3 at DelTech Owens campus
Quiz yourself by thinking what should be in
each of the black spaces below before clicking
on it to display the answer.
Help!
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| Unlabeled immunoassays rely on the binding sites of BOTH __ and __. | antibody and antigen
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| If the antigen in an unlabeled immunoassay is soluble, the reaction is called ? | precipitation
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| If the antigen in an unlabeled immunoassay is a particulate, the reaction is called ? | agglutination
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| When an antigen and an antibody meet at appropriate concentrations, large __ __ can form. | cross-linked structures
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| Unlabeled immunoassays that rely on precipitation or agglutination have (high or low?) accuracy. | low
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| How can we increase the sensitivity of unlabeled immunoassays? | optics (nephelometry and tubidometry)
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| __ is performed by measuring the turbidity in a sample by passing light through the sample at an angle. | nephelometry
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| __ is performed by measuring the intensity of a beam of light as it passes straight through a sample. | turbidometry
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| What is the difference between nephelometry and turbidometry? | In nephelometry the intensity of the scattered light is measured as leaves the sample at an angle. In turbidimetry, the intensity of light transmitted straight through the sample is measured.
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| The strength of the bond between one FAB region on an antibody with one epitope on an antigen is called ? | affinity
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| The higher the affinity, the higher the amount of the antibody and antigen that will be __ together. | complexed
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| Higher affinity means (high or lower?) sensitivity of the reaction in the test. | higher (because less of the antigen and antibody will be in an UNcomplexed form)
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| The more binding sites between an antigen and an antibody, the higher the ? | avidity
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| Avidity is the number of __ __ times the affinity. | binding sites
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| Steric hindrance can __ avidity. | lower
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| Large complexes are formed when antigens and antibodies meet at a concentration where ? | the number of paratopes approximately equals the number of epitopes
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| When there is too much antibody for precipitation or agglutination to take place during an unlabeled immunoassay, the area between the antibody and the antigen is called a ? | prozone
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| When the ratio between antibody and antigen is just right, the area between them is called the area of ? | equivalence
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| In an area of equivalence, the number of __ approximately equals the number of __. | paratopes equal the number of epitopes
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| When the amount of antibody is too low in an unlabeled immunoassay test, the area between the antibody and the antigen is called the ? | postzone
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| The most visible precipitation would occur in (equivalence, prozone, postzone?) | equivalence
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| You would get no precipitation in a (equivelence, prozone, postzone?) reaction. | postzone
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| You would get little to no precipitation in a (equivalence, prozone, postzone?) reaction. | prozone
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| If no precipitation occurs during an unlabeled immunoassay, this suggests the patient ? | did not have enough of the antibody to create a visible reaction.
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| If a prozone reaction occurs, the patient's serum can be __ and tested again to reach equivalence. | diluted
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| If a postzone reaction occurs, the patient's blood can be drawn again to allow an increase in __ to bring the reaction to the zone of equivalence. | titer
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| In a prozone or postzone reaction during an unlabeled immunoassay test, the patient would be (positive or negative?) for the antigen being tested. | negative
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| Why would you dilute the sample and retest if your first result is prozone in an immunoassay? | Prozone means the patient had too many antibodies to reach equivalence. Dilution corrects this by lowering the concentration of antibodies.
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| What are the advantages of precipitation techniques? | They are very easy.
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| What are the disadvantages of precipitation techniques? | They are the least sensitive serological techniques.
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| Radial immunodiffusion is a (single or double?)-diffusion technique | single-diffusion
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| Quchterlony is a (single or double?) diffusion technique. | double-diffusion
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| Double-diffusion means that both the __ and the __ diffuse through the agarose. | antibody and antigen
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| A precipitin line forms where diffusion brings the relative concentrations of antibody and antigen to ? | equivalence
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| What is the precipitin line formed from? | The lattice structure of the antibody/antigen complexes
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| The Ouchterlony test allows for determination of antigenic relatedness of an unknown __ __ with a known __. | test material with a known antigen
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| What are the 3 possible results of an Ouchterlony test? | 1. identity 2. partial identity 3. nonidentity
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| Is the Ouchterlony test a quantitative or qualitative test procedure? | qualitative
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| During the Ouchterlony test procedure, an increasing amount of __ is added to a constant amount of __ in solution. | antigen, antibody : Use the simulator at http://jeeves.mmg.uci.edu/immunology/Ouchterlony/ouchterlony.html
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| The Ouchterlony test compares the __ of the antigens. | relatedness
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| When the 2 different antigen preparations contain the same antigen in an Ouchterlony test, a line of __ will form. | identity
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| The arc shape of the identity line in the Ouchterlony test is the result of ? | the circular spread of the diffusing molecules from each well and the reagents reaching each other at equilibrium, forming an arc.
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| In an Ouchterlony test, if the precipitin line curves downward (like a frown) this forms a line of ? | identity
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| In an Ouchterlony test, if the precipitin lines cross each other (like an X) this forms a line of ? | nonidentity
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| In an Ouchterlony test, if one of the precipitin lines is longer than the other, this forms a line of ? | partial identity See more at http://amrita.vlab.co.in/?sub=3&brch=70&sim=689&cnt=1
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| A line of partial identity in an Ouchterlony test means that one of the molecules has an additional __ so that a spur has formed on the precipitin line. | epitope
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| Relative concentrations of antigens can be determined in a (double or single?)-gel precipition test. | double
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| The further the precipitin line is from the well where the antigens and antibodies have been placed in a double diffusion test, the __ the concentration of either reagent. | lower
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| Radial immunodiffusion is a (quantitative or qualitative?) immunoprecipitation technique? | quantitative
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| Radial immunodiffusion is a (single or double?) immunodiffusion technique. | single
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| In a double diffusion test, the antigen with the higher concentration would form a precipitin line that is (closer to or further from?) the antibody well. | closer to
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| During radial immunodiffusion, (different or the same?) concentrations of the antigen diffuse into the gel. | different
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| The __ of the precipitin line is related to the concentration of the antigen. | diameter
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| How many concentrations of the antigen are used to produce a standard curve in Radial immunodiffusion? | 3
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| What are the 2 methods for quantitating the results of Radial immunodiffusion? | Fahey and Mancini
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| What 4 levels does Radial immunodiffusion measure? | 1. IgG 2. IgM 3. IgA 4. complement
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| Which method of optical analysis measures the amount of light that is lost when it has been shined directly through a solution? | turbidometry
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| Which method of optical analysis measures the scattered light that has been shined through a solution at an angle? (10-90 degrees) | nephalometry
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| Which method of optical analysis is more sensitive: turbidometry or nephalometry? | nephalometry
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| Which 6 immunoglobulin concentrations are measured using nephalometry? | 1. IgG 2. IgM 3. IgA 4. IgE 5. kappa light 6. lambda light
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| Agglutination is (more or less?) sensitive than precipitation? | more
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| Why is agglutination a more sensitive test than those employing precipitation techniques? | the larger antigen particles enhance visualization
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| The coating of red blood cells or inserting of latex beads with soluble antigens is part of a process known as ? | passive agglutination
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| Agglutination testing is done with 2 particles that have an electric charge and that naturally (attract or repulse?) one another. | repulse
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| What pulls the particles together during an agglutination test? | antibodies
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| During an agglutination reaction, the stronger the force of the antibody that brings the particles together, the stronger they try to electrically __ one another. | repel
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| Which antibody works better in agglutination tests? IgM or IgG? | IgM
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| Which antibody has binding sites with the widest reach? | IgM
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| Why is the pH of the particles in an agglutination reaction important? | pH affects the amount of charge
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| If the charge of an agglutination test decreases, the apparent titer ? | increases
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| What affect would the use of low ionic strength media have on an agglutination test? | It would improve the binding of the charged particles because the repelling forces would be reduced.
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| Using a media with increased viscosity would have what affect on an agglutination test? | It would improve the binding of the charged particles.
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| What temperature is best when running an agglutination test using IgM? | 37 Celsius
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| What temperature is best when running an agglutination test using IgG? | between 4 and 27 Celsius
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| One way to stengthen the binding of charged particles during an agglutination test is to treat red cells with __ to decrease surface charge. | enzymes
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| Agitation or centrifugation of the charged particles __ the interaction of the particles during an agglutination test. | increases
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| Some IgG agglutination tests may __ because the electrical repulsion of the particles is too great. | fail
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| What 3 methods can be used to improve the binding of charged particles during an agglutination test? | 1. use LISS (low ionic strength media) 2. use media with higher viscosity 3. control temperature (IgM best temp 4-27 C)(IgG best temp is 37 C)
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| How can you overcome a failure of an agglutination test due to the repulsive forces being too strong for the antibodies to overcome? | Add antihuman antibodies (an antibody to the antibody that is already present)
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| By adding an antihuman antibody to an agglutination test, you are __ the reach of the IgG antibodies. | increasing
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| When an antihuman antibody is added to an agglutination test, it binds to __, forming a larger chain. | IgG
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| Which kind of antibody is most likely to fail to overcome the repulsive forces at play during an agglutination test? | IgG (add antihuman antibody to fix this)
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| What are the 5 kinds of agglutination tests? | 1. direct 2. passive 3. reverse passive 4. hemagglutination 5. agglutination inhibition assay
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| What do you call it when the antigen is not normally part of the particle during an agglutination test? | passive agglutination
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| What do you call it when the antigen is naturally part of the particle during an agglutination test? | active agglutination
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| Agglutination tests using red blood cells are called ? | hemagglutination tests
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| When the antibody is attached to the particle during an agglutination test and not to the antigen, this is called ? | reverse passive agglutination
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| What kind of test checks for the presence of A,B, or C antibodies on a person's RBCs? | Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
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| Which kind of test checks for the presence of an antibody in a patient or for blood group AGS on a patient's cells? | Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)
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| A competition between kit-supplied particle antigens and patient antigens for the supplied antibody is used during a ? | agglutination inhibition assay
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| How can the sensitivity of precipitation and agglutination assays be increased? | With 1. nephalometry 2. turbidometry
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| What is the PETINA method used for? | Therapeutic drug monitoring
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| What is therapeutic drug monitoring used for? | To determine serum concentrations achieved with administration of a therapeutic drug.
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| What does PETINA stand for? | particle-enhanced turbidometric inhibition assay
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| The drug that comes with a PETINA kit inhibits __ of the particles by the antibody. | cross-linking
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| The drug in a PETINA kit increases the __ of the solution once the particles have been added. | turbidity
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| What does PACIA stand for? | particle-counting immunoassay
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| What does PACIA measure? | residual nonagglutinating particles after an agglutination reaction
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| Unlabeled immunoassays can be used when the concentrations of the reactants are high enough to be ? | seen
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| Any immunoassay that involves physical separation of antibody-bound antigens from the remaining free antigens is called ? | Heterogeneous
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| Any immunoassay that does not involve physical separation of antibody-bound antigen from antigen molecules that remain free is called ? | Homogeneous
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| A radioimmunoassay is a homogenous or heterogeneous assay? | Heterogeneous
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| ELISA stands for ? | enzyme linked immunosorbant assays
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| FIA stands for ? | Fluorescent immunoassay
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| A radioactive isotope used as a tracer is called a ? | radiolabel
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| Name 3 types of labeled immunoassays. | 1. chemiluminescent labels 2. colloid particles 3. optical immunoassays
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| What kind of labeled immunoassays are detected in gamma or liquid scintillation counters? | radiolabel
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| Enzyme labels can be detected by the conversion of a substrate by the enzyme. This will produce what 4 things? | 1. color change 2. fluorescent compound 3. flash of light 4. change in optical reflection
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| Enzyme labels that produce a color change are measured how? | spectrophotometrically
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| Fluorescent compounds that are used as enzyme labels are measured ? | fluorimetrically
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| Chemiluminescence of certain enzyme labels are measured with a ? | luminometer or photomultiplier tube
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| Changes in optical reflection in optical immunoassays that use enzyme labels are measured with ? | the eye
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| What type of immunoassay uses large colored colloid particles attached to the antibody or antigen in a way that does not cause steric hindrance? | colloid immunoassay
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| Colloid immunoassays are useful in __ __ __ testing. | point of care
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| Colloid immunoassays are useful in __ test kits. | pregnancy
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| Colloid immunoassays are detected by the __ after separation in a process called immunochromatography. | eye
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| Colloid immunoassays do not require __, which makes them useful for point of care testing and means they can be seen by the naked eye. | instrumentation
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| Heterogeneous immunoassays involve a __ of bound from free. | separation
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| Homogeneous immunoassays (do or do not?) require a separation of bound from free? | do not
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| The __ __ complex can be directly detected using a heterogenous assay. | antigen antibody
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| A 2nd __ antibody can be utilized in a heterogeneous assay. | anti-immunoglobulin
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| The antigen or antibody can be captured by a __ to a solid-phase and detected by a 2nd molecule during a heterogenous assay. | capture-molecule
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| An inhibition step can be performed where labeled and unlabeled reactants __ during a heterogeneous assay. | compete
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| Which kind of heterogenous assay uses labeled antibody binding to an antigen OR a labeled antigen binding to an antibody? | direct immunoassay
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| Which kind of heterogenous assay uses an unlabeled antigen, unlabeled antibody, and a labeled immunoglobulin? | indirect immunoassay
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| An indirect immunoassay detects the reaction of the initial __ and __ complex. | antibody and antigen
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| What are direct immunoassays commonly used for? | To detect an antigen in a cell preparation or biopsy sample.
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| What are indirect immunoassays commonly used for? | To measure a patient's antibody titer to a known antigen.
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| Why was the indirect immunoassay developed? | It would be impractical if every patient's immunoglobulins had to be purified and labeled before every assay for a disease. The test would also be less sensitive.
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| Anti-human immunoglobulins can be used to detect what 5 things? | 1. all immunoglobulins 2. just IgM 3. just IgG 4. just IgE 5. any label
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| An indirect anti-human immunoglobulin test for IgM (class specific) can be used to detect an __ infection. | acute
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| An indirect anti-human immunoglobulin test for IgG (class specific) can be used to determine a patient's ? | immune status
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| An indirect anti-human immunoglobulin test for IgE (class specific) could be used to diagnose an __. | allergy
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| What kind of heterogenous immunoassay can capture an antigen between molecules of antibody? | sandwich or capture immunoassay
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| During a sandwich/capture immunoassay, one antibody __ the antigen while the other is labeled and helps us __ the reaction. | captures, visualize
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| Sandwich immunoassays are commonly performed on disposable ? | membrane cassettes
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| A colloid-labeled immunochromatographic sandwich assay uses the separating properties of __ to facilitate a capture or colloid assay. | chromatography
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| Can sandwich/capture immunoassays be used to detect specific antigens? | yes
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| If 2 antibodies are used during a sandwich/capture immunoassay, it will increase the assay's __. | specificity
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| What factor could give a false positive on a sandwich/capture immunoassay? | Rheumatoid
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| When would you use a competetive assay instead of a sandwich/capture assay? | 1. antigen is small and only has one epitope 2. when binding to multiple epitopes would create steric hindrance
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| What is steric hindrance? | 1. when size or shape of the molecule interferes with the interaction 2. when the bulk of the molecule is in the way of the reaction (hindrance)
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| 2 reasons you might use a competetive assay include ? | 1. measure total homocysteine 2. measure anti-hepatitis A antibodies
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| What sort of enzyme immunoassay uses multiple antibodies and antigens and tests for HIV? | Western Blot
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| What kind of test lets the test kit analyte compete for limited reagents with the analyte in the patient's sample? | competetive assay
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| What type of heterogeneous assay is used to diagnose Hepatitis C? | RIBA (Recombinant Immunoblot)
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| A RIBA assay differs from a Western Blot assay in how the __ are placed on the strip. | antigens
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| This heterogeneous assay enables analysis of individually labeled cells or particles. | flow cytometry
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| Flow cytometry is commonly used for __ ratio analysis in HIV patients. | CD4/CD8
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| Flow cytometry is performed by a direct __ assay. | immunofluorescent
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| One kind of heterogeneous assay that is used in cases where several assays should be performed and is an adaption of flow cytometry is called ? | multiplexed fluorescent microbead assay
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| The multiplexed fluorescent microbead assay uses color-coded beads with a discrete fluroescent __ __ associated with a particular surface antigen. | color code
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| A fluorescently labeled __ __ is added when running a multiplexed fluorescent microbead assay. | antihuman immunoglobulin
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| In multiplexed fluorescent microbead assays, a laser is used to excite the bead's ? | fluorochromes
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| What kind of label is used most often in modern immunoassays? | enzymes
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| 2 of the best kinds of enzymes used in an enzyme immunoassay are ? | 1. horseradish peroxidase 2. alkaline phosphate
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| 3 less commonly used enzymes in an enzyme immunoassay are ? | 1. glucose oxidase 2. B-galactosidase 3. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
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| The results of optical enzyme immunoassays can be seen based on the property of the __ __ of the reaction. | solid phase
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| Optical enzyme immunoassays result in a change of color of the light that is reflected from a solid-phase polymer membrane once the antigen, antibody, and the converted substrate are all ? | bound
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| Fluorescent immunoassay are often used for direct testing on ? | tissues and cells
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| Fluorescent immunoassays are often used for indirect immunoassays for __ and __ __ testing. | autoimmunity, infectious disease
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| Fluorescent immunoassays are often used for flow cytometry and __ assays. | multiplex
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| The fluorochrome most often used in fluorescent immunoassays is apple green and called ? | fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)
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| What kind of immunoassay uses acridinium-labeled antibodies or antigen conjugates? | Chemiluminiscent assays
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| Colloid immunochromatography is a labeled immunoassay whose results can be read without any ? | training
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| What color of vacutainer tube top must be used when running homogenous assays on a patient's blood? | red (no EDTA or heparin tubes)
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| Name 3 substances that may exist in a patient's body that could interfere with a homogeneous assay. | 1. rheumatoid factor (RF) 2. heterophilic antibodies 3. human antimouse antibody (HAMA)
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| Antibodies induced by external antigens are called ? | heterophilic antibodies
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| Rheumatoid factor is the antibody to the FC region of the __ immunoglobulin. | IgG
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| Rheumatoid factor is usually (but not always) of what class of antibody? | IgM
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| When running a capture (homogeneous assay), rheumatoid factor can bind to the FC region of the __ immunoglobulin. | capture
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| Rheumatoid factor can cause a false-__ reaction during a capture assay unless it is controlled for. | positive
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| How can you correct for rheumatoid factor when running a capture assay? | Add IgG that does not react to the test antigen can block rheumatoid factor
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| Human heterophilic antibodies may be present in people who work with ? | animals
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| Human heterophilic antibodies can cause false-positive reactions in __ __ __ immunoassays. | sandwich antigen capture
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| How can you minimize the effect of human heterophilic antibodies on an immunoassay? | low-affinity antibodies
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| How can you compensate for the existence of human antimouse antibodies? | add mouse immunoglobulins that don't react with the antigen
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| How does someone develop human antimouse antibodies? | Treat them with therapeutic or diagnostic mouse monoclonal antibodies
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| Immune reactions that are overtly injurious to the host are called ? | hypersensitivity reactions
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| What do we call the system of classification for hypersensitivity reactions? | Gel and Coombs
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| Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are due to __ mediated degranulation of __ cells. | IgE, mast (basophils are also involved)
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| Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions are due to cytotoxicity caused by __ cell surface reactions and __ activation. | antibody-mediated, complement
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| Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions are __ __ mediated and involve __ activation. | immune complex, complement
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| Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are cell mediated reactions that involve sensitized __ cells and activated __. | T cells, macrophages
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| Hemolytic anemia and HDFN are examples of type __ hypersensitivity reactions. | 2
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| Contact dermatitis is an example of type __ hypersensitivity reactions. | 4
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| Arthus reactions are an example of type __ hypersensitivity reactions. | 3
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| Asthma and hay fever are examples of type __ hypersensitivity reactions. | 1
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| Which 2 classes of hypersensitivity reactions involve allergies? | 1 and 4
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| Of the 2 classes of hypersensitivity reactions that involve allergies, which causes immediate reactions? | Type 1
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| Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions can take how long to show symptoms? | 2-30 mins
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| Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions can take as long as __ to show symptoms. | 5-8 hours
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| Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions can take as long as __ to show symptoms. | 2-8 hours
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| Of the 2 classes of hypersensitivity reactions that involve allergies, which can cause reactions as much as 72 hours after exposure? | Type 4
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| Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions can take as long as (full range)? | 24-72 hours
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| In type I hypersensitivity reactions, T helper cells can produce cytokines that cause a class switch to the __ isotype. | IgE
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| Harmless antigens that can stimulate an IgE response are called ? | allergens
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| Type I hypersensitivity reactions are designed to drive out potential __ pathogens or prevent their entry. | parasitic
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| How could type I hypersensitivity reactions remove or prevent parasites? | 1. clearing the gastrointestinal tract (vomit and diarrhea) 2. contraction blocks airways 3. increase fluids and blood flow (allows WBCs greater access)
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| Type I hypersensitivity reactions never occur during the __ exposure. | first
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| What are the 3 phases of allergic/hypersensitivity I reactions? | 1. sensitization 2. activation 3. effector
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| Different molecular mechanisms activate at different times in the __ cells. | mast
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| Mast cells and basophils degranulate during which phase of a hypersensitivity type I reaction? | early part of the effector phase
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| What 5 things are released into the body during the early part of the effector phase of a hypersensitivity type I reaction? | 1. histamines 2. prostaglandins 3. eosinophil chemotaxins 4. serotonin 5. proteases
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| The later part of the effector phase during a type I hypersensitivity reaction involves synthesis and secretion of __ and __ and __. | cytokines, chemokines, leukotrienes
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| The effector phase of a type I hypersensitivity reaction has 2 parts: an early phase and a late phase. The most severe clinical manifestations of type I hypersensitivity happen during which phase? | early phase
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| Late phase type I hypersensitivity reactions play a role in more chronic and serious manifestations, like ? | chronic asthma
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| During a type I hypersensitivity reaction, an allergen can enter fluid circulation throughout the body and activate mast cells in blood vessels at __ sites. | multiple
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| What happens during systemic anaphylaxis? (Type I hypersensitivity) | 1. blood vessel permeability increases 2. smooth muscle contraction 3. edema of upper airway can cause asphyxia
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| What can relieve the symptoms of systemic anaphylaxis? | epinephrine
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| Everyday allergens that can cause systemic anaphylaxis include? | 1. bee and wasp venom 2. peanuts 3. shell fish 4. antibiotics (like penicillin)
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| Allergens that cause systemic anaphylaxis can activate IgE coated mast cells and basophils and generate a __ response. | systemic
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| The severity of type I hypersensitivity reactions depends on levels of allergen-specific __. | IgE
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| One way of testing the severity of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is with a __ test. | RID
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| Type I hypersensitivity can affect what 2 tracts in the body? | 1. respiratory 2. digestive
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| Type I hypersensitivity reactions can be local or ? | systemic
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| What affects the severity of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? | 1. IgE levels 2. amount of allergen 3. the site of allergen introduction 4. the route the allergen takes
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| Two reasons some people may be severely allergic to allergens while others are not is due to __. | 1. inherited genetics (MHC haplotype and Th2 response) 2. higher levels of IgE
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| Severe IgE response is normally a reaction designed to protect us against ? | parasites
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| Areas of the body that are most sensitive to allergens are also likely entry points for parasites. Name 4 of these sites. | 1. MALT (mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue) 2. airways 3. digestive system 4. under the skin
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| Production of IL__ and IL__ can stimulate B cells to produce lots of IgE against the allergen. | Il-4 and IL-3
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| The 3 basic approaches for testing type I hypersensitivity reactions in the lab are ? | 1. RIST (radioimmunosorbent test) 2. RAST (Radio allergosorbent test) 3. skin testing
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| RIST tests for total __. | IgE
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| RAST tests for IgE to a ? | specific allergen
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| Which test (RIST, RAST, skin test?) employs a capture assay of anti IgE coating and detects the labeled anti-human IgE? | RIST (total IgE)
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| Which test (RIST, RAST, skin test?) is an indirect assay that uses a solid matrix coated with allergen? | RAST (allergen specific IgE)
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| Which test is the simplest to perform and examines the patient's final reaction to the allergen in vivo? | skin test
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| Which test (RIST, RAST, skin test) adds the patients sera and a labeled anti-human immunoglobulin to a solid matrix coated with allergen? | RAST (allergen specific IgE)
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| Name the 2 kinds of skin test. | 1. prick test 2. intradermal test
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| A prick/skin test usually takes how many minutes to show a reaction? | 15-30 mins
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| An intradermal skin test may be used if the prick test is __. | negative
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| Intradermal skin tests are more dangerous than prick tests because they go between different layers of the skin, risking an __ reaction. | anaphylactic
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| Both kinds of skin test employ a negative __ control and a positive __ control. | saline, histamine
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| One way of treating type I hypersensitivity is to give the patient extremely small (but ever increasing) amounts of the allergen over time to gradually inhibit the reaction. This procedure is called ? | hyposensitization
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| Hyposensitization changes the patient's allergic response from an IgE to an __. | IgG
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| Type II hypersensitivity reactions are caused by the reaction of which immunoglobulins? | IgG, IgM
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| The cellular destruction inflicted on a patient by type II hypersensitivity reactions is due to antibody and complement mediated ... (list all 3) | 1. lysis 2. opsonization 3. cellular toxicity
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| The 3 major players of type II hypersensitivity reactions are ? | 1. antibodies 2. complement 3. phagocytes
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| Clinical examples of type II hypersensitivity reactions include what 3 things? | 1. transfusion reactions 2. hemolytic anemias 3. erthroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of newborn)
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| During a transfusion reaction (type II hypersensitivity), the transfusion recipient has circulating __ that target the RBCs of the donor. | antibodies
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| The severity of a transfusion reaction (type II hypersensitivity) can be partially based on the __ of antibodies in the recipient's system. | titer
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| The severity of a transfusion reaction (type II hypersensitivity) can partially depend on the amount of __ __. | blood transfused
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| One thing that affects the severity of a transfusion reaction (type II hypersensitivity) is whether this is the __ transfusion of ABO-incompatible blood or not. | first
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| What 3 kinds of antigens are factors in transfusion reactions? | 1. ABO blood antigens (primary concern) 2. Kelly & Duffy antigens 3. Rh antigens
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| A condition where complement is activated and tries to destroy the body's own RBCs is called ? | hemolytic anemia
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| HDNB stands for ? | hemolytic disease of the newborn
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| HDNB occurs when the mother makes __ antibodies against the RBCs of the fetus. | IgG
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| In HDNB, the mother's IgG antibodies can cross the __ and damage the fetal RBCs. | placenta
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| HDNB only happens when the mother is Rh__ and the baby is Rh__. It never works in the reverse. | negative, positive
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| The most common antigen involved in HDNB is the __ antigen of the Rh blood groups. | D
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| Rh positive means positive for the __ antigen. | D
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| When a pregnant woman makes IgG antibodies against the RBCs of her unborn fetus due to blood-antigen incompatibility, this is called ? | hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDNB)
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| HDBN does not happen during the __ pregnancy. | first (after the first baby, the mother is immunized against the fetal Rh+ cells and her immune system will attack subsequent fetuses that are Rh+)
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| If the mother is Rh postive and the baby is Rh negative, can HDNB occur? | no
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| What are the possible consequences for the fetus in cases of HDNB? | 1. anemia 2. jaundice 3. death
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| What are the 2 types of testing done to check for HDNB? | 1. indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) 2. direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
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| How can you prevent HDNB? | anti-RhD antibodies
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| How can anti-RhD antibodies prevent HDNB? | They can can destroy few fetal RBCs that enter the mother's body before her immune system can become immunized against them.
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| Type III hypersensitivity reactions are caused by immune complexes formed from __ and soluble antigens. | IgG
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| Type III hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses to an antigen in __ rather than on a particular cell or tissue. | solution
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| Type III hypersensitivity diseases can involve antibodies that bind to receptor and __ the response. | modulate
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| 4 examples of type III hypersensitivity reactions include ? | 1. Grave's disease 2. Myasthenia gravis, or Lou Gehrig's disease 3. Goodpasture's syndrome 4. Rheumatic fever
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| Type III hypersensitivity reactions occur when an antibody and antigen bind together, forming a complex that gets stuck in a __ site within the body and then causes an allergic reaction. | filtering
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| The target tissues of type III hypersensitivity reactions are ? | 1. blood vessel walls 2. kidneys (glomerular basement membrane) 3. joints 4. lungs
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| When complement and inflammatory cells try to clear the antibody-antigen complex in a type III hypersensitivity reaction, they end up causing __ to the filtration organs near the complex. | damage
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| What kind of reaction is caused by immune complexes that are generated by IgG that has infiltrated the tissues and combining with an antigen that has been injected intradermally? | Arthrus reaction
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| When the immune system reacts to injected medications that contain animal proteins used to treat immune conditions, this is called ? | serum sickness
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| A 2nd injection using proteins from the same animal species can cause ? (Relating to serum sickness.) | shock and death
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| Normally, serum sickness is self __. | limiting
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| The processes involved in type III hypersensitivity reactions can also occur in certain forms of __ which are not self limiting. | autoimmunity
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| 2 autoimmune diseases that work similarly to serum sickness are ? | 1. Lupus 2. Rheumatoid arthritis
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| Why aren't autoimmune disorders like Lupus and Rheumatoid arthritis self limiting like serum sickness? | These are self-antigens that can't be cleared away. Serum sickness antigens come from outside the body and can be cleared away.
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| Unlike other types of hypersensitivity, type IV hypersensitivity is mediated by ? | 1. CD4 Th1 T cells 2. CD8 cytotoxic T cells
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| Is it true that type IV hypersensitivity can actually be transferred from one animal to another by transferring T cells that have been sensitized to the antigen? | Yes
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| Type IV hypersensitivity can target different areas of the __. | body
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| What example of type IV hypersensitivity is initiated when small substances get in contact with the skin and act as haptens once they have penetrated it? | contact dermatitis
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| The duration of contact dermatitis is ? | From several days to several weeks AFTER removal of the allergen!
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| Because the allergen in contact dermatitis (and by extension, many type IV hypersensitivity reactions) are haptens, they make the affected cells appear __ to the body. Thus, the reaction takes a while to stop. | foreign or immunogenic
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| A positive result from a Mantoux test means that the patient has been exposed to __ __. It does not mean the person has the disease. | mycobacterium tuberculosis
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