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Immun PracTest 3

Practice for Immunology test 3 at DelTech Owens campus

Unlabeled immunoassays rely on the binding sites of BOTH __ and __. antibody and antigen
If the antigen in an unlabeled immunoassay is soluble, the reaction is called ? precipitation
If the antigen in an unlabeled immunoassay is a particulate, the reaction is called ? agglutination
When an antigen and an antibody meet at appropriate concentrations, large __ __ can form. cross-linked structures
Unlabeled immunoassays that rely on precipitation or agglutination have (high or low?) accuracy. low
How can we increase the sensitivity of unlabeled immunoassays? optics (nephelometry and tubidometry)
__ is performed by measuring the turbidity in a sample by passing light through the sample at an angle. nephelometry
__ is performed by measuring the intensity of a beam of light as it passes straight through a sample. turbidometry
What is the difference between nephelometry and turbidometry? In nephelometry the intensity of the scattered light is measured as leaves the sample at an angle. In turbidimetry, the intensity of light transmitted straight through the sample is measured.
The strength of the bond between one FAB region on an antibody with one epitope on an antigen is called ? affinity
The higher the affinity, the higher the amount of the antibody and antigen that will be __ together. complexed
Higher affinity means (high or lower?) sensitivity of the reaction in the test. higher (because less of the antigen and antibody will be in an UNcomplexed form)
The more binding sites between an antigen and an antibody, the higher the ? avidity
Avidity is the number of __ __ times the affinity. binding sites
Steric hindrance can __ avidity. lower
Large complexes are formed when antigens and antibodies meet at a concentration where ? the number of paratopes approximately equals the number of epitopes
When there is too much antibody for precipitation or agglutination to take place during an unlabeled immunoassay, the area between the antibody and the antigen is called a ? prozone
When the ratio between antibody and antigen is just right, the area between them is called the area of ? equivalence
In an area of equivalence, the number of __ approximately equals the number of __. paratopes equal the number of epitopes
When the amount of antibody is too low in an unlabeled immunoassay test, the area between the antibody and the antigen is called the ? postzone
The most visible precipitation would occur in (equivalence, prozone, postzone?) equivalence
You would get no precipitation in a (equivelence, prozone, postzone?) reaction. postzone
You would get little to no precipitation in a (equivalence, prozone, postzone?) reaction. prozone
If no precipitation occurs during an unlabeled immunoassay, this suggests the patient ? did not have enough of the antibody to create a visible reaction.
If a prozone reaction occurs, the patient's serum can be __ and tested again to reach equivalence. diluted
If a postzone reaction occurs, the patient's blood can be drawn again to allow an increase in __ to bring the reaction to the zone of equivalence. titer
In a prozone or postzone reaction during an unlabeled immunoassay test, the patient would be (positive or negative?) for the antigen being tested. negative
Why would you dilute the sample and retest if your first result is prozone in an immunoassay? Prozone means the patient had too many antibodies to reach equivalence. Dilution corrects this by lowering the concentration of antibodies.
What are the advantages of precipitation techniques? They are very easy.
What are the disadvantages of precipitation techniques? They are the least sensitive serological techniques.
Radial immunodiffusion is a (single or double?)-diffusion technique single-diffusion
Quchterlony is a (single or double?) diffusion technique. double-diffusion
Double-diffusion means that both the __ and the __ diffuse through the agarose. antibody and antigen
A precipitin line forms where diffusion brings the relative concentrations of antibody and antigen to ? equivalence
What is the precipitin line formed from? The lattice structure of the antibody/antigen complexes
The Ouchterlony test allows for determination of antigenic relatedness of an unknown __ __ with a known __. test material with a known antigen
What are the 3 possible results of an Ouchterlony test? 1. identity 2. partial identity 3. nonidentity
Is the Ouchterlony test a quantitative or qualitative test procedure? qualitative
During the Ouchterlony test procedure, an increasing amount of __ is added to a constant amount of __ in solution. antigen, antibody : Use the simulator at http://jeeves.mmg.uci.edu/immunology/Ouchterlony/ouchterlony.html
The Ouchterlony test compares the __ of the antigens. relatedness
When the 2 different antigen preparations contain the same antigen in an Ouchterlony test, a line of __ will form. identity
The arc shape of the identity line in the Ouchterlony test is the result of ? the circular spread of the diffusing molecules from each well and the reagents reaching each other at equilibrium, forming an arc.
In an Ouchterlony test, if the precipitin line curves downward (like a frown) this forms a line of ? identity
In an Ouchterlony test, if the precipitin lines cross each other (like an X) this forms a line of ? nonidentity
In an Ouchterlony test, if one of the precipitin lines is longer than the other, this forms a line of ? partial identity See more at http://amrita.vlab.co.in/?sub=3&brch=70&sim=689&cnt=1
A line of partial identity in an Ouchterlony test means that one of the molecules has an additional __ so that a spur has formed on the precipitin line. epitope
Relative concentrations of antigens can be determined in a (double or single?)-gel precipition test. double
The further the precipitin line is from the well where the antigens and antibodies have been placed in a double diffusion test, the __ the concentration of either reagent. lower
Radial immunodiffusion is a (quantitative or qualitative?) immunoprecipitation technique? quantitative
Radial immunodiffusion is a (single or double?) immunodiffusion technique. single
In a double diffusion test, the antigen with the higher concentration would form a precipitin line that is (closer to or further from?) the antibody well. closer to
During radial immunodiffusion, (different or the same?) concentrations of the antigen diffuse into the gel. different
The __ of the precipitin line is related to the concentration of the antigen. diameter
How many concentrations of the antigen are used to produce a standard curve in Radial immunodiffusion? 3
What are the 2 methods for quantitating the results of Radial immunodiffusion? Fahey and Mancini
What 4 levels does Radial immunodiffusion measure? 1. IgG 2. IgM 3. IgA 4. complement
Which method of optical analysis measures the amount of light that is lost when it has been shined directly through a solution? turbidometry
Which method of optical analysis measures the scattered light that has been shined through a solution at an angle? (10-90 degrees) nephalometry
Which method of optical analysis is more sensitive: turbidometry or nephalometry? nephalometry
Which 6 immunoglobulin concentrations are measured using nephalometry? 1. IgG 2. IgM 3. IgA 4. IgE 5. kappa light 6. lambda light
Agglutination is (more or less?) sensitive than precipitation? more
Why is agglutination a more sensitive test than those employing precipitation techniques? the larger antigen particles enhance visualization
The coating of red blood cells or inserting of latex beads with soluble antigens is part of a process known as ? passive agglutination
Agglutination testing is done with 2 particles that have an electric charge and that naturally (attract or repulse?) one another. repulse
What pulls the particles together during an agglutination test? antibodies
During an agglutination reaction, the stronger the force of the antibody that brings the particles together, the stronger they try to electrically __ one another. repel
Which antibody works better in agglutination tests? IgM or IgG? IgM
Which antibody has binding sites with the widest reach? IgM
Why is the pH of the particles in an agglutination reaction important? pH affects the amount of charge
If the charge of an agglutination test decreases, the apparent titer ? increases
What affect would the use of low ionic strength media have on an agglutination test? It would improve the binding of the charged particles because the repelling forces would be reduced.
Using a media with increased viscosity would have what affect on an agglutination test? It would improve the binding of the charged particles.
What temperature is best when running an agglutination test using IgM? 37 Celsius
What temperature is best when running an agglutination test using IgG? between 4 and 27 Celsius
One way to stengthen the binding of charged particles during an agglutination test is to treat red cells with __ to decrease surface charge. enzymes
Agitation or centrifugation of the charged particles __ the interaction of the particles during an agglutination test. increases
Some IgG agglutination tests may __ because the electrical repulsion of the particles is too great. fail
What 3 methods can be used to improve the binding of charged particles during an agglutination test? 1. use LISS (low ionic strength media) 2. use media with higher viscosity 3. control temperature (IgM best temp 4-27 C)(IgG best temp is 37 C)
How can you overcome a failure of an agglutination test due to the repulsive forces being too strong for the antibodies to overcome? Add antihuman antibodies (an antibody to the antibody that is already present)
By adding an antihuman antibody to an agglutination test, you are __ the reach of the IgG antibodies. increasing
When an antihuman antibody is added to an agglutination test, it binds to __, forming a larger chain. IgG
Which kind of antibody is most likely to fail to overcome the repulsive forces at play during an agglutination test? IgG (add antihuman antibody to fix this)
What are the 5 kinds of agglutination tests? 1. direct 2. passive 3. reverse passive 4. hemagglutination 5. agglutination inhibition assay
What do you call it when the antigen is not normally part of the particle during an agglutination test? passive agglutination
What do you call it when the antigen is naturally part of the particle during an agglutination test? active agglutination
Agglutination tests using red blood cells are called ? hemagglutination tests
When the antibody is attached to the particle during an agglutination test and not to the antigen, this is called ? reverse passive agglutination
What kind of test checks for the presence of A,B, or C antibodies on a person's RBCs? Direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
Which kind of test checks for the presence of an antibody in a patient or for blood group AGS on a patient's cells? Indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)
A competition between kit-supplied particle antigens and patient antigens for the supplied antibody is used during a ? agglutination inhibition assay
How can the sensitivity of precipitation and agglutination assays be increased? With 1. nephalometry 2. turbidometry
What is the PETINA method used for? Therapeutic drug monitoring
What is therapeutic drug monitoring used for? To determine serum concentrations achieved with administration of a therapeutic drug.
What does PETINA stand for? particle-enhanced turbidometric inhibition assay
The drug that comes with a PETINA kit inhibits __ of the particles by the antibody. cross-linking
The drug in a PETINA kit increases the __ of the solution once the particles have been added. turbidity
What does PACIA stand for? particle-counting immunoassay
What does PACIA measure? residual nonagglutinating particles after an agglutination reaction
Unlabeled immunoassays can be used when the concentrations of the reactants are high enough to be ? seen
Any immunoassay that involves physical separation of antibody-bound antigens from the remaining free antigens is called ? Heterogeneous
Any immunoassay that does not involve physical separation of antibody-bound antigen from antigen molecules that remain free is called ? Homogeneous
A radioimmunoassay is a homogenous or heterogeneous assay? Heterogeneous
ELISA stands for ? enzyme linked immunosorbant assays
FIA stands for ? Fluorescent immunoassay
A radioactive isotope used as a tracer is called a ? radiolabel
Name 3 types of labeled immunoassays. 1. chemiluminescent labels 2. colloid particles 3. optical immunoassays
What kind of labeled immunoassays are detected in gamma or liquid scintillation counters? radiolabel
Enzyme labels can be detected by the conversion of a substrate by the enzyme. This will produce what 4 things? 1. color change 2. fluorescent compound 3. flash of light 4. change in optical reflection
Enzyme labels that produce a color change are measured how? spectrophotometrically
Fluorescent compounds that are used as enzyme labels are measured ? fluorimetrically
Chemiluminescence of certain enzyme labels are measured with a ? luminometer or photomultiplier tube
Changes in optical reflection in optical immunoassays that use enzyme labels are measured with ? the eye
What type of immunoassay uses large colored colloid particles attached to the antibody or antigen in a way that does not cause steric hindrance? colloid immunoassay
Colloid immunoassays are useful in __ __ __ testing. point of care
Colloid immunoassays are useful in __ test kits. pregnancy
Colloid immunoassays are detected by the __ after separation in a process called immunochromatography. eye
Colloid immunoassays do not require __, which makes them useful for point of care testing and means they can be seen by the naked eye. instrumentation
Heterogeneous immunoassays involve a __ of bound from free. separation
Homogeneous immunoassays (do or do not?) require a separation of bound from free? do not
The __ __ complex can be directly detected using a heterogenous assay. antigen antibody
A 2nd __ antibody can be utilized in a heterogeneous assay. anti-immunoglobulin
The antigen or antibody can be captured by a __ to a solid-phase and detected by a 2nd molecule during a heterogenous assay. capture-molecule
An inhibition step can be performed where labeled and unlabeled reactants __ during a heterogeneous assay. compete
Which kind of heterogenous assay uses labeled antibody binding to an antigen OR a labeled antigen binding to an antibody? direct immunoassay
Which kind of heterogenous assay uses an unlabeled antigen, unlabeled antibody, and a labeled immunoglobulin? indirect immunoassay
An indirect immunoassay detects the reaction of the initial __ and __ complex. antibody and antigen
What are direct immunoassays commonly used for? To detect an antigen in a cell preparation or biopsy sample.
What are indirect immunoassays commonly used for? To measure a patient's antibody titer to a known antigen.
Why was the indirect immunoassay developed? It would be impractical if every patient's immunoglobulins had to be purified and labeled before every assay for a disease. The test would also be less sensitive.
Anti-human immunoglobulins can be used to detect what 5 things? 1. all immunoglobulins 2. just IgM 3. just IgG 4. just IgE 5. any label
An indirect anti-human immunoglobulin test for IgM (class specific) can be used to detect an __ infection. acute
An indirect anti-human immunoglobulin test for IgG (class specific) can be used to determine a patient's ? immune status
An indirect anti-human immunoglobulin test for IgE (class specific) could be used to diagnose an __. allergy
What kind of heterogenous immunoassay can capture an antigen between molecules of antibody? sandwich or capture immunoassay
During a sandwich/capture immunoassay, one antibody __ the antigen while the other is labeled and helps us __ the reaction. captures, visualize
Sandwich immunoassays are commonly performed on disposable ? membrane cassettes
A colloid-labeled immunochromatographic sandwich assay uses the separating properties of __ to facilitate a capture or colloid assay. chromatography
Can sandwich/capture immunoassays be used to detect specific antigens? yes
If 2 antibodies are used during a sandwich/capture immunoassay, it will increase the assay's __. specificity
What factor could give a false positive on a sandwich/capture immunoassay? Rheumatoid
When would you use a competetive assay instead of a sandwich/capture assay? 1. antigen is small and only has one epitope 2. when binding to multiple epitopes would create steric hindrance
What is steric hindrance? 1. when size or shape of the molecule interferes with the interaction 2. when the bulk of the molecule is in the way of the reaction (hindrance)
2 reasons you might use a competetive assay include ? 1. measure total homocysteine 2. measure anti-hepatitis A antibodies
What sort of enzyme immunoassay uses multiple antibodies and antigens and tests for HIV? Western Blot
What kind of test lets the test kit analyte compete for limited reagents with the analyte in the patient's sample? competetive assay
What type of heterogeneous assay is used to diagnose Hepatitis C? RIBA (Recombinant Immunoblot)
A RIBA assay differs from a Western Blot assay in how the __ are placed on the strip. antigens
This heterogeneous assay enables analysis of individually labeled cells or particles. flow cytometry
Flow cytometry is commonly used for __ ratio analysis in HIV patients. CD4/CD8
Flow cytometry is performed by a direct __ assay. immunofluorescent
One kind of heterogeneous assay that is used in cases where several assays should be performed and is an adaption of flow cytometry is called ? multiplexed fluorescent microbead assay
The multiplexed fluorescent microbead assay uses color-coded beads with a discrete fluroescent __ __ associated with a particular surface antigen. color code
A fluorescently labeled __ __ is added when running a multiplexed fluorescent microbead assay. antihuman immunoglobulin
In multiplexed fluorescent microbead assays, a laser is used to excite the bead's ? fluorochromes
What kind of label is used most often in modern immunoassays? enzymes
2 of the best kinds of enzymes used in an enzyme immunoassay are ? 1. horseradish peroxidase 2. alkaline phosphate
3 less commonly used enzymes in an enzyme immunoassay are ? 1. glucose oxidase 2. B-galactosidase 3. glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
The results of optical enzyme immunoassays can be seen based on the property of the __ __ of the reaction. solid phase
Optical enzyme immunoassays result in a change of color of the light that is reflected from a solid-phase polymer membrane once the antigen, antibody, and the converted substrate are all ? bound
Fluorescent immunoassay are often used for direct testing on ? tissues and cells
Fluorescent immunoassays are often used for indirect immunoassays for __ and __ __ testing. autoimmunity, infectious disease
Fluorescent immunoassays are often used for flow cytometry and __ assays. multiplex
The fluorochrome most often used in fluorescent immunoassays is apple green and called ? fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)
What kind of immunoassay uses acridinium-labeled antibodies or antigen conjugates? Chemiluminiscent assays
Colloid immunochromatography is a labeled immunoassay whose results can be read without any ? training
What color of vacutainer tube top must be used when running homogenous assays on a patient's blood? red (no EDTA or heparin tubes)
Name 3 substances that may exist in a patient's body that could interfere with a homogeneous assay. 1. rheumatoid factor (RF) 2. heterophilic antibodies 3. human antimouse antibody (HAMA)
Antibodies induced by external antigens are called ? heterophilic antibodies
Rheumatoid factor is the antibody to the FC region of the __ immunoglobulin. IgG
Rheumatoid factor is usually (but not always) of what class of antibody? IgM
When running a capture (homogeneous assay), rheumatoid factor can bind to the FC region of the __ immunoglobulin. capture
Rheumatoid factor can cause a false-__ reaction during a capture assay unless it is controlled for. positive
How can you correct for rheumatoid factor when running a capture assay? Add IgG that does not react to the test antigen can block rheumatoid factor
Human heterophilic antibodies may be present in people who work with ? animals
Human heterophilic antibodies can cause false-positive reactions in __ __ __ immunoassays. sandwich antigen capture
How can you minimize the effect of human heterophilic antibodies on an immunoassay? low-affinity antibodies
How can you compensate for the existence of human antimouse antibodies? add mouse immunoglobulins that don't react with the antigen
How does someone develop human antimouse antibodies? Treat them with therapeutic or diagnostic mouse monoclonal antibodies
Immune reactions that are overtly injurious to the host are called ? hypersensitivity reactions
What do we call the system of classification for hypersensitivity reactions? Gel and Coombs
Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions are due to __ mediated degranulation of __ cells. IgE, mast (basophils are also involved)
Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions are due to cytotoxicity caused by __ cell surface reactions and __ activation. antibody-mediated, complement
Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions are __ __ mediated and involve __ activation. immune complex, complement
Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions are cell mediated reactions that involve sensitized __ cells and activated __. T cells, macrophages
Hemolytic anemia and HDFN are examples of type __ hypersensitivity reactions. 2
Contact dermatitis is an example of type __ hypersensitivity reactions. 4
Arthus reactions are an example of type __ hypersensitivity reactions. 3
Asthma and hay fever are examples of type __ hypersensitivity reactions. 1
Which 2 classes of hypersensitivity reactions involve allergies? 1 and 4
Of the 2 classes of hypersensitivity reactions that involve allergies, which causes immediate reactions? Type 1
Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions can take how long to show symptoms? 2-30 mins
Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions can take as long as __ to show symptoms. 5-8 hours
Type 3 hypersensitivity reactions can take as long as __ to show symptoms. 2-8 hours
Of the 2 classes of hypersensitivity reactions that involve allergies, which can cause reactions as much as 72 hours after exposure? Type 4
Type 4 hypersensitivity reactions can take as long as (full range)? 24-72 hours
In type I hypersensitivity reactions, T helper cells can produce cytokines that cause a class switch to the __ isotype. IgE
Harmless antigens that can stimulate an IgE response are called ? allergens
Type I hypersensitivity reactions are designed to drive out potential __ pathogens or prevent their entry. parasitic
How could type I hypersensitivity reactions remove or prevent parasites? 1. clearing the gastrointestinal tract (vomit and diarrhea) 2. contraction blocks airways 3. increase fluids and blood flow (allows WBCs greater access)
Type I hypersensitivity reactions never occur during the __ exposure. first
What are the 3 phases of allergic/hypersensitivity I reactions? 1. sensitization 2. activation 3. effector
Different molecular mechanisms activate at different times in the __ cells. mast
Mast cells and basophils degranulate during which phase of a hypersensitivity type I reaction? early part of the effector phase
What 5 things are released into the body during the early part of the effector phase of a hypersensitivity type I reaction? 1. histamines 2. prostaglandins 3. eosinophil chemotaxins 4. serotonin 5. proteases
The later part of the effector phase during a type I hypersensitivity reaction involves synthesis and secretion of __ and __ and __. cytokines, chemokines, leukotrienes
The effector phase of a type I hypersensitivity reaction has 2 parts: an early phase and a late phase. The most severe clinical manifestations of type I hypersensitivity happen during which phase? early phase
Late phase type I hypersensitivity reactions play a role in more chronic and serious manifestations, like ? chronic asthma
During a type I hypersensitivity reaction, an allergen can enter fluid circulation throughout the body and activate mast cells in blood vessels at __ sites. multiple
What happens during systemic anaphylaxis? (Type I hypersensitivity) 1. blood vessel permeability increases 2. smooth muscle contraction 3. edema of upper airway can cause asphyxia
What can relieve the symptoms of systemic anaphylaxis? epinephrine
Everyday allergens that can cause systemic anaphylaxis include? 1. bee and wasp venom 2. peanuts 3. shell fish 4. antibiotics (like penicillin)
Allergens that cause systemic anaphylaxis can activate IgE coated mast cells and basophils and generate a __ response. systemic
The severity of type I hypersensitivity reactions depends on levels of allergen-specific __. IgE
One way of testing the severity of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is with a __ test. RID
Type I hypersensitivity can affect what 2 tracts in the body? 1. respiratory 2. digestive
Type I hypersensitivity reactions can be local or ? systemic
What affects the severity of a type I hypersensitivity reaction? 1. IgE levels 2. amount of allergen 3. the site of allergen introduction 4. the route the allergen takes
Two reasons some people may be severely allergic to allergens while others are not is due to __. 1. inherited genetics (MHC haplotype and Th2 response) 2. higher levels of IgE
Severe IgE response is normally a reaction designed to protect us against ? parasites
Areas of the body that are most sensitive to allergens are also likely entry points for parasites. Name 4 of these sites. 1. MALT (mucosal-associated lymphoid tissue) 2. airways 3. digestive system 4. under the skin
Production of IL__ and IL__ can stimulate B cells to produce lots of IgE against the allergen. Il-4 and IL-3
The 3 basic approaches for testing type I hypersensitivity reactions in the lab are ? 1. RIST (radioimmunosorbent test) 2. RAST (Radio allergosorbent test) 3. skin testing
RIST tests for total __. IgE
RAST tests for IgE to a ? specific allergen
Which test (RIST, RAST, skin test?) employs a capture assay of anti IgE coating and detects the labeled anti-human IgE? RIST (total IgE)
Which test (RIST, RAST, skin test?) is an indirect assay that uses a solid matrix coated with allergen? RAST (allergen specific IgE)
Which test is the simplest to perform and examines the patient's final reaction to the allergen in vivo? skin test
Which test (RIST, RAST, skin test) adds the patients sera and a labeled anti-human immunoglobulin to a solid matrix coated with allergen? RAST (allergen specific IgE)
Name the 2 kinds of skin test. 1. prick test 2. intradermal test
A prick/skin test usually takes how many minutes to show a reaction? 15-30 mins
An intradermal skin test may be used if the prick test is __. negative
Intradermal skin tests are more dangerous than prick tests because they go between different layers of the skin, risking an __ reaction. anaphylactic
Both kinds of skin test employ a negative __ control and a positive __ control. saline, histamine
One way of treating type I hypersensitivity is to give the patient extremely small (but ever increasing) amounts of the allergen over time to gradually inhibit the reaction. This procedure is called ? hyposensitization
Hyposensitization changes the patient's allergic response from an IgE to an __. IgG
Type II hypersensitivity reactions are caused by the reaction of which immunoglobulins? IgG, IgM
The cellular destruction inflicted on a patient by type II hypersensitivity reactions is due to antibody and complement mediated ... (list all 3) 1. lysis 2. opsonization 3. cellular toxicity
The 3 major players of type II hypersensitivity reactions are ? 1. antibodies 2. complement 3. phagocytes
Clinical examples of type II hypersensitivity reactions include what 3 things? 1. transfusion reactions 2. hemolytic anemias 3. erthroblastosis fetalis (hemolytic disease of newborn)
During a transfusion reaction (type II hypersensitivity), the transfusion recipient has circulating __ that target the RBCs of the donor. antibodies
The severity of a transfusion reaction (type II hypersensitivity) can be partially based on the __ of antibodies in the recipient's system. titer
The severity of a transfusion reaction (type II hypersensitivity) can partially depend on the amount of __ __. blood transfused
One thing that affects the severity of a transfusion reaction (type II hypersensitivity) is whether this is the __ transfusion of ABO-incompatible blood or not. first
What 3 kinds of antigens are factors in transfusion reactions? 1. ABO blood antigens (primary concern) 2. Kelly & Duffy antigens 3. Rh antigens
A condition where complement is activated and tries to destroy the body's own RBCs is called ? hemolytic anemia
HDNB stands for ? hemolytic disease of the newborn
HDNB occurs when the mother makes __ antibodies against the RBCs of the fetus. IgG
In HDNB, the mother's IgG antibodies can cross the __ and damage the fetal RBCs. placenta
HDNB only happens when the mother is Rh__ and the baby is Rh__. It never works in the reverse. negative, positive
The most common antigen involved in HDNB is the __ antigen of the Rh blood groups. D
Rh positive means positive for the __ antigen. D
When a pregnant woman makes IgG antibodies against the RBCs of her unborn fetus due to blood-antigen incompatibility, this is called ? hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDNB)
HDBN does not happen during the __ pregnancy. first (after the first baby, the mother is immunized against the fetal Rh+ cells and her immune system will attack subsequent fetuses that are Rh+)
If the mother is Rh postive and the baby is Rh negative, can HDNB occur? no
What are the possible consequences for the fetus in cases of HDNB? 1. anemia 2. jaundice 3. death
What are the 2 types of testing done to check for HDNB? 1. indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) 2. direct antiglobulin test (DAT)
How can you prevent HDNB? anti-RhD antibodies
How can anti-RhD antibodies prevent HDNB? They can can destroy few fetal RBCs that enter the mother's body before her immune system can become immunized against them.
Type III hypersensitivity reactions are caused by immune complexes formed from __ and soluble antigens. IgG
Type III hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses to an antigen in __ rather than on a particular cell or tissue. solution
Type III hypersensitivity diseases can involve antibodies that bind to receptor and __ the response. modulate
4 examples of type III hypersensitivity reactions include ? 1. Grave's disease 2. Myasthenia gravis, or Lou Gehrig's disease 3. Goodpasture's syndrome 4. Rheumatic fever
Type III hypersensitivity reactions occur when an antibody and antigen bind together, forming a complex that gets stuck in a __ site within the body and then causes an allergic reaction. filtering
The target tissues of type III hypersensitivity reactions are ? 1. blood vessel walls 2. kidneys (glomerular basement membrane) 3. joints 4. lungs
When complement and inflammatory cells try to clear the antibody-antigen complex in a type III hypersensitivity reaction, they end up causing __ to the filtration organs near the complex. damage
What kind of reaction is caused by immune complexes that are generated by IgG that has infiltrated the tissues and combining with an antigen that has been injected intradermally? Arthrus reaction
When the immune system reacts to injected medications that contain animal proteins used to treat immune conditions, this is called ? serum sickness
A 2nd injection using proteins from the same animal species can cause ? (Relating to serum sickness.) shock and death
Normally, serum sickness is self __. limiting
The processes involved in type III hypersensitivity reactions can also occur in certain forms of __ which are not self limiting. autoimmunity
2 autoimmune diseases that work similarly to serum sickness are ? 1. Lupus 2. Rheumatoid arthritis
Why aren't autoimmune disorders like Lupus and Rheumatoid arthritis self limiting like serum sickness? These are self-antigens that can't be cleared away. Serum sickness antigens come from outside the body and can be cleared away.
Unlike other types of hypersensitivity, type IV hypersensitivity is mediated by ? 1. CD4 Th1 T cells 2. CD8 cytotoxic T cells
Is it true that type IV hypersensitivity can actually be transferred from one animal to another by transferring T cells that have been sensitized to the antigen? Yes
Type IV hypersensitivity can target different areas of the __. body
What example of type IV hypersensitivity is initiated when small substances get in contact with the skin and act as haptens once they have penetrated it? contact dermatitis
The duration of contact dermatitis is ? From several days to several weeks AFTER removal of the allergen!
Because the allergen in contact dermatitis (and by extension, many type IV hypersensitivity reactions) are haptens, they make the affected cells appear __ to the body. Thus, the reaction takes a while to stop. foreign or immunogenic
A positive result from a Mantoux test means that the patient has been exposed to __ __. It does not mean the person has the disease. mycobacterium tuberculosis
Created by: IsaacJ