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Hematology Final
| Question | Answer |
|---|---|
| What is the most useful corrective action for the microscope when fine details cannot be visualized in immature cells? | use 100x and open diaphragm |
| Behaviors that are violations of standard precautions: | not treating everyone as infected |
| Standard and calibrators differ from control materials because: | -Standards are solutions that have a known amount of analyte and used to calibrate the instrument -controls are used to monitor the performance after calibration (mimics patient samples) - |
| Proper mixing of samples and timely delivery of samples to the lab are both examples of what type of lab variables | preanalytical |
| A delta check is a historical reference on samples run in the lab. Once a sample fails a delta check, the most obvious corrective action is to | Verify patient ID |
| Common examples of post analytic variables include | -Delta check -results released -critical results called - reflex testing initiated - specimen checked for clots |
| Error analysis, standard protocols, and turnaround time are all part of the | QA |
| The avg of a group of data points is defined as the | mean |
| The avg M:E ration for normal adult bone marrow is | 3:1 to 4:1 |
| The key organs involved in extramedullary hematopoiesis include: | Liver and spleen |
| The best test to assess the bone marrow's response to anemic stress is | reticulocyte count |
| Antibody-coated red cells that have their antibodies stripped in the spleen usually reappear in the circulation as: | spherocyte |
| A peripheral blood indicator of ineffective bone marrow is | lack of polychromasia |
| The hormone responsible for signaling red cell development in the bone marrow is | EPO (erythropoietin) |
| The preferable site for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy is | iliac creast |
| A wright-stained smear of a patient with an elevated reticulocyte count should show | Lg red-bluish cells, polychromatophilic macrocytes |
| One of the key morphological features of the nucleated red cell stage is | baseball round nucleus |
| The red cell protein that is responsible for deform-ability and flexibility of the red cell is | spectrin and ankryin |
| Increased plasma cholesterol may lead to the development of which abnormal red cell morphologies | target cells |
| The hemoglobin molecule consists of | 4 heme molecules, 4 golbin chains (2 pairs) |
| The basic pathophysiology of the thalassemic conditions is | alpa genes are deleted beta genes are defective |
| Asynchrony in the bone marrow is defined as | unbalanced heme; N:C age do not correspond |
| Polychromatophillic macrocytes in the perioheral smear are defined as | reticulocytes |
| The red cell inclusion derived from denatured hemoglobin is | heinz bodies |
| The degree of effective erythropoietic activity in any hematological disorder is most readily assessed by the | reticulocyte count |
| Which red cell morphology will be produced when hemolysis is produced by intravascular fragmentation of red cells | shistocyte |
| Reversible sickled cells are described as having a | no pointed projections |
| The last nucleated stage of erythrocytic maturation is | orthochromic normoblast or metarubrocyte or nRBC |
| What percent of hemoglobin is synthesized in the reticulocyte stage? | 35% |
| Epsilon and zeta chains are part of which of the hemaglobins | Gower I and II and Portland |
| Fetal hemaglobin consist of which chains | Hgb F (a2y2) alpha and gama |
| The hemaglobin molecule will either hold onto or release oxygen depending on the | venous to pulmonary circulation |
| The abnormal hemoglobin that will result in a cyanotic condition is | hgb m - methemaglobin |
| How many genes are responsible for the production of alpha chains | 4 |
| Which clinical condition is a definitive sign of intravascular lysis | hemaglobinemia |
| Which organs are the most affected during extravascular lysis | spleen, lier, lymph nodes and bone marrow |
| Storage iron is usually determined by the: | serum ferritin |
| In addition to iron ingestion, over 90% of iron in adults is used for erythropoiesis is obtained through | recycled of iron from heme |
| The first stage of iron deficiency anemia is termed | continuum of iron depletion of bone marrow |
| The alpha thalassemic condition that is incompatible with life is | barts hydrops fetalis |
| Which inclusion is associated with a "pitted" golf ball appearance? | Hgb H |
| Failure to thrive, bossed skull, sever anemia, and splenomegaly are all symptoms of | beta thalassimia major |
| one of the gravest clinical problems for individuals with thalassemia major is | iron overload |
| on electrophoresis the majority hemoglobin for individuals with thalassemia major is | Hgb F |
| An appropriate M:E ratio in the case of megaloblastice anemia would be | 1:1 - 1:3 |
| What feature is classic in the megalobastic anemias? | macrovalocytes |
| Inffective erythropoiesis is defined as | destruction of RBC precursors in the bone marrow prematurly |
| Spherocytes do not function well in the splenetic environment because | osmotic fragility, equilibrium is off |
| RBC inclusion composed of denatured hemoglobin | heinz bodies |
| Cholelithiasis is frequent complication of patients with hereditary shperocytosis because | increase bilirubin, owing to continued hemolysis, causin gall stones |
| One of the least sever clinical manifestations of G6PD deficency is | Congenital nonspherocytic hemolytic anemia |
| An anemia that manifests as decreased marecellularity,cytopenias in 2 cellular elements and a reticocytopenia is appropriately termed | aplastic anemia |
| the hemoglobin varient that is seen in southeast asian population, shows microcytic picture, and migrates with Hgb c at pH 8.6 | hgb E |
| A patient with sickle cell anemia may develop cardiopulmonary disease due to | increased blood viscosity |
| autosplenectomy is characteristic of | sickle cell |
| When the bone marrow temp ceases to produce cells in a sickle cell patient an | aplastic sickle cell crisis has occured |
| Sickle cell disease is best differentiated from sickle cell trait by | Electropheris |
| Which 'poikilocyte' is classically associated with hemoglobinpathies and liver disease | target |
| What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in adults | chronic blood loss |
| Dysplastic changes of platelets frequently seen in MDS include | abnormal granualization and size; magakarocytic fragments and giant platelets |
| What chromosome disorder in MDS has a poor predictive influence | deletion 7 |
| One of the key WBC features in MDS is | hypo-hyper granulated cells, pseudo-pelger-huet |
| Reticulocytopenia is a feature of MDS. What is the mechanism behind this | marrow aplasia |
| The blast count in most individuals with MDS is | <20% |
| The most effective means of treating iron overload in the myelodysplastic syndrome is | iron chelation |
| The morphological classification of anemai in the MDS (myelodysplastic syndrome) is | macrocytic, normochromic |
| Features of Myelodysplastic syndromes | macrocytic anemia, cytopenias that affect one or more cell lines, hypercellular bone marrow, organomegaly |
| The most common hematological malignancy in the adult population is | MDS myelodysplastic syndrome |
| Which new treatment for multiple myeloma was once banned from use for pregnant women | thalidomide |
| Patients with chronic lymphocytic leukemia | hypogammaglobinemia, impaired immune function, mono clonal spike |
| An abnormal proliferation dysfunctional B lymphocyes is commonly associated with | CLL and mono |
| The most characteristic change seen in the peripheral smear of a patient with multiple myeloma | rouleaux |
| A significant feature of hairy cell leukemia not seen in other acute leukemias is | pancytopenia |
| Aperipheral blood picture dominated by cells that appear convoluted with an ovid nucleus and clefting would most likely be seen in | sezary syndrome |
| Hypogammaglobulinemia is a significant feature in half of patients with CLL. This can lead to | aha - autoimmune hemolytic anemia |
Created by:
svankirk
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