Hematology Final
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| What is the most useful corrective action for the microscope when fine details cannot be visualized in immature cells? | use 100x and open diaphragm
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| Behaviors that are violations of standard precautions: | not treating everyone as infected
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| Standard and calibrators differ from control materials because: | -Standards are solutions that have a known amount of analyte and used to calibrate the instrument
-controls are used to monitor the performance after calibration (mimics patient samples)
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| Proper mixing of samples and timely delivery of samples to the lab are both examples of what type of lab variables | preanalytical
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| A delta check is a historical reference on samples run in the lab. Once a sample fails a delta check, the most obvious corrective action is to | Verify patient ID
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| Common examples of post analytic variables include | -Delta check -results released -critical results called - reflex testing initiated - specimen checked for clots
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| Error analysis, standard protocols, and turnaround time are all part of the | QA
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| The avg of a group of data points is defined as the | mean
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| The avg M:E ration for normal adult bone marrow is | 3:1 to 4:1
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| The key organs involved in extramedullary hematopoiesis include: | Liver and spleen
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| The best test to assess the bone marrow's response to anemic stress is | reticulocyte count
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| Antibody-coated red cells that have their antibodies stripped in the spleen usually reappear in the circulation as: | spherocyte
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| A peripheral blood indicator of ineffective bone marrow is | lack of polychromasia
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| The hormone responsible for signaling red cell development in the bone marrow is | EPO (erythropoietin)
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| The preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy is | iliac creast
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| A wright-stained smear of a patient with an elevated reticulocyte count should show | Lg red-bluish cells, polychromatophilic macrocytes
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| One of the key morphological features of the nucleated red cell stage is | baseball round nucleus
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| The red cell protein that is responsible for deform-ability and flexibility of the red cell is | spectrin and ankryin
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| Increased plasma cholesterol may lead to the development of which abnormal red cell morphologies | target cells
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| The hemoglobin molecule consists of | 4 heme molecules, 4 golbin chains (2 pairs)
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| The basic pathophysiology of the thalassemic conditions is | alpa genes are deleted
beta genes are defective
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| Asynchrony in the bone marrow is defined as | unbalanced heme; N:C age do not correspond
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| Polychromatophillic macrocytes in the perioheral smear are defined as | reticulocytes
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| The red cell inclusion derived from denatured hemoglobin is | heinz bodies
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| The degree of effective erythropoietic activity in any hematological disorder is most readily assessed by the | reticulocyte count
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| Which red cell morphology will be produced when hemolysis is produced by intravascular fragmentation of red cells | shistocyte
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| Reversible sickled cells are described as having a | no pointed projections
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| The last nucleated stage of erythrocytic maturation is | orthochromic normoblast or metarubrocyte or nRBC
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| What percent of hemoglobin is synthesized in the reticulocyte stage? | 35%
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| Epsilon and zeta chains are part of which of the hemaglobins | Gower I and II and Portland
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| Fetal hemaglobin consist of which chains | Hgb F (a2y2) alpha and gama
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| The hemaglobin molecule will either hold onto or release oxygen depending on the | venous to pulmonary circulation
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| The abnormal hemoglobin that will result in a cyanotic condition is | hgb m - methemaglobin
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| How many genes are responsible for the production of alpha chains | 4
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| Which clinical condition is a definitive sign of intravascular lysis | hemaglobinemia
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| Which organs are the most affected during extravascular lysis | spleen, lier, lymph nodes and bone marrow
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| Storage iron is usually determined by the: | serum ferritin
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| In addition to iron ingestion, over 90% of iron in adults is used for erythropoiesis is obtained through | recycled of iron from heme
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| The first stage of iron deficiency anemia is termed | continuum of iron depletion of bone marrow
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| The alpha thalassemic condition that is incompatible with life is | barts hydrops fetalis
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| Which inclusion is associated with a "pitted" golf ball appearance? | Hgb H
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| Failure to thrive, bossed skull, sever anemia, and splenomegaly are all symptoms of | beta thalassimia major
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| one of the gravest clinical problems for individuals with thalassemia major is | iron overload
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| on electrophoresis the majority hemoglobin for individuals with thalassemia major is | Hgb F
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| An appropriate M:E ratio in the case of megaloblastice anemia would be | 1:1 - 1:3
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| What feature is classic in the megalobastic anemias? | macrovalocytes
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| Inffective erythropoiesis is defined as | destruction of RBC precursors in the bone marrow prematurly
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| Spherocytes do not function well in the splenetic environment because | osmotic fragility, equilibrium is off
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| RBC inclusion composed of denatured hemoglobin | heinz bodies
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| Cholelithiasis is frequent complication of patients with hereditary shperocytosis because | increase bilirubin, owing to continued hemolysis, causin gall stones
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| One of the least sever clinical manifestations of G6PD deficency is | Congenital nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia
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| An anemia that manifests as decreased marecellularity,cytopenias in 2 cellular elements and a reticocytopenia is appropriately termed | aplastic anemia
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| the hemoglobin varient that is seen in southeast asian population, shows microcytic picture, and migrates with Hgb c at pH 8.6 | hgb E
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| A patient with sickle cell anemia may develop cardiopulmonary disease due to | increased blood viscosity
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| autosplenectomy is characteristic of | sickle cell
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| When the bone marrow temp ceases to produce cells in a sickle cell patient an | aplastic sickle cell crisis has occured
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| Sickle cell disease is best differentiated from sickle cell trait by | Electropheris
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| Which 'poikilocyte' is classically associated with hemoglobinpathies and liver disease | target
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| What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in adults | chronic blood loss
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| Dysplastic changes of platelets frequently seen in MDS include | abnormal granualization and size; magakarocytic fragments and giant platelets
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| What chromosome disorder in MDS has a poor predictive influence | deletion 7
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| One of the key WBC features in MDS is | hypo-hyper granulated cells, pseudo-pelger-huet
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| Reticulocytopenia is a feature of MDS. What is the mechanism behind this | marrow aplasia
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| The blast count in most individuals with MDS is | <20%
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| The most effective means of treating iron overload in the myelodysplastic syndrome is | iron chelation
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| The morphological classification of anemai in the MDS (myelodysplastic syndrome) is | macrocytic, normochromic
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| Features of Myelodysplastic syndromes | macrocytic anemia, cytopenias that affect one or more cell lines, hypercellular bone marrow, organomegaly
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| The most common hematological malignancy in the adult population is | MDS myelodysplastic syndrome
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| Which new treatment for multiple myeloma was once banned from use for pregnant women | thalidomide
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| Patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia | hypogammaglobinemia, impaired immune function, mono clonal spike
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| An abnormal proliferation dysfunctional B lymphocyes is commonly associated with | CLL and mono
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| The most characteristic change seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with multiple myeloma | rouleaux
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| A significant feature of hairy cell leukemia not seen in other acute leukemias is | pancytopenia
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| Aperipheral blood picture dominated by cells that appear convoluted with an ovid nucleus and clefting would most likely be seen in | sezary syndrome
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| Hypogammaglobulinemia is a significant feature in half of patients with CLL. This can lead to | aha - autoimmune hemolytic anemia
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